Ask 100 questions covering important information that I must know for mbbs general medicine

Ask 100 questions and answers covering important information that I must know for mbbs general medicine 1. Gastrointestinal bleed 2. Jaundice 3. Congenital heart disease 4. Stroke 5. Brainstem stroke 6. Altered sensorium 7. Parkinson’s disease 8. Epilepsy 9. Acute meningitis 10. Chronic liver disease 11. Portal hypertension 12. Acute pancreatitis 13. Acid peptic disease 14. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) 15. Budd–Chiari syndrome 16. Alcoholic liver disease 17. MASH (Metabolic dysfunction-associated steatohepatitis) 18. Chronic diarrhoea 19. Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) 20. Coronary artery disease 21. Approach to shock

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Given the breadth of this request (100 Q&As across 21 major topics), I'll generate these from my comprehensive medical knowledge base covering all the topics you've listed. This is high-yield MBBS General Medicine content.

100 High-Yield MBBS General Medicine Q&A


GASTROINTESTINAL BLEED (Q1-5)

Q1. What is the most common cause of upper GI bleed? A. Peptic ulcer disease (duodenal > gastric ulcer) accounts for ~50% of upper GI bleeds. Other causes include esophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, and erosive gastritis.
Q2. What clinical sign distinguishes upper from lower GI bleed? A. Melena (black, tarry, foul-smelling stool) indicates upper GI bleed (proximal to ligament of Treitz). Hematochezia (bright red blood per rectum) typically indicates lower GI bleed, though massive upper GI bleed can also cause hematochezia.
Q3. What is the Rockford score used for in GI bleed? A. The Rockall Score (pre- and post-endoscopy) stratifies risk of rebleeding and mortality in upper GI bleed. Parameters include age, shock, comorbidities, diagnosis, and stigmata of recent hemorrhage. Score ≥5 = high risk.
Q4. What endoscopic findings indicate high risk of rebleeding in peptic ulcer (Forrest classification)? A.
  • Forrest Ia: Active spurting arterial bleed - highest risk (~90%)
  • Forrest Ib: Oozing bleed
  • Forrest IIa: Visible non-bleeding vessel (~50% rebleed risk)
  • Forrest IIb: Adherent clot
  • Forrest IIc: Flat pigmented spot
  • Forrest III: Clean base - lowest risk (~5%) Forrest Ia, Ib, IIa require endoscopic therapy.
Q5. What is the initial resuscitation priority in acute severe GI bleed? A. Two large-bore IV cannulas, crossmatch blood, IV fluids (crystalloids initially), target Hb >7 g/dL (8 g/dL if cardiovascular disease), correct coagulopathy (FFP, platelets), IV PPI (omeprazole 80mg bolus then 8mg/hr infusion), urgent endoscopy within 24 hours (within 12 hours if variceal bleed suspected).

JAUNDICE (Q6-10)

Q6. Classify jaundice and give two causes of each type. A.
  • Pre-hepatic (hemolytic): Malaria, hereditary spherocytosis. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, urine normal (no bilirubin), increased urobilinogen.
  • Hepatic (hepatocellular): Viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis. Both conjugated and unconjugated raised, bilirubinuria present.
  • Post-hepatic (obstructive/cholestatic): Choledocholithiasis, carcinoma head of pancreas. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, dark urine, pale stools, pruritus.
Q7. What are the LFT findings in obstructive jaundice? A. Predominantly raised ALP (alkaline phosphatase) and GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase), with moderately raised bilirubin (conjugated). ALT/AST are minimally raised unless prolonged obstruction causes secondary hepatocellular damage.
Q8. What is Courvoisier's law? A. In obstructive jaundice, if the gallbladder is palpable and non-tender, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones (because chronic inflammation from stones makes the gallbladder fibrotic and non-distensible). A palpable, non-tender gallbladder with jaundice suggests carcinoma head of pancreas or periampullary carcinoma.
Q9. What is the significance of direct van den Bergh reaction? A. Direct reaction measures conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin. Positive direct reaction = conjugated hyperbilirubinemia = hepatic or post-hepatic jaundice. Indirect (unconjugated) elevation = pre-hepatic or Gilbert's syndrome/Crigler-Najjar.
Q10. What are the differences between Gilbert's syndrome and Crigler-Najjar syndrome? A.
  • Gilbert's: Mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, autosomal dominant/recessive (UGT1A1 promoter mutation), benign, triggered by fasting/stress, no treatment needed.
  • Crigler-Najjar Type I: Severe, complete absence of UGT1A1, kernicterus/death without liver transplant.
  • Crigler-Najjar Type II (Arias): Partial UGT1A1 deficiency, responds to phenobarbital, better prognosis.

CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE (Q11-15)

Q11. Classify congenital heart diseases with examples. A.
  • Acyanotic (left-to-right shunt initially): ASD, VSD, PDA, AVSD - become cyanotic after Eisenmenger's.
  • Cyanotic (right-to-left shunt): Tetralogy of Fallot (most common cyanotic CHD in children >1 year), Transposition of Great Arteries (most common in neonates), Tricuspid atresia, Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC), Truncus arteriosus. Mnemonic: "5 Ts."
Q12. What are the four components of Tetralogy of Fallot? A. PROVE:
  1. Pulmonary stenosis (infundibular > valvular)
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. Overiding aorta
  4. VSD (large, perimembranous) Pulmonary stenosis is the key determinant of severity. CXR shows "boot-shaped heart" (coeur en sabot).
Q13. What is Eisenmenger's syndrome? A. Reversal of a left-to-right shunt to right-to-left due to pulmonary arterial hypertension. Occurs in large uncorrected VSD, ASD, or PDA. Results in cyanosis, clubbing, and polycythemia. Surgical repair is then contraindicated (except heart-lung transplant). Treat with pulmonary vasodilators (sildenafil, bosentan).
Q14. What is the most common atrial septal defect and what are its signs? A. Ostium secundum ASD (70%) is most common. Signs: wide, fixed split S2 (due to delayed RV emptying), ejection systolic murmur at pulmonary area (increased flow), RV heave. ECG: right axis deviation, rSR' pattern in V1 (incomplete RBBB). Treatment: percutaneous closure (Amplatzer device) or surgical patch.
Q15. How does PDA present and how is it treated? A. Patent ductus arteriosus: Continuous "machinery" murmur at left infraclavicular area, bounding peripheral pulses, wide pulse pressure. In premature neonates: indomethacin (COX inhibitor reduces prostaglandins keeping ductus open) or ibuprofen. If fails: surgical ligation. In term neonates and adults: surgical or catheter-based closure. Note: In duct-dependent CHD (e.g., pulmonary atresia), PGE1 (alprostadil) is given to keep ductus open.

