Ospe ka topic ko chor kr sirf mcqs Wala topic sa 200 KMU style main ultra high yeald mcqs banao please Auther Qazi Musa TOPIC: GENERAL ANATOMY 1 Week-1 Definition Define anatomical terms related to the position and movement C1 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 Muscles Discuss different types of muscles C2 4 MCQ’s 6 3 Description Summarize the general concept of blood vessels, lymphat- ic system and Nervous system C2 4 Week-2 Bones and joints Explain the bones and joints with their regional classifica- tion and surface markings C3 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 MCQ’s 3 5 Demonstrate the bony orientation of axial and appendicu- lar skeletal system P4 Demo 2 OSPE 9 Organize a skeleton from dearticulated bones A4 Role Play TOPIC: BONES AND CARTILAGE 6 Week-3 Osteology Discuss in detail structure of bones and its classification C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 7 Functions of Bones Enlist functions of bones C1 8 Classification of bones Explain structural and regional and developmental classifi- cation of bone. C2 9 Parts of developing long bones 10 Describe the structure of long bones C2 Blood supply of bones Rule of direction of nutrient foramen 11 Gross structure of long bone 12 Week-4 Surface marking Identify surface landmarks of long bones P1 Demo 2 OSPE 9 13 Cartilage Describe structure of cartilage in detail C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 MCQ’s 3 14 Development of bone and cartilage 15 Lymphatic vessels & nerve supply Explain nerve supply and lymphatic drainage of bones C2 TOPIC: THORACIC WALLS Week-5 Structures of the thoracic wall Describe the structure of thoracic wall in detail C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 17 Dorsalspine(Vert brae), costal cartilage and Ribs Discuss the surface anatomy of dorsal spine, sternum, costal cartilages and ribs. C2 18 Sternum Explain the normal movement of the chest wall in the process of aeration of the lungs. C2 19 Intercostal Muscles Explain origin ,insertion and action of muscles of thoracic wall C2 20 Intercostal Nerves Explain intercostal nerves C2 21 Diaphragm Discuss structure of diaphragm in detail C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 MCQ’s 3 22 Blood supply of thoracic wall Explain blood supply of thoracic wall C2 23 Week-6 Joints of thorax Discuss in detail functional movements across the joints of thorac wall C2 24 Surface anatomy Locate origin ,insertion of intercostal muscles indpendently P4 Demo 2 OSPE 9 25 Identify bony landmarks of dorsal spine independently P4 26 Observe thoracic and abdominal wall movements P1 27 Identify types of ribs independently P4 28 Protocols Show respect towards subject while observing thoracic wall movements A Role Play 29 Week-7 Mediastinum/Pleura Describe s the general arrangement of the thoracic viscera and their relationship to one another and to the chest wall. C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 30 Discuss structures related to anterior ,posterior superior and inferior mediastinum C2 31 Trachea/Lungs Distinguish thoracic cavity, pleural cavity (pleural space), pericardial cavity, and cost diaphragmatic recess. C2 32 Bronchopul-monary seg- ments Explain broncho pulmonary segment as functional unit of lung C2 33 Pericardium Explain the structure of heart, including its layers ,cham- bers conducting system 4 Week-8 Heart – Its blood supply, venous drainage & nerve supply Explain blood supply and nerve supply of hreart C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 35 Large veins of thorax, supe- rior and inferior vena cava. Pulmonary veins brachioce- phalic veins. Large arteries of aorta Explain the structure and location of largest blood vessels within the thoracic cavity C2 36 Applied anatomy Discuss different pathological conditions related to lungs and heart C2 37 Surface anatomy Identify lobes of lungs independently P4 Demo 38 locate broncho-pulmonary segments independently P4 1 OSPE 9 39 Human Heart Identify different chambers, surfaces and borders of the human heart P4 40 Cardiopulmonary Anatomy Adopt how to care and handle human heart models A4 Role Play TOPIC: GIT 41 Week-9 Anterior & Posterior Ab- dominal wall Describe the basic anatomy and projection of viscera on the anterior abdominal wall and back C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 42 Explanation anterior wall Explain superficial and deep fascia C2 43 Muscles Describe the origin, insertion, nerve supply and