Given your NEET PG weightage (General Medicine ~45 marks, Pharmacology ~20 marks - together nearly 10% of the exam), here's a focused set of expected/high-yield questions with answers, organized by the topics that repeat most often.
Exam pattern reminder
- Pharmacology (~20 Qs): Questions are rarely pure "MOA of drug X" - they're usually clinical vignettes where you apply pharm knowledge (ADR recognition, drug of choice, contraindication, interaction).
- Medicine (~45 Qs): Cardiology, Endocrinology, Nephrology, Infectious disease, and GI dominate.
PHARMACOLOGY - Expected Questions
1. A patient on long-term therapy for tuberculosis develops peripheral neuropathy. Which drug is responsible and what is the preventive agent?
- Answer: Isoniazid (INH) causes neuropathy by depleting pyridoxine (vitamin B6); B6 co-administration prevents it.
2. A hypertensive diabetic patient is started on an ACE inhibitor and develops a dry cough. Mechanism?
- Answer: Accumulation of bradykinin (ACE inhibitors block bradykinin degradation) - switch to an ARB (losartan) since ARBs don't affect bradykinin.
3. Patient develops gum hyperplasia, coarse facial features, and hirsutism after starting an anti-epileptic. Drug?
4. A patient on clozapine presents with fever and agranulocytosis. Next step?
- Answer: Stop clozapine immediately; weekly WBC monitoring is mandatory with this drug specifically among atypical antipsychotics.
5. First-line drug of choice for Torsades de pointes?
- Answer: IV Magnesium sulfate.
6. A patient develops red-green color blindness while on anti-TB therapy. Drug and mechanism?
- Answer: Ethambutol - optic neuritis/retrobulbar neuritis.
7. Drug causing "gray baby syndrome" in neonates?
- Answer: Chloramphenicol (lacks glucuronyl transferase to conjugate the drug).
8. Antidote for organophosphate poisoning and its mechanism?
- Answer: Atropine (competitive muscarinic antagonist for symptom control) + Pralidoxime (reactivates acetylcholinesterase, must be given early before "aging").
9. A patient develops SIADH after starting an antiepileptic for trigeminal neuralgia. Drug?
10. Beta-blocker safest in a patient with peripheral vascular disease/asthma who needs cardio-selectivity?
- Answer: Metoprolol or Bisoprolol (beta-1 selective); avoid propranolol.
11. Drug of choice for status epilepticus (first-line) and for refractory status epilepticus?
- Answer: IV Lorazepam/Diazepam first-line; Phenytoin/Fosphenytoin second-line; if refractory, IV anesthesia (midazolam/propofol/thiopental).
12. A pregnant woman needs an antibiotic for UTI - which is contraindicated near term and why?
- Answer: Nitrofurantoin (hemolytic anemia risk in G6PD-deficient neonates) and sulfonamides (kernicterus risk) near term; nitrofurantoin/amoxicillin generally safer earlier in pregnancy.
13. Drug causing tendon rupture, especially in elderly and with corticosteroid use?
- Answer: Fluoroquinolones.
14. Patient with myasthenia gravis crisis - drug to differentiate cholinergic crisis from myasthenic crisis?
- Answer: Edrophonium (Tensilon test) - improvement suggests myasthenic crisis, worsening suggests cholinergic crisis.
15. Mechanism and use of Sacubitril-valsartan (ARNI) in heart failure?
- Answer: Sacubitril inhibits neprilysin (increases natriuretic peptides); combined with valsartan (ARB) for HFrEF, superior to enalapril per PARADIGM-HF.
MEDICINE - Expected Questions
1. Young patient with hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Most likely diagnosis?
- Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) - check aldosterone-renin ratio.
2. ECG shows "sawtooth" flutter waves. Diagnosis and management?
- Answer: Atrial flutter; rate control (beta-blocker/CCB) + anticoagulation based on CHA2DS2-VASc; definitive treatment is catheter ablation.
3. Patient with fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain (Charcot's triad). Diagnosis?
- Answer: Ascending cholangitis - urgent biliary decompression (ERCP) plus antibiotics.
4. Young female with malar rash, arthritis, and proteinuria. Most specific antibody?
- Answer: SLE - Anti-dsDNA (most specific), ANA (most sensitive screening).
5. Patient with tea-colored urine, periorbital edema, and recent sore throat (10-14 days prior). Diagnosis?
- Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) - low C3, elevated ASO titers.
6. COPD patient with chronic hypoxia develops secondary polycythemia. Complication to monitor?
- Answer: Increased risk of thrombosis; consider venesection if hematocrit very high with hyperviscosity symptoms.
7. Diabetic patient presents with fruity breath, Kussmaul breathing, and blood glucose >250. Diagnosis and first step?
- Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis - first step is aggressive IV fluid resuscitation (normal saline), then insulin (only after checking/correcting potassium since insulin drives K+ intracellularly).
8. Patient with dysphagia to solids progressing to liquids plus weight loss in a 60-year-old smoker. Next investigation?
- Answer: Suspect esophageal carcinoma - upper GI endoscopy with biopsy.
9. Patient with tremors, weight loss, heat intolerance, and exophthalmos. Diagnosis and first-line test?
- Answer: Graves' disease - TSH (low) + free T4 (high) + TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb).
10. HIV patient with CD4 <200 develops ring-enhancing brain lesions. Most likely diagnosis?
- Answer: Toxoplasma encephalitis (most common); differentiate from primary CNS lymphoma via response to empirical anti-toxoplasma therapy or SPECT/PET.
11. Patient with anemia, bone pain, and rouleaux formation on peripheral smear. Diagnosis?
- Answer: Multiple myeloma - confirm with serum protein electrophoresis (M spike), bone marrow biopsy (>10% plasma cells), skeletal survey for lytic lesions.
12. Elderly patient with resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. First-line treatment?
- Answer: Parkinson's disease - Levodopa-carbidopa is most effective; in younger patients, dopamine agonists may be preferred initially to delay levodopa-related dyskinesias.
13. Patient with acute onset of severe headache described as "worst headache of my life," with neck stiffness. Diagnosis and first investigation?
- Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage - non-contrast CT head first (if negative and high suspicion, lumbar puncture for xanthochromia).
14. Patient with chronic diarrhea, malabsorption, and dermatitis herpetiformis. Diagnosis?
- Answer: Celiac disease - anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG-IgA) antibodies, confirmed by duodenal biopsy showing villous atrophy.
15. Patient on long-term steroids presents with proximal muscle weakness, moon face, and purple striae. Diagnosis and confirmatory test?
- Answer: Cushing syndrome - low-dose dexamethasone suppression test to screen; determine ACTH-dependent vs independent cause next.
Quick recent-evidence check
Per current NEET PG trend data, expect increased integration of pharmacology within medicine vignettes rather than isolated pharm recall, plus continued heavy focus on antimicrobials, ANS drugs, and cardiology/endocrinology in medicine.
Would you like me to go deeper into a specific weak sub-area (e.g., antimicrobial pharmacology, cardiology, or endocrinology) with a longer question bank and detailed explanations?