STROKE (Q16-20)

Q16. What is the definition of stroke vs. TIA? A.
  • Stroke: Sudden focal neurological deficit lasting >24 hours due to vascular cause (ischemic 85%, hemorrhagic 15%).
  • TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack): Focal neurological deficit resolving within 24 hours (usually <1 hour), with no infarction on imaging. High risk of subsequent stroke - use ABCD2 score to risk-stratify.
Q17. What are the time windows for thrombolysis and thrombectomy in ischemic stroke? A.
  • IV tPA (alteplase): Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset (3 hours in some guidelines). Contraindicated if: hemorrhage on CT, BP >185/110 (treat first), recent surgery, INR >1.7, platelets <100,000, blood glucose <50 or >400.
  • Mechanical thrombectomy: Within 6 hours (up to 24 hours with favorable imaging - DAWN/DEFUSE-3 trials) for large vessel occlusion (ICA, M1, basilar).
Q18. What are the features of MCA territory infarction? A. Middle cerebral artery is the most common site. Features: contralateral hemiplegia (arm > leg, face involved), contralateral hemisensory loss, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, aphasia (if dominant hemisphere - Broca's/Wernicke's), neglect (if non-dominant - right hemisphere). Total MCA occlusion causes massive edema - consider hemicraniectomy within 48 hours.
Q19. What is the ABCD2 score? A. Predicts 2-day stroke risk after TIA:
  • Age ≥60 = 1
  • BP ≥140/90 = 1
  • Clinical features: unilateral weakness = 2, speech disturbance without weakness = 1
  • Duration: ≥60 min = 2, 10-59 min = 1
  • Diabetes = 1 Score ≥4 = high risk, admit for urgent investigation.
Q20. What is the secondary prevention strategy after ischemic stroke? A.
  • Antiplatelet: Aspirin 75-150mg ± clopidogrel (dual for 21 days if minor stroke/TIA, then single agent)
  • Statin: High-dose (atorvastatin 40-80mg) even if normal cholesterol
  • Antihypertensives: Start after acute phase (ACE inhibitor + thiazide)
  • AF-related stroke: Anticoagulation (DOACs preferred over warfarin)
  • Carotid endarterectomy: If symptomatic carotid stenosis 70-99%

BRAINSTEM STROKE (Q21-24)

Q21. What are the features of lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome? A. Due to PICA (posterior inferior cerebellar artery) or vertebral artery occlusion. Features (PICA syndrome):
  • Ipsilateral: Facial pain/numbness (V), Horner's syndrome, palatal/pharyngeal weakness (IX,X - dysphagia, hoarseness), cerebellar signs (ataxia)
  • Contralateral: Spinothalamic loss (pain/temperature in limbs/trunk)
  • No hemiplegia (pyramidal tracts spared - lateral location)
  • Hiccups, nausea, vertigo
Q22. What distinguishes pontine from midbrain stroke clinically? A.
  • Midbrain (Weber's syndrome - PCA): Ipsilateral CN III palsy (ptosis, mydriasis, "down and out" eye) + contralateral hemiplegia (crossed hemiplegia)
  • Pons (Millard-Gubler): Ipsilateral CN VI (lateral gaze palsy) and CN VII palsy + contralateral hemiplegia
  • Pons (Foville's): Ipsilateral gaze palsy toward lesion + contralateral hemiplegia; eyes deviate AWAY from side of lesion (contrast to cortical stroke where eyes deviate TOWARD lesion)
  • Bilateral pontine stroke: Locked-in syndrome (intact consciousness, quadriplegia, only vertical eye movements preserved)
Q23. What is "one-and-a-half syndrome"? A. Lesion of the pontine paramedian reticular formation (PPRF) or MLF affecting:
  • Ipsilateral gaze palsy ("one") - cannot look toward lesion
  • Ipsilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia ("half") - cannot adduct ipsilateral eye on contralateral gaze Only movement preserved: contralateral abduction (exotropia = "wall-eyed" appearance). Causes: MS, brainstem stroke, tumor.
Q24. What are "crossed" neurological signs and why are they diagnostic of brainstem pathology? A. Crossed signs = ipsilateral cranial nerve deficit + contralateral long tract (motor/sensory) signs. This occurs because cranial nerve nuclei are at the level of the lesion (ipsilateral), while corticospinal/spinothalamic tracts cross either at the medulla (motor) or spinal cord (sensory). Example: Right facial weakness (CN VII) + left hemiplegia = right pontine lesion.

ALTERED SENSORIUM (Q25-28)

Q25. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and what score indicates coma? A.
ComponentBest ResponseScore
Eye openingSpontaneous/Voice/Pain/None4/3/2/1
VerbalOriented/Confused/Words/Sounds/None5/4/3/2/1
MotorObeys/Localizes/Withdraws/Flexion/Extension/None6/5/4/3/2/1
Maximum = 15 (normal). Coma = GCS ≤8. Minimum = 3 (deep coma/death).
Intubate if GCS ≤8 (cannot protect airway).
Q26. What are the metabolic causes of altered sensorium to exclude first? A. AEIOU-TIPS mnemonic:
  • Alcohol (intoxication/withdrawal)
  • Epilepsy (post-ictal)
  • Insulin (hypoglycemia - must always check BGL immediately)
  • Opiates/overdose
  • Uremia
  • Trauma
  • Infection (meningitis, encephalitis, sepsis)
  • Poisons/metabolic (hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, liver failure, CO)
  • Stroke/structural Always check: BSL (hypoglycemia), BMP (electrolytes), ABG, CT head, blood cultures.
Q27. What is hepatic encephalopathy and how is it graded? A. Neuropsychiatric syndrome from liver failure with hyperammonemia + systemic inflammation. West Haven Grading:
  • Grade I: Trivial lack of awareness, euphoria/anxiety, impaired attention, asterixis absent
  • Grade II: Lethargy, disorientation, obvious personality change, asterixis present
  • Grade III: Somnolence, confusion, gross disorientation, bizarre behavior
  • Grade IV: Coma Treatment: Lactulose (reduces ammonia production), rifaximin (non-absorbable antibiotic), treat precipitants (GI bleed, infection, electrolyte disturbance, constipation).
Q28. What are the pupillary findings in different causes of coma? A.
  • Metabolic coma: Pupils reactive (light reflex preserved until late)
  • Midbrain lesion: Fixed mid-position pupils (~5mm)
  • CN III compression (transtentorial herniation): Unilateral fixed, dilated pupil (mydriasis) - neurosurgical emergency
  • Pontine lesion: Bilateral pinpoint pupils (due to loss of sympathetics, intact parasympathetics)
  • Opiates: Bilateral pinpoint pupils (reversed by naloxone)
  • Atropine/anticholinergics: Bilateral fixed, dilated pupils

PARKINSON'S DISEASE (Q29-32)

Q29. What is the classic clinical triad of Parkinson's disease? A. TRAP:
  1. Tremor - resting, "pill-rolling," 4-6 Hz, worse at rest, better with movement
  2. Rigidity - "lead pipe" rigidity, or "cogwheel" if combined with tremor
  3. Akinesia/Bradykinesia - slowness of movement, shuffling gait, micrographia, hypomimia (masked facies), hypophonia
  4. Postural instability - late feature, festinant gait, falls Diagnosis is clinical. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta with Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein).
Q30. What are the first-line treatment options for Parkinson's disease? A.
  • Levodopa + Carbidopa (Sinemet): Most effective, gold standard. Carbidopa is peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor (reduces peripheral conversion of levodopa, reduces side effects, increases CNS availability). Complications: wearing off, on-off phenomenon, dyskinesias (long-term use).
  • Dopamine agonists (pramipexole, ropinirole, rotigotine): Used early, especially in young patients to delay levodopa. Risk: impulse control disorders, somnolence.
  • MAO-B inhibitors (selegiline, rasagiline): Mild benefit, possible neuroprotection.
  • COMT inhibitors (entacapone): Used with levodopa to prolong effect (reduce "off" time).
Q31. What are the features that suggest Parkinson's Plus syndromes rather than idiopathic PD? A. Red flags against idiopathic PD:
  • No tremor (or action > resting)
  • Symmetrical onset
  • Early falls (PSP - Progressive Supranuclear Palsy)
  • Early autonomic failure (MSA - Multiple System Atrophy)
  • Early dementia or hallucinations (DLB - Dementia with Lewy Bodies)
  • Vertical gaze palsy (PSP)
  • Poor response to levodopa
  • Cerebellar signs (MSA-C)
Q32. What is the mechanism of action of drugs used in PD tremor? A.
  • Anticholinergics (trihexyphenidyl/benzhexol, benztropine): Block muscarinic receptors in striatum; effective for tremor dominant PD in young patients; avoid in elderly (cognitive side effects).
  • Beta-blockers (propranolol): For essential tremor - also reduces action tremor in PD.
  • Levodopa: Reduces all features including tremor.
  • Deep brain stimulation (STN/GPi): Highly effective for tremor when medications fail.