actions of anterolateral abdominal wall muscles C2 44 Blood supply Discuss blood supply and nerve supply of anterior abdom- inal wall C2 45 Lymphatic Discuss lymphatic drainage of anterior abdominal wall C2 46 Posterior Abdominal wall Enumerate the structure of posterior abdominal wall C2 47 Explanation Explain the structures of lumber vertebrae C2 Surface anatomy Label the origin and insertion of muscles on lumber ver- tebrae C1 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 MCQ’s 3 49 Inguinal Canal Explain the extent of the inguinal canal, its boundaries and its contents C2 50 Inguinal Canal Boundaries Describe the boundaries of inguinal canal C2 51 Contents Enlist the contents of inguinal canal in male and female C1 52 Differentiation Differentiate between direct and indirect inguinal hernia C4 53 Protocols Identify the bony landmarks of lumber vertebrae P4 Demo 2 OSPE 9 54 Protocols Follow the protocols of handling bones with care A4 Role Play 55 Week-11 Explanation esophagus Explain structural anatomy of esophagus C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 3 MCQ’s 4 56 Description Describe gastro esophageal sphincter C2 57 Description stomach Describe gross structure of stomach C2 58 Pyloric sphincter Discuss function of pyloric sphincter and its relationship C2 59 Blood supply Explain blood supply ,lymphatic drainage of stomach C2 60 Esophagus & Stomach Identify esophagus & Stomach from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 61 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts A4 Role Play 62 Week-12 Duodenum Write the relations of various parts of duodenum C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 3 MCQ’s 4 63 Explanation Explain structure of jejunum and ileum C2 64 Blood supply Explain blood supply ,nerve supply and lymphatic drainage of small intestine C2 65 Cecum Explain structure of cecum C2 66 Relationship od cecum Explain anterior, posterior and medial relation of cecum C2 67 Blood supply Explain blood supply ,nerve supply and lymphatic drainage of cecum C2 68 Small & Large intestine Identify Small & Lage intestine from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 69 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts Week-13 Description liver Illustrate borders and surfaces of liver C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 3 MCQ’s 4 71 Description Illustrate visceral surface of liver C2 72 Discussion Describe the peritoneal reflections and associated liga- ments of liver C2 73 Lobes Describe lobes and segments of liver C2 74 Blood supply Describe the formation.tributries and branches of hepatic portal veins C2 75 Description gall bladder Describe the structure of gall bladder and its relationship C2 76 Blood supply Explain the blood supply, nerve supply and lymphatic drainage of gall bladder C2 78 Liver & gall bladder Identify Liver & gall bladder from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 79 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts A4 Role Play 80 Week-14 Explanation pancreas Describe the structure of pancreas and ductal system C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 3 MCQ’s 4 81 Blood supply Explain blood supply ,nerve supply of accessory organs of GIT C2 82 Explanation/relationship of kidney Describe renal structures and relationship of right and left kidney C2 83 Blood supply Explain blood supply, nerve supply and lymphatic drainage of renal system C2 84 Description ureter Describe structure of ureter C2 85 Relationship Explain important relationship of right and left ureter C2 86 Pancreas & Kidney Identify Pancreas & Kidney from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 87 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts A4 Role Play TOPIC: PELVIC WALLS 88 Week-15 Bony pelvis Discuss the basic structures and orientation of the bony pelvis C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 89 Pelvic walls 3 MCQ’s 4 Explain the structure of the pelvic walls (Anterior, posterior, lateral, inferior) C2 90 Nerves, Vessels, Lymphatic Summarize all veins, arteries, nerves and lymph drainage in the pelvis C2 91 Pelvis Identify Pelvis from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 100 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts TOPIC: PELVIC CAVITY 101 Week-16 Pelvic Viscera Enlist all the contents of pelvic Viscera in the male and female pelvic cavity C1 Interactive Lecture/SGD 102 3 MCQ’s 4 Vas Deferens, Seminal Vesicles, Ejaculatory Ducts, prostate) Discuss the male pelvic Viscera and genital organs C2 103 Ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus Explain female genital organs C2 104 Pelvic Viscera IdentifyPelvic Viscera from human Models and charts P4 Demo 1 OSPE 4 105 Adopt how to care and handle human Models and charts A4