EPILEPSY (Q33-37)

Q33. Classify seizures according to the ILAE 2017 classification. A.
  • Focal onset: Aware (formerly simple partial) / Impaired awareness (formerly complex partial) / focal to bilateral tonic-clonic
  • Generalized onset: Motor (tonic-clonic, tonic, clonic, myoclonic, atonic, epileptic spasms) / Non-motor (absence: typical/atypical)
  • Unknown onset EEG and MRI are key investigations for classification.
Q34. What is the drug of choice for different seizure types? A.
  • Focal seizures: Carbamazepine (first-line), lamotrigine, levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine
  • Generalized tonic-clonic: Valproate (most effective, avoid in women of childbearing age), levetiracetam, lamotrigine
  • Absence seizures: Ethosuximide (first-line for pure absence), valproate, lamotrigine
  • Myoclonic: Valproate, levetiracetam, clonazepam (avoid carbamazepine - worsens myoclonus)
  • Infantile spasms (West syndrome): ACTH or vigabatrin
  • Lennox-Gastaut: Valproate, rufinamide, clobazam
Q35. Define status epilepticus and its management. A. Seizure lasting >5 minutes (operationally) or 2+ seizures without recovery. Time-based protocol:
  • 0-5 min: ABCs, oxygen, glucose, IV access
  • 5-20 min (Phase 1): Lorazepam 4mg IV (or diazepam 10mg IV/rectal, midazolam 10mg IM/buccal)
  • 20-40 min (Phase 2): IV levetiracetam 60mg/kg OR valproate 40mg/kg OR phenytoin 20mg/kg (fosphenytoin preferred)
  • >40 min (Phase 3 - Refractory SE): ICU - propofol, midazolam infusion, thiopental, phenobarbital, ketamine
  • Always check for precipitants: low AED levels, CNS infection, metabolic, structural
Q36. What are the teratogenic antiepileptic drugs? A.
  • Valproate: Highest risk - neural tube defects (spina bifida 1-2%), cardiac, facial, cognitive impairment. Avoid in women of childbearing age unless no alternative.
  • Phenytoin: Fetal hydantoin syndrome (facial dysmorphism, digit hypoplasia, growth restriction)
  • Carbamazepine: Neural tube defects (0.5%)
  • Lamotrigine and levetiracetam: Considered relatively safer in pregnancy
  • All women on AEDs: folic acid 5mg/day preconception
Q37. What is the EEG pattern seen in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? A. Generalized 3-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave discharges, typically photoparoxysmal response. JME features: morning myoclonus (on waking), GTCS, absence seizures, lifelong condition - responds well to valproate. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine worsen JME.

ACUTE MENINGITIS (Q38-42)

Q38. What is the classic triad of bacterial meningitis and what is its diagnostic approach? A. Classic triad: Fever, headache (severe), neck stiffness (meningism). Also: photophobia, phonophobia, vomiting, altered consciousness, seizures.
  • Kernig's sign: Inability to extend knee when hip flexed at 90°
  • Brudzinski's sign: Involuntary hip/knee flexion on neck flexion
  • Immediate LP (if no papilledema, no focal signs, GCS >12, no coagulopathy)
  • CT first if: papilledema, focal signs, immunocompromised, seizures, GCS <12
  • Do not delay antibiotics for CT - give ceftriaxone before CT if concerned
Q39. What are the CSF findings in bacterial vs. viral meningitis? A.
FeatureBacterialViralTB
AppearanceTurbid/purulentClearClear/fibrin web
PressureVery highMildly highHigh
WBC>1000 (PMN)100-1000 (lymph)100-500 (lymph)
Protein>1g/L0.4-1g/L1-5 g/L
Glucose<40 mg/dL (<60% serum)NormalVery low
OtherGram stain+, culture+PCR+AFB, ADA raised
Q40. What is the empirical antibiotic regimen for bacterial meningitis? A.
  • Adults (18-60): Ceftriaxone 2g IV BD (covers S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis)
  • >60 years / immunocompromised: Add ampicillin 2g IV 4-hourly (covers Listeria monocytogenes, which cephalosporins miss)
  • Neonates: Ampicillin + cefotaxime (or aminoglycoside)
  • Add dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg IV QDS for 4 days - reduces mortality, hearing loss (most benefit in S. pneumoniae meningitis; evidence weaker for N. meningitidis)
  • Give dexamethasone before or with first antibiotic dose
Q41. What is the characteristic skin finding in meningococcal meningitis? A. Non-blanching petechial/purpuric rash - indicates meningococcemia. May progress to large ecchymoses (purpura fulminans) with DIC and adrenal hemorrhage (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome). This is a medical emergency - IV benzylpenicillin immediately (in community, even before hospital). Mortality 20-30% with fulminant disease.
Q42. What is the approach to TB meningitis? A. TBM features: subacute onset (weeks), basal meningeal enhancement on MRI with contrast, cranial nerve palsies (II, III, VI, VII), hydrocephalus, hyponatremia (SIADH). CSF: lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein, elevated ADA. Treatment: 2HRZE/10HR (standard TB therapy for 12 months). Add dexamethasone - reduces mortality and disability. Complications: hydrocephalus (VP shunt), vasculitis (stroke), tuberculoma.

CHRONIC LIVER DISEASE (Q43-46)

Q43. What are the clinical signs of chronic liver disease? A.
  • Hands: Leukonychia, clubbing, palmar erythema, Dupuytren's contracture, asterixis
  • Skin/general: Spider nevi (>5 significant), jaundice, parotid enlargement (alcohol), gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, loss of secondary sexual hair, bruising
  • Abdomen: Hepatomegaly (early) or small liver (late/cirrhosis), splenomegaly, caput medusae, ascites
  • Eyes: Kayser-Fleischer rings (Wilson's disease), xanthelasma (PBC)
Q44. What is the Child-Pugh score and MELD score? A. Child-Pugh Score (A=5-6, B=7-9, C=10-15):
  • Bilirubin, Albumin, PT/INR, Ascites (none/mild/severe), Encephalopathy (none/grade I-II/grade III-IV) Child A: Good surgical risk (1-year mortality ~5%) Child C: Poor risk (~85% mortality)
MELD Score: 3.78×ln(bilirubin) + 11.2×ln(INR) + 9.57×ln(creatinine) + 6.43 Used for liver transplant allocation. MELD >15 = benefit from transplant. MELD >40 = very high mortality.
Q45. What are the complications of cirrhosis? A. Mnemonic - ABCDE:
  • Ascites (and SBP)
  • Bleeding (varices, coagulopathy)
  • Cerebral - hepatic encephalopathy
  • Death (HCC - hepatocellular carcinoma; screen 6-monthly USS + AFP)
  • Endocrine - hypogonadism, diabetes (hepatogenous)
  • Hepatorenal syndrome, Hepatopulmonary syndrome, Portopulmonary hypertension
Q46. What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) and how is it diagnosed/treated? A. Infection of ascitic fluid without evident source. Most common organisms: E. coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus pneumoniae (gut translocation). Diagnosis: Ascitic tap - PMN count >250 cells/mm³ (or bacteria on culture). Symptoms: Fever, abdominal pain, worsening encephalopathy - but may be asymptomatic. Treatment: Cefotaxime 2g IV 8-hourly for 5 days. Add IV albumin 1.5g/kg on day 1, 1g/kg on day 3 (reduces hepatorenal syndrome, improves survival). Prophylaxis: Norfloxacin/ciprofloxacin long-term if: previous SBP, ascitic protein <15g/L + advanced cirrhosis.

PORTAL HYPERTENSION (Q47-50)

Q47. What are the causes of portal hypertension? A. Portal pressure >10 mmHg (normally 5-8 mmHg). Clinically significant PHT >12 mmHg.
  • Pre-hepatic: Portal vein thrombosis, splenic vein thrombosis
  • Intrahepatic (sinusoidal): Cirrhosis (most common overall), alcoholic hepatitis
  • Intrahepatic (pre-sinusoidal): Schistosomiasis (most common worldwide), PBC (early), sarcoidosis, nodular regenerative hyperplasia
  • Post-hepatic: Budd-Chiari syndrome, cardiac failure (congestive), constrictive pericarditis
Q48. How are esophageal varices managed? A.
  • Primary prophylaxis: Non-selective beta-blockers (propranolol, carvedilol) OR band ligation. Reduce portal pressure, prevent first bleed.
  • Acute variceal bleed: Terlipressin (vasoconstrictor, reduces portal pressure) + IV ceftriaxone (antibiotic prophylaxis) + urgent endoscopic band ligation within 12 hours. Sengstaken-Blakemore tube as bridge to TIPS if uncontrolled bleeding. TIPSS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt) if refractory.
  • Secondary prophylaxis: Combination of beta-blockers + band ligation (reduces rebleed from 60% to 20%).
Q49. What is TIPS and its indications/complications? A. Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt - radiological procedure creating intrahepatic connection between portal and hepatic vein via a stent, decompressing portal system. Indications: Refractory variceal bleed, refractory ascites, Budd-Chiari syndrome. Complications: Hepatic encephalopathy (worsens in 25-30% - blood bypasses liver), shunt stenosis/occlusion (use covered PTFE stents), liver failure (if hepatic blood flow compromised). Contraindications: Severe encephalopathy, heart failure, biliary obstruction.
Q50. What is the Porto-pulmonary hypertension (POPH)? A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension in the setting of portal hypertension. Occurs in ~2-5% of cirrhotic patients. Diagnosis: RHC showing mean PAP >25 mmHg with pulmonary vascular resistance >240 dynes·sec·cm⁻⁵. Precludes liver transplant if severe (mPAP >50 mmHg). Treatment: pulmonary vasodilators (prostacyclins, phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors). Distinct from hepatopulmonary syndrome (intrapulmonary vascular dilatation causing V/Q mismatch, PaO2 <70 mmHg).

ACUTE PANCREATITIS (Q51-54)

Q51. What are the common causes of acute pancreatitis? A. Mnemonic - GET SMASHED:
  • Gallstones (most common overall, 45%)
  • Ethanol/Alcohol (2nd most common, 35%)
  • Trauma
  • Steroids
  • Mumps (viral: CMV, HIV, coxsackie)
  • Autoimmune (Type 1 - IgG4, Type 2)
  • Scorpion venom (tropical)
  • Hyperlipidemia (triglycerides >1000 mg/dL), Hypercalcemia
  • ERCP (post-procedure)
  • Drugs: azathioprine, valproate, thiazides, tetracycline, furosemide
Q52. How is severity of acute pancreatitis assessed? A.
  • Revised Atlanta Classification: Mild (no organ failure, no local complications), Moderately severe (transient organ failure <48h or local complications), Severe (persistent organ failure >48h)
  • Ranson's Criteria: At admission (5 parameters) + at 48 hours (6 parameters). Score ≥3 = severe.
  • BISAP Score: BUN >25, Impaired mental status, SIRS, Age >60, Pleural effusion (score >2 = severe)
  • CT Severity Index (Balthazar): CT grade (A-E) + necrosis score
  • CRP >150 mg/L at 48 hours = severe pancreatitis
Q53. What is the management of acute pancreatitis? A. PANCREAS mnemonic approach:
  • Pain control: IV opioids (morphine/pethidine - meperidine traditionally used but morphine acceptable)
  • Analgesia + Nursing: IV fluids - aggressive early resuscitation (Ringer's lactate preferred over NS, 250-500ml/hr initially)
  • Critical care if severe; HDU/ICU
  • Rest bowel (nil by mouth initially); early enteral feeding (nasojejunal tube) preferred over parenteral in severe cases
  • ERCP within 24-48 hours if gallstone pancreatitis + cholangitis/persistent obstruction
  • Antibiotics: Only if infected necrosis suspected (NOT prophylactic)
  • Surgery/intervention: Necrosectomy for infected pancreatic necrosis (delay 3-4 weeks for walling off - "step-up approach": percutaneous drainage first, then surgery)
Q54. What are the local and systemic complications of acute pancreatitis? A.
  • Local: Acute peripancreatic fluid collection → pseudocyst (>4 weeks, encapsulated, no necrosis); Acute necrotic collection → Walled-off necrosis (>4 weeks); pancreatic abscess; pseudoaneurysm (splenic artery - rupture risk); splenic vein thrombosis; fistula; "left-sided portal hypertension"
  • Systemic: ARDS, AKI (acute kidney injury), DIC, hypocalcemia (saponification - tetany), hyperglycemia, sepsis, multi-organ failure
  • Chronic sequelae: Chronic pancreatitis, exocrine insufficiency, endocrine insufficiency (diabetes)

ACID PEPTIC DISEASE (Q55-58)

Q55. What are the differences between gastric and duodenal ulcers? A.
FeatureDuodenal Ulcer (DU)Gastric Ulcer (GU)
SiteD1 (anterior wall)Lesser curve (type I)
AgeYounger (30-50)Older (50-70)
H. pylori>90%~70%
AcidHypersecretionNormal/low
PainRelieved by foodWorsened by food
Night painCommonLess common
WeightMaintainedWeight loss (fear of eating)
Cancer riskVery lowSmall risk (exclude malignancy by biopsy)
Q56. What is the H. pylori eradication regimen? A.
  • Triple therapy (7-14 days): PPI (BD) + Clarithromycin 500mg BD + Amoxicillin 1g BD (or Metronidazole 400mg BD if penicillin allergy)
  • Quadruple therapy (if clarithromycin resistance >15% locally): PPI + Bismuth + Tetracycline + Metronidazole for 10-14 days (bismuth-based)
  • Or Concomitant 4-drug (non-bismuth): PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin + Metronidazole
  • Confirm eradication 4-6 weeks after treatment with urea breath test (or stool antigen test) - NOT serology (remains positive even after eradication)
  • Eradication rates: ~80-90% with first-line regimens
Q57. What is the mechanism of action of PPIs and H2 blockers? A.
  • PPIs (omeprazole, pantoprazole, lansoprazole, rabeprazole, esomeprazole): Irreversibly inhibit H⁺/K⁺-ATPase (proton pump) in parietal cell canaliculi. Are prodrugs - activated in acidic environment of canaliculus. Most effective acid suppressants. Take 30 min before meals for maximum effect.
  • H2 blockers (ranitidine, famotidine, cimetidine): Competitively block H2 receptors on parietal cells, reducing histamine-stimulated acid secretion. Less effective than PPIs. Cimetidine: multiple drug interactions (CYP450 inhibitor), anti-androgenic (gynecomastia).
Q58. What are the indications for surgery in peptic ulcer disease? A.
  • Emergency: Perforation (pneumoperitoneum on erect CXR - "free air under diaphragm"), bleeding not controllable endoscopically, obstruction (pyloric stenosis - unresponsive to medical therapy)
  • Elective: Very rare now with H. pylori eradication and PPIs
  • Most common emergency: Perforated DU - emergency laparotomy, omental patch repair (Graham's patch), peritoneal lavage + H. pylori eradication + PPI