.../KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs.md
# KMU-Style Ultra High Yield MCQs — General Anatomy ### Author: Qazi Musa ### Total: 200 MCQs | Topics: General Anatomy, Bones & Cartilage, Thoracic Wall, GIT, Pelvic Walls & Cavity --- ## SECTION 1: GENERAL ANATOMY — Anatomical Terms, Muscles, Blood Vessels, Nervous System ### (Weeks 1–2) --- **Q1.** The anatomical position is described as the body standing erect, eyes looking forward, with upper limbs at sides and palms facing: - A) Posteriorly - B) Medially - C) **Anteriorly ✓** - D) Laterally **Q2.** Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body is called: - A) Adduction - B) **Abduction ✓** - C) Extension - D) Circumduction **Q3.** The plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is the: - A) Coronal plane - B) Transverse plane - C) **Median (midsagittal) plane ✓** - D) Oblique plane **Q4.** Pronation refers to rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces: - A) Anteriorly - B) Superiorly - C) **Posteriorly (downward) ✓** - D) Medially **Q5.** Which term describes movement that decreases the angle at a joint? - A) Extension - B) **Flexion ✓** - C) Abduction - D) Rotation **Q6.** Dorsiflexion of the ankle moves the foot: - A) Downward (plantarward) - B) **Upward toward the shin ✓** - C) Laterally (eversion) - D) Medially (inversion) **Q7.** The term "ipsilateral" means: - A) On the opposite side - B) **On the same side ✓** - C) Toward the midline - D) Away from the midline **Q8.** Circumduction is a movement that combines: - A) Flexion and extension only - B) Abduction and adduction only - C) **Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction ✓** - D) Rotation and flexion **Q9.** A parasagittal plane: - A) Is identical to the median plane - B) Divides the body into anterior and posterior - C) **Is parallel to the median plane but not midline ✓** - D) Divides the body into equal halves **Q10.** Inversion of the foot refers to: - A) Turning the sole outward - B) **Turning the sole inward ✓** - C) Flexing the ankle - D) Extending the toes --- **Q11.** Skeletal muscle is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Voluntary control - B) Striated appearance - C) Multinucleated fibers - D) **Presence of intercalated discs ✓** **Q12.** Smooth muscle is found in which of the following? - A) Biceps brachii - B) Heart wall - C) **Walls of blood vessels ✓** - D) Diaphragm **Q13.** Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that cardiac muscle: - A) Is under voluntary control - B) Has no striations - C) **Has intercalated discs ✓** - D) Is multinucleated **Q14.** A pennate muscle has fibers arranged: - A) Parallel to the long axis throughout - B) In a circular manner - C) **Obliquely to a central tendon, like a feather ✓** - D) In a fan shape from a single point **Q15.** Which type of muscle contraction produces no movement of the joint but increases muscle tension? - A) Isotonic concentric - B) Isotonic eccentric - C) **Isometric ✓** - D) Isokinetic **Q16.** The origin of a muscle is typically: - A) The more mobile attachment - B) The distal attachment - C) **The more fixed (proximal) attachment ✓** - D) Always located on a flat bone **Q17.** A fusiform muscle has a shape that is: - A) Flat and broad - B) Fan-shaped - C) Feather-shaped (pennate) - D) **Spindle-shaped, widest in middle ✓** **Q18.** Which muscle type is found exclusively in the heart? - A) Skeletal muscle - B) Smooth muscle - C) **Cardiac muscle ✓** - D) Multipennate muscle **Q19.** An agonist muscle is one that: - A) Opposes the main movement - B) Fixes the proximal joint - C) **Produces the main movement ✓** - D) Reverses the movement **Q20.** A sphincter muscle is characterized by fibers arranged in a: - A) Parallel pattern - B) Pennate pattern - C) **Circular pattern ✓** - D) Multipennate pattern --- **Q21.** The tunica intima of an artery consists of: - A) Smooth muscle and elastic fibers - B) Fibrous connective tissue - C) **Endothelium and subendothelial connective tissue ✓** - D) Lymphatic capillaries **Q22.** Which blood vessel lacks a tunica media? - A) Artery - B) Vein - C) Arteriole - D) **Capillary ✓** **Q23.** Lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries in that they: - A) Have a continuous basement membrane - B) Are lined by columnar epithelium - C) **Are blind-ended and have a discontinuous basement membrane ✓** - D) Carry oxygenated fluid **Q24.** The largest lymphatic vessel in the body is the: - A) Right lymphatic duct - B) Cisterna chyli - C) **Thoracic duct ✓** - D) Left jugular trunk **Q25.** A nerve fiber that carries impulses TOWARD the CNS is: - A) Efferent - B) Motor - C) **Afferent (sensory) ✓** - D) Autonomic **Q26.** The neurilemma (sheath of Schwann) is found around nerve fibers of the: - A) CNS only - B) Neither CNS nor PNS - C) **PNS only ✓** - D) Both CNS and PNS **Q27.** Which of the following is NOT a component of the autonomic nervous system? - A) Sympathetic division - B) Parasympathetic division - C) **Somatic motor neurons ✓** - D) Enteric nervous system **Q28.** The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Lower limbs - B) Left side of thorax - C) Left side of head and neck - D) **Right side of head and neck ✓** **Q29.** Veins differ from arteries in that veins: - A) Have thicker walls - B) Carry only deoxygenated blood - C) Have no valves - D) **Have thinner walls and often contain valves ✓** **Q30.** The functional unit of the nervous system is the: - A) Schwann cell - B) Myelin sheath - C) **Neuron ✓** - D) Node of Ranvier --- ## SECTION 2: BONES AND CARTILAGE ### (Weeks 3–4) --- **Q31.** The diaphysis of a long bone is the: - A) Expanded end of the bone - B) Growth plate between epiphysis and diaphysis - C) **Shaft of the bone ✓** - D) Articular surface covered by cartilage **Q32.** The epiphyseal plate is composed of: - A) Fibrocartilage - B) Elastic cartilage - C) **Hyaline cartilage ✓** - D) Fibrous tissue **Q33.** The nutrient foramen of a long bone is directed AWAY from: - A) The nearest joint - B) The metaphysis - C) **The growing end (epiphysis) ✓** - D) The periosteum **Q34.** The periosteum is ABSENT over: - A) The diaphysis - B) The metaphysis - C) The nutrient foramen - D) **Articular cartilage ✓** **Q35.** The medullary (marrow) cavity of long bones in adults mainly contains: - A) Red marrow (hematopoietic) - B) Hyaline cartilage - C) **Yellow marrow (adipose tissue) ✓** - D) Cancellous bone **Q36.** Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone? - A) Scapula - B) Clavicle - C) **Patella ✓** - D) Hyoid bone **Q37.** Intramembranous ossification occurs in which bone? - A) Femur - B) Tibia - C) **Flat bones of the skull ✓** - D) Vertebrae **Q38.** The primary ossification center of a long bone appears in the: - A) Epiphysis - B) Articular cartilage - C) Periosteum - D) **Diaphysis (shaft) ✓** **Q39.** Osteoclasts are derived from: - A) Osteoblasts - B) Fibroblasts - C) **Monocyte/macrophage lineage (hematopoietic stem cells) ✓** - D) Chondrocytes **Q40.** Haversian systems (osteons) are found in: - A) Spongy (cancellous) bone only - B) Cartilage - C) **Compact (cortical) bone ✓** - D) Woven bone **Q41.** Which of the following is NOT a function of bones? - A) Support and protection - B) Hematopoiesis - C) Mineral storage - D) **Impulse conduction ✓** **Q42.** Bones are richly supplied by sensory nerve fibers through the: - A) Endosteum only - B) Marrow cavity - C) **Periosteum ✓** - D) Articular cartilage **Q43.** The rule of direction of the nutrient foramen states it is directed away from the: - A) Diaphysis - B) Metaphysis - C) **Dominant growing end ✓** - D) Periosteum **Q44.** Hyaline cartilage is found in all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Articular surfaces of synovial joints - B) Costal cartilages - C) Tracheal rings - D) **Intervertebral discs ✓** **Q45.** Fibrocartilage is found in: - A) Articular surfaces of long bones - B) Pinna of the ear - C) **Intervertebral discs ✓** - D) Costal cartilages **Q46.** Elastic cartilage is found in which structure? - A) Trachea - B) Articular surfaces - C) Pubic symphysis - D) **Pinna of the ear (auricle) ✓** **Q47.** The zone of provisional calcification in the epiphyseal plate is: - A) Closest to the epiphysis - B) The proliferating zone - C) The hypertrophic zone - D) **Adjacent to the metaphysis ✓** **Q48.** Which vitamin is essential for normal bone mineralization? - A) Vitamin C - B) Vitamin B12 - C) **Vitamin D ✓** - D) Vitamin K **Q49.** The endosteum lines the: - A) Outer surface of bone - B) Articular cartilage - C) **Medullary cavity and trabeculae of cancellous bone ✓** - D) Epiphyseal plate **Q50.