IRRITABLE BOWEL SYNDROME (Q59-61)

Q59. What are the Rome IV criteria for IBS? A. Recurrent abdominal pain ≥1 day/week (on average) in the last 3 months, associated with ≥2 of:
  1. Related to defecation
  2. Associated with change in frequency of stool
  3. Associated with change in form (appearance) of stool Criteria fulfilled for last 3 months with symptom onset ≥6 months prior to diagnosis. Subtypes: IBS-C (constipation predominant), IBS-D (diarrhea predominant), IBS-M (mixed), IBS-U (unclassified).
Q60. What are the red flag symptoms that should prompt investigation to exclude organic disease before labeling IBS? A. ALARMS:
  • Anemia (iron deficiency)
  • Late onset (>50 years)
  • Anoreexia/weight loss
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Mass (abdominal or rectal)
  • Stronger family history of CRC or IBD Also: Nocturnal symptoms, fever, raised inflammatory markers. These warrant colonoscopy and other investigations before IBS diagnosis.
Q61. What is the management of IBS? A.
  • Explanation, reassurance, doctor-patient relationship
  • Diet: Low FODMAP diet (Fermentable Oligosaccharides Disaccharides Monosaccharides And Polyols) - reduces symptoms in 50-70%
  • IBS-C: Fiber supplement (psyllium/ispaghula), osmotic laxatives (PEG), linaclotide, lubiprostone
  • IBS-D: Loperamide, bile acid sequestrants (if BAM), rifaximin (non-absorbable antibiotic), eluxadoline
  • Pain: Antispasmodics (mebeverine, hyoscine, peppermint oil), low-dose tricyclics (amitriptyline - also help diarrhea), SSRIs (for pain + anxiety, better for constipation)
  • Psychological: CBT, hypnotherapy (evidence-based for IBS)

BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME (Q62-64)

Q62. What is Budd-Chiari syndrome and what are its causes? A. Hepatic venous outflow obstruction due to thrombosis of hepatic veins and/or IVC. Causes (thrombophilic states predominantly):
  • Myeloproliferative neoplasms (JAK2 mutation - most common, especially Polycythemia Vera)
  • Antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Factor V Leiden, Protein C/S/antithrombin III deficiency
  • PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)
  • Pregnancy/OCP (estrogen-related)
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma (local invasion)
  • Behcet's disease
  • Membranous obstruction of IVC (in Asia/Africa)
Q63. What are the clinical features and diagnostic approach in Budd-Chiari? A.
  • Acute: RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, rapid ascites
  • Chronic: Massive hepatomegaly (caudate lobe hypertrophy - caudate has direct drainage to IVC), ascites, splenomegaly, varices
  • Fulminant: Liver failure, encephalopathy Classic triad: Hepatomegaly + Ascites + Abdominal pain Diagnosis: Doppler USS (absent/reversed flow in hepatic veins - first-line), CT/MRI (spider-web pattern), liver biopsy (zone 3 congestion/necrosis - centrilobular).
Q64. How is Budd-Chiari syndrome managed? A. Step-up approach:
  1. Anticoagulation (LMWH then warfarin/DOAC) - all patients unless contraindicated
  2. Treat underlying cause (hydroxyurea for MPN, immunosuppression for Behcet's)
  3. Diuretics for ascites, therapeutic paracentesis
  4. Angioplasty/thrombolysis for short-segment stenosis/recent thrombosis
  5. TIPS - for failure of above; effective for decompression
  6. Liver transplant - for fulminant or end-stage; lifelong anticoagulation post-transplant

ALCOHOLIC LIVER DISEASE (Q65-67)

Q65. What are the stages of alcoholic liver disease? A.
  1. Alcoholic steatosis (fatty liver): Reversible on abstinence; asymptomatic usually; hepatomegaly; raised GGT
  2. Alcoholic hepatitis: Fever, jaundice, tender hepatomegaly, raised AST:ALT ratio >2:1 (both rarely >300 IU/L), raised GGT, leukocytosis; can progress to liver failure
  3. Alcoholic cirrhosis: Irreversible; all complications of cirrhosis
Q66. How is alcoholic hepatitis diagnosed and what is its treatment? A. Discriminant Function (Maddrey's DF) = 4.6 × (PT - control PT) + serum bilirubin (µmol/L ÷ 17.1 in µmol/L system) or simply use if PT prolonged >4 sec above control + bilirubin >80 µmol/L. DF >32 = severe alcoholic hepatitis (30-day mortality ~35-50%). MELD >20 also indicates severe disease. Treatment of severe AH:
  • Prednisolone 40mg/day for 28 days (Lille model score at day 7 - if >0.45, no response, consider stopping steroids)
  • If steroids contraindicated: Pentoxifylline (now less favored - not shown superior in recent trials)
  • Abstinence from alcohol (most important long-term factor)
  • Nutritional support (protein-calorie malnutrition common)
  • Liver transplant: Considered in "super-urgent" cases not responding (controversial, requires MDT)
Q67. What are the neurological complications of alcoholism? A.
  • Wernicke's encephalopathy (thiamine B1 deficiency): CONFUSION + OPHTHALMOPLEGIA (nystagmus, lateral gaze palsy, CN VI) + ATAXIA (classic triad, often incomplete). Treat with IV thiamine (Pabrinex) immediately - before glucose. MRI: mamillary body hyperintensity.
  • Korsakoff's syndrome: Anterograde amnesia, confabulation - chronic irreversible state post-Wernicke's
  • Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration: Truncal ataxia, wide-based gait
  • Peripheral neuropathy: Mainly sensory, stocking-glove distribution
  • Alcohol withdrawal: Seizures (6-48h after last drink), delirium tremens (24-96h), Rx with benzodiazepines (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam in UK/India)

MASH - Metabolic Dysfunction-Associated Steatohepatitis (Q68-70)

Q68. What is MASH and how is it diagnosed? A. Formerly called NASH (nonalcoholic steatohepatitis). Definition: hepatic steatosis + inflammation + hepatocyte injury (ballooning) in the context of metabolic risk factors (obesity, T2DM, dyslipidemia, MetS), with little/no alcohol (<14 units/week women, <21 units/week men). Diagnosis: Clinical context + LFTs (raised ALT, but can be normal), USS (echogenic liver), liver biopsy (gold standard) for grading inflammation/staging fibrosis. Non-invasive tools: FIB-4 score, elastography (FibroScan).
Q69. What is the NAS score (NAFLD Activity Score) in liver biopsy for MASH? A. Scored on biopsy:
  • Steatosis: 0-3
  • Lobular inflammation: 0-3
  • Hepatocyte ballooning: 0-2 NAS 0-2: Not MASH; NAS 3-4: borderline; NAS ≥5: Definite MASH Also staged separately: Fibrosis (F0-F4). F3-F4 has worst prognosis.
Q70. What is the management of MASH? A.
  • Lifestyle modification (cornerstone): Weight loss of 7-10% body weight reduces steatohepatitis and fibrosis. Exercise independently beneficial.
  • Control metabolic risk factors: T2DM (pioglitazone - shown to improve histology; GLP-1 agonists - semaglutide; SGLT2 inhibitors), hypertension, dyslipidemia (statins safe in MASH)
  • FDA-approved (2024): Resmetirom (thyroid hormone receptor-beta agonist) - first approved medication specifically for MASH with fibrosis
  • Vitamin E: Shown to improve histology in non-diabetic MASH (but safety concerns limit use)
  • Bariatric surgery for morbid obesity improves MASH
  • Liver transplant for decompensated MASH cirrhosis or HCC

CHRONIC DIARRHOEA (Q71-73)

Q71. How do you classify chronic diarrhoea? A. Diarrhoea lasting >4 weeks. Classification:
  • Osmotic: Stops with fasting; osmotic gap >125 mOsm/kg (stool osmotic gap = 290 - 2×(Na+K)). Causes: lactose intolerance, sorbitol, Mg antacids, osmotic laxative abuse
  • Secretory: Persists with fasting; large volume (>1L/day); normal osmotic gap (<50). Causes: VIPoma, carcinoid, microscopic colitis, bile acid malabsorption, cholera
  • Malabsorptive/fatty: Steatorrhea, weight loss. Causes: celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis, small bowel bacterial overgrowth, Crohn's ileitis
  • Inflammatory: Blood/mucus, fever. Causes: IBD, microscopic colitis, infective colitis
  • Functional: IBS-D, normal investigations
Q72. What is celiac disease and how is it diagnosed? A. Immune-mediated enteropathy triggered by gluten (wheat, barley, rye) in genetically susceptible individuals (HLA-DQ2/DQ8). Leads to villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia in small bowel. Serology (while on gluten-containing diet): Anti-tTG IgA (tissue transglutaminase) - best screen; Anti-endomysial IgA (most specific); check total IgA (IgA deficiency causes false negatives). Biopsy: Duodenal biopsy (Marsh classification III: subtotal to total villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes) Treatment: Strict lifelong gluten-free diet. Monitor: DXA for osteoporosis, annual blood tests.
Q73. What is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) and how is it diagnosed? A. Excessive bacteria (>10⁵ CFU/mL) in small intestine, normally kept sterile by: gastric acid, intestinal motility, IgA, ileocecal valve. Causes: Achlorhydria (PPIs, atrophic gastritis), gastroparesis (DM), anatomical (blind loops, diverticula, Rohn's strictures), IBS, cirrhosis. Features: Bloating, diarrhea, malabsorption (B12 deficiency - bacteria consume B12; fat-soluble vitamins deficient). Diagnosis: Glucose or lactulose hydrogen breath test (gold standard - non-invasive). Small bowel aspirate + culture (invasive, rarely done). Treatment: Rifaximin 550mg TDS for 14 days; rotating antibiotics (metronidazole, ciprofloxacin); treat underlying cause.

INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE (Q74-77)

Q74. What are the key differences between Crohn's disease and Ulcerative Colitis? A.
FeatureCrohn'sUlcerative Colitis
DistributionAny GI tract (mouth to anus), skip lesionsRectum + continuous proximal extension (colon only)
DepthTransmuralMucosal only
HistologyNon-caseating granulomasCrypt abscesses, goblet cell depletion
SymptomsRIF pain, diarrhoea, weight lossBloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus
ComplicationsFistulae, strictures, abscesses, perianalToxic megacolon, cancer risk, PSC
SmokingWorsens Crohn'sSmoking protects from UC (worse after cessation)
SurgeryNot curativeProctocolectomy curative
Q75. What are the extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD? A.
  • Parallel disease activity (improve with IBD control): Peripheral arthropathy (type 1 - pauciarticular, large joints), oral aphthous ulcers, erythema nodosum, episcleritis
  • Independent of disease activity: Axial arthropathy (ankylosing spondylitis - HLA-B27), pyoderma gangrenosum, uveitis/iritis, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC - especially UC, p-ANCA positive)
  • PSC: Bile duct strictures + beading on ERCP/MRCP, increased risk cholangiocarcinoma and CRC; treat with UDCA (ursodeoxycholic acid)
Q76. What is the treatment strategy in IBD? A.
  • UC mild-moderate: 5-ASA (mesalazine) oral + rectal, or systemic/topical steroids
  • UC severe/steroid-refractory: IV hydrocortisone; rescue therapy: IV ciclosporin or infliximab; if fails: colectomy
  • Crohn's induction: Steroids, elemental/polymeric diet; biologics early in fistulising/complex disease
  • Maintenance (both): 5-ASA (UC), azathioprine/6-MP (both), methotrexate (Crohn's), biologics: anti-TNF (infliximab, adalimumab), anti-integrin (vedolizumab), anti-IL-12/23 (ustekinumab), anti-IL-23 (risankizumab - newer)
  • Assess remission: Calprotectin, endoscopy (mucosa healing is treatment target)
Q77. What is toxic megacolon and how is it managed? A. Life-threatening complication of severe colitis (UC most common; also C. difficile, Crohn's). Colon diameter >6cm (transverse on plain AXR) + systemic toxicity (fever >38.6°C, HR >120, WBC >10.5, anemia). Precipitants: Hypokalemia, opioids, antidiarrheals, colonoscopy. Management: NBM, NG suction, IV fluids, IV steroids (hydrocortisone), IV antibiotics (metronidazole + cephalosporin), correct electrolytes (especially K+). Twice-daily AXR monitoring. Surgery (urgent subtotal colectomy) if: perforation, peritonitis, no improvement at 24-72 hours.

CORONARY ARTERY DISEASE (Q78-82)

Q78. What are the ECG changes in acute STEMI and which territory does each correspond to? A.
  • Anterior (LAD): ST elevation V1-V4 (proximal LAD = V1-V6 + I, aVL)
  • Inferior (RCA or LCx): ST elevation II, III, aVF; reciprocal depression I, aVL
  • Lateral (LCx or diagonal): ST elevation I, aVL, V5-V6
  • Posterior (RCA/LCx): ST depression V1-V3 (mirror image) + tall R waves V1-V2; confirm with posterior leads V7-V9 (ST elevation)
  • Right ventricular (proximal RCA): Inferior STEMI + ST elevation V4R. Important: RV infarct - avoid nitrates and diuretics (preload-dependent); treat with IV fluids
Q79. What is the TIMI risk score and when is it used? A. TIMI score for NSTEMI/UA (Unstable Angina):
  • Age ≥65
  • ≥3 CAD risk factors
  • Prior coronary stenosis ≥50%
  • ST deviation on ECG
  • ≥2 anginal events in 24 hours
  • Aspirin use in past 7 days
  • Elevated cardiac biomarkers Score 0-2: Low risk (4.7% adverse events); 3-4: Intermediate (13.2%); 5-7: High (40.9%) Higher scores warrant early invasive strategy.
Q80. What are the components of DAPT and how long should it be given after PCI? A. Dual Antiplatelet Therapy = Aspirin 75-100mg OD + P2Y12 inhibitor
  • Clopidogrel: Prodrug (requires CYP2C19 activation), check for poor metabolizers
  • Ticagrelor: Preferred over clopidogrel (PLATO trial), direct P2Y12 inhibitor, more potent, reversible
  • Prasugrel: Most potent; contraindicated in >75 years, <60kg, prior TIA/stroke Duration after PCI:
  • Elective PCI (stable angina): 6 months DAPT then aspirin alone
  • ACS + PCI: 12 months DAPT (irrespective of stent type)
  • High bleeding risk: DAPT can be shortened to 3-6 months
  • High thrombotic risk: Extended DAPT >12 months
Q81. What are the absolute contraindications to thrombolysis in STEMI? A.
  • Previous intracranial hemorrhage (any time)
  • Ischemic stroke <3 months (unless within 4.5h window - complex decision)
  • Known intracranial malignancy, AVM, or aneurysm
  • Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
  • Significant closed-head/face trauma <3 months
  • Aortic dissection
  • Severe uncontrolled hypertension >180/110 unresponsive to treatment (relative) PCI is preferred over thrombolysis when available within 120 minutes of first medical contact.
Q82. What medications are given at discharge post-MI (secondary prevention)? A. Mnemonic BASM-A:
  • Beta-blocker (bisoprolol, carvedilol, metoprolol) - reduce mortality/remodeling, continue indefinitely
  • ACE inhibitor (ramipril, lisinopril) - reduce remodeling, heart failure prevention, all post-MI patients, especially if EF reduced; ARB if ACEi intolerant
  • Statin - high dose (atorvastatin 40-80mg) - LDL target <1.4 mmol/L (<55 mg/dL); add ezetimibe, PCSK9i if needed
  • Mineral receptor antagonist (eplerenone/spironolactone) - if EF ≤35% and HF/DM
  • Antiplatelet - DAPT for 12 months, then aspirin indefinitely

APPROACH TO SHOCK (Q83-87)

Q83. What are the four types of shock and their causes? A.
  1. Distributive (vasodilatory - warm shock): Septic (most common), anaphylactic, neurogenic, adrenal crisis - decreased SVR, high CO (in sepsis initially)
  2. Hypovolemic: Blood loss (hemorrhagic), fluid loss (vomiting, diarrhea, burns) - decreased preload, decreased CO
  3. Cardiogenic: MI, cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia, myocarditis - pump failure, decreased CO, high SVR
  4. Obstructive: Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, massive PE, aortic stenosis - mechanical obstruction to flow
Q84. What is the definition of septic shock (Sepsis-3 criteria)? A. Sepsis = life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response to infection (SOFA score increase ≥2). Septic shock (Sepsis-3) = Sepsis + vasopressor requirement to maintain MAP ≥65 mmHg + serum lactate >2 mmol/L in absence of hypovolemia. SOFA score assesses: PaO2/FiO2, GCS, MAP/vasopressors, creatinine, bilirubin, platelet count. qSOFA (quick screen): RR ≥22, altered mentation, SBP ≤100 (score ≥2 = high risk).
Q85. What is the Surviving Sepsis Campaign "1-hour bundle"? A. Within 1 hour of recognition of sepsis/septic shock:
  1. Measure lactate (if >2 mmol/L, remeasure if initial >4 mmol/L)
  2. Blood cultures x2 (before antibiotics, but do not delay)
  3. Broad-spectrum antibiotics - within 1 hour (every hour delay increases mortality)
  4. 30ml/kg IV crystalloids if hypotensive or lactate ≥4 mmol/L
  5. Vasopressors if hypotensive during/after fluids to target MAP ≥65 mmHg (Norepinephrine first-line)
Q86. What are the vasopressors and inotropes used in shock? A.
  • Norepinephrine (noradrenaline): First-line in septic shock - α1 > β1, increases SVR and MAP
  • Vasopressin: Add-on in refractory septic shock (0.03 units/min) - V1 receptor, vasopressor; may spare norepinephrine
  • Dopamine: Low dose (2-5 mcg/kg/min): D1 (renal/splanchnic); Mid (5-10): β1 (inotrope); High (>10): α1 (vasopressor). Now rarely used for renal protection (not evidence-based); 2nd line vasopressor in septic shock.
  • Dobutamine: β1 > β2 agonist; inotrope without vasoconstriction; used in cardiogenic shock (with norepinephrine if hypotensive)
  • Epinephrine (adrenaline): α1+β1+β2; used in anaphylaxis (IM) and refractory shock/cardiac arrest
  • Phenylephrine: Pure α1 vasopressor; useful in septic shock with tachyarrhythmia
Q87. What is the pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock and its treatment? A. IgE-mediated (Type I hypersensitivity) mast cell/basophil degranulation releasing histamine, tryptase, leukotrienes → vasodilation, increased permeability, bronchoconstriction. Triggers: Drugs (penicillin, NSAIDs), foods (peanuts, shellfish), insect stings, latex, contrast. Clinical: Urticaria/angioedema + cardiovascular (hypotension, tachycardia) and/or respiratory (bronchospasm, stridor). Treatment:
  1. Epinephrine (adrenaline) 0.5mg IM into anterolateral thigh (1:1000 solution) - most important
  2. IV fluids (500ml-1L rapid)
  3. Antihistamine (chlorphenamine 10mg IV)
  4. Hydrocortisone 200mg IV (delays recurrence, biphasic reaction)
  5. Nebulized salbutamol if bronchospasm
  6. Observe 4-12 hours (biphasic reaction in 5-20%)

INTEGRATED/CROSS-TOPIC QUESTIONS (Q88-100)

Q88. What is the triad of portal hypertension? A. Splenomegaly, Ascites, Varices. The key underlying mechanism is increased resistance to portal flow (sinusoidal in cirrhosis) + increased portal blood inflow (splanchnic vasodilation from NO, VIP, glucagon).
Q89. What drug is used to reduce portal pressure in acute variceal bleed and what is its mechanism? A. Terlipressin (or octreotide/somatostatin). Terlipressin: synthetic vasopressin analogue - acts on V1 receptors causing splanchnic vasoconstriction, reduces portal pressure. Octreotide: somatostatin analogue, inhibits glucagon release (a splanchnic vasodilator). Continue for 3-5 days.
Q90. How would you distinguish Parkinson's disease tremor from essential tremor? A.
FeatureParkinson's TremorEssential Tremor
TypeResting ("pill-rolling")Action/postural
Frequency4-6 Hz6-12 Hz
Improves with...MovementRest
Suppressed byMovementAlcohol
Other featuresBradykinesia, rigidityBilateral, head/voice tremor
TreatmentLevodopa, anticholinergicsPropranolol, primidone
Q91. What are the causes of conjugated vs. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate? A.
  • Unconjugated (physiological/pathological): Physiological jaundice (2nd-4th day, benign), ABO/Rh hemolysis, G6PD deficiency, spherocytosis, Crigler-Najjar, hypothyroidism, breast milk jaundice
  • Conjugated (always pathological): Biliary atresia (Kasai procedure urgently if <60 days), neonatal hepatitis, choledochal cyst, Alagille syndrome, metabolic (galactosemia, alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency) Direct bilirubin >20% of total = conjugated hyperbilirubinemia; always investigate.
Q92. What is the "triple assessment" for evaluating a patient with upper GI symptoms? A. Upper endoscopy (OGD) + biopsy + H. pylori testing (CLO test/histology/urea breath test). For any new upper GI symptoms in patients >55 years or with alarm features, urgent endoscopy within 2 weeks (2-week wait referral in UK/equivalent cancer pathway) to exclude malignancy.
Q93. What ECG changes do you see in hyperkalemia and what is the management? A. Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.5 mEq/L) ECG progression:
  • K+ 5.5-6.5: Tall peaked T waves (narrow base)
  • K+ 6.5-7: Prolonged PR, widened QRS
  • K+ >7: Sine wave pattern, loss of P waves
  • K+ >8: Ventricular fibrillation/asystole Treatment (severe K+ >6.5 or ECG changes):
  1. IV calcium gluconate 10% 10ml - membrane stabilization (immediate, 1-3 min)
  2. Insulin 10U + 50ml 50% dextrose IV - shifts K into cells (30-60 min)
  3. Salbutamol nebulized 10-20mg - also shifts K+ in (additive with insulin)
  4. Remove K+: Furosemide, kayexalate/patiromer (GI binding), dialysis (definitive if AKI/renal failure)
  5. Sodium bicarbonate - if concurrent severe acidosis
Q94. What is the approach to a patient with suspected meningitis who cannot have LP immediately? A. If CT required before LP (focal signs, papilledema, GCS <12, seizures, immunocompromised), the sequence is:
  1. Blood cultures x2 (immediately)
  2. Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg IV
  3. IV Ceftriaxone 2g immediately (do not wait)
  4. CT head
  5. LP when safe LP findings will still be meaningful even after antibiotics (for a few hours - cell counts, protein, glucose remain diagnostic). Never delay antibiotics for investigations.
Q95. What are the ROME IV criteria for functional dyspepsia? A. Bothersome postprandial fullness, early satiation, epigastric pain or burning, at least 1 day/week for 3 months, symptom onset >6 months prior, with no structural disease on endoscopy. Two subtypes:
  • Postprandial distress syndrome (PDS) - meal-related fullness/satiation
  • Epigastric pain syndrome (EPS) - pain/burning not necessarily meal-related Treatment: H. pylori eradication if positive, low-dose TCAs, prokinetics (itopride, domperidone), PPIs (limited benefit), psychological therapies.
Q96. What are the criteria for diagnosing alcoholic hepatitis vs. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (MASH)? A.
  • Alcoholic hepatitis: History of significant alcohol use (>40g/day women, >60g/day men, for years), recent drinking + symptoms; AST:ALT ratio >2:1; both rarely >300 IU/L; raised GGT; often raised MCV; elevated IgA on serum immunoglobulins
  • MASH: No significant alcohol; metabolic syndrome (obesity, DM, dyslipidemia); ALT > AST typically; raised ALT with AST:ALT <1 Can co-exist. Liver biopsy can help differentiate but histology overlaps.
Q97. What is the mechanism and management of hepatic hydrothorax? A. Pleural effusion (usually right-sided, 70%) in cirrhosis without primary cardiopulmonary disease. Mechanism: Small diaphragmatic defects allow ascitic fluid to track into pleural space (negative intrathoracic pressure draws fluid). Usually right-sided as left diaphragm is more muscular. Management: Same as ascites (salt restriction, diuretics); avoid chest drain (recurs rapidly, risk protein loss, infection); serial thoracentesis; TIPS (most effective); liver transplant.
Q98. What is the difference between Wernicke's encephalopathy treatment and Korsakoff's prognosis? A.
  • Wernicke's: Medical emergency. IV thiamine (Pabrinex 2 pairs of ampoules - 500mg thiamine) 3x daily for 3 days before any glucose administration. Glucose without thiamine precipitates/worsens Wernicke's by exhausting already depleted thiamine. 80% recover with prompt treatment; 20% develop Korsakoff's.
  • Korsakoff's: Irreversible anterograde amnesia + confabulation. Only 25% show significant recovery with prolonged abstinence and thiamine. Institutionalization often required.
Q99. What are the principal causes of elevated ALP vs. elevated AST/ALT? A.
  • Elevated ALP (predominantly): Cholestasis (biliary obstruction - gallstones, PSC, PBC, biliary stricture), bone disease (Paget's disease, bone metastases, rickets), pregnancy (placental ALP), hepatic infiltration (sarcoid, lymphoma, metastases). Confirm hepatic source with GGT (GGT elevated in hepatic causes, not bone).
  • Elevated AST/ALT (transaminases - predominantly hepatocellular injury): Viral hepatitis (ALT > AST), alcoholic hepatitis (AST:ALT >2:1), MASH, ischemic hepatitis ("shock liver" - very high transaminases >1000), autoimmune hepatitis, Wilson's disease.
  • Both elevated together: Mixed picture: drug-induced liver injury, decompensated cirrhosis.
Q100. What is the approach to a patient presenting with shock after a myocardial infarction? A. Cardiogenic shock post-MI: SBP <90 mmHg + features of hypoperfusion (altered consciousness, cold peripheries, oliguria) despite adequate filling.
  • Most common cause: Large LV infarction (EF reduced) - LAD territory
  • Mechanical complications: VSD (harsh systolic murmur + new left step-up on Swan-Ganz), acute mitral regurgitation (ruptured papillary muscle - apical systolic murmur, acute pulmonary edema), free wall rupture (Beck's triad - hypotension, JVP elevation, muffled heart sounds = tamponade) Management:
  1. Primary PCI (early revascularization - SHOCK trial: improves 1-year survival)
  2. Vasopressors: Norepinephrine > dopamine (SOAP-II trial: less arrhythmias with norepinephrine)
  3. Inotropes: Dobutamine (if low CO but not severely hypotensive)
  4. Intra-aortic balloon pump: Counterpulsation (reduces afterload, improves coronary perfusion) - consider as bridge
  5. Mechanical circulatory support: Impella, VA-ECMO in refractory cases
  6. Treat mechanical complications (urgent surgery for VSD/acute MR)

Summary Table: Key High-Yield Mnemonics

TopicMnemonicContent
Cyanotic CHD5 TsToF, TGA, Tricuspid atresia, TAPVC, Truncus
Tetralogy of FallotPROVEPS, RVH, Overriding aorta, VSD
Pancreatitis causesGET SMASHEDGallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion, Hyperlipidemia, ERCP, Drugs
Shock typesDHODistributive, Hypovolemic, Obstructive (+Cardiogenic)
Post-MI discharge drugsBASM-ABeta-blocker, ACE inhibitor, Statin, MRA, Antiplatelet
Meningism signsKernig + BrudzinskiExtended knee pain; neck flex → hip flexion
Altered sensoriumAEIOU-TIPSAlcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, Opiates, Uremia, Trauma, Infection, Poisons, Stroke

These 100 Q&As cover the essential, high-yield concepts for all 21 topics you listed. For MBBS examinations, pay particular attention to the classification systems (Child-Pugh, MELD, Rockall, Ranson's, GCS, Forrest), diagnostic criteria (Rome IV, SOFA/qSOFA, ILAE seizure classification), and management algorithms (sepsis bundles, STEMI reperfusion timelines, status epilepticus protocol, and variceal bleed management). Good luck with your exams!

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