** Short bones are found in which region? - A) Skull vault - B) Ribs - C) **Carpals and tarsals ✓** - D) Femur and humerus --- ## SECTION 3: THORACIC WALL ### (Weeks 5–8) --- **Q51.** The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds to which vertebral level? - A) T1 - B) T3 - C) **T4/T5 (disc) ✓** - D) T6 **Q52.** How many pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum via costal cartilages? - A) 5 - B) 6 - C) **7 (true ribs) ✓** - D) 10 **Q53.** Ribs 11 and 12 are called floating ribs because they: - A) Articulate with the sternum indirectly - B) Articulate with thoracic vertebrae only via the head - C) **Do not articulate anteriorly at all ✓** - D) Have no costal cartilage **Q54.** The typical intercostal nerve is a ventral ramus of which spinal nerves? - A) T1–T6 - B) T1–T11 - C) **T3–T11 ✓** - D) T2–T12 **Q55.** The intercostal neurovascular bundle (nerve, artery, vein) is located: - A) Along the inferior border of the rib above - B) Along the superior border of the rib below - C) **In the costal groove along the inferior border of each rib ✓** - D) In the midcostal position **Q56.** A clinical procedure (e.g., pleural tap) to avoid the intercostal neurovascular bundle should be inserted: - A) At the lower border of the upper rib - B) In the middle of the intercostal space - C) **Just above the upper border of the lower rib ✓** - D) At any point in the space **Q57.** The manubrium of the sternum articulates with the body at the: - A) Xiphisternal joint - B) **Manubriosternal joint (sternal angle of Louis) ✓** - C) Sternoclavicular joint - D) 1st costal cartilage **Q58.** The xiphisternum (xiphoid process) is the: - A) Superior part of the sternum - B) Middle part of the sternum - C) **Inferior part of the sternum ✓** - D) Articulation with the clavicle **Q59.** The first rib is atypical because it: - A) Has a costal groove on its inferior surface - B) Articulates with T2 vertebra - C) **Is flat, broad, and has two grooves on its superior surface ✓** - D) Has a tubercle but no head **Q60.** The external intercostal muscle fibers run in which direction? - A) Horizontally - B) **Downward and forward (like hands in pockets) ✓** - C) Downward and backward - D) Vertically **Q61.** The internal intercostal muscle fibers run: - A) Downward and forward - B) Horizontally - C) **Downward and backward (at right angles to external) ✓** - D) Vertically **Q62.** During inspiration (quiet breathing), the diaphragm: - A) Relaxes and moves superiorly - B) **Contracts and flattens, moving inferiorly ✓** - C) Remains in a fixed position - D) Moves superiorly with the ribs **Q63.** The central tendon of the diaphragm is pierced by the: - A) Aorta - B) Esophagus - C) **Inferior vena cava ✓** - D) Thoracic duct **Q64.** The aortic hiatus in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level? - A) T8 - B) T10 - C) **T12 ✓** - D) L1 **Q65.** The esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level? - A) T8 - B) **T10 ✓** - C) T12 - D) L1 **Q66.** The caval opening (IVC) in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level? - A) **T8 ✓** - B) T10 - C) T12 - D) L1 **Q67.** The right dome of the diaphragm is higher than the left because it is pushed up by the: - A) Spleen - B) Stomach - C) **Liver ✓** - D) Right kidney **Q68.** The internal thoracic (mammary) artery arises from the: - A) Aorta - B) **Subclavian artery ✓** - C) Axillary artery - D) Superior intercostal artery **Q69.** Which structure passes through the AORTIC HIATUS of the diaphragm along with the aorta? - A) Vagus nerve - B) **Thoracic duct and azygos vein ✓** - C) Esophagus - D) Inferior vena cava **Q70.** The diaphragm is innervated mainly by the: - A) Vagus nerve (CN X) - B) Intercostal nerves - C) **Phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5) ✓** - D) Thoracic splanchnic nerves --- **Q71.** The superior mediastinum extends from the thoracic inlet down to the: - A) Xiphoid process - B) Hilum of the lung - C) **Sternal angle (T4/5 disc) ✓** - D) Diaphragm **Q72.** The anterior mediastinum is located between the: - A) Trachea and vertebral column - B) **Sternum and pericardium ✓** - C) Hilum of the lungs bilaterally - D) Esophagus and aorta **Q73.** The right lung has how many lobes? - A) 2 - B) **3 ✓** - C) 4 - D) 5 **Q74.** The left lung has how many lobes? - A) 1 - B) **2 ✓** - C) 3 - D) 4 **Q75.** The lingula is a feature of the: - A) Right upper lobe - B) Right middle lobe - C) **Left upper lobe ✓** - D) Right lower lobe **Q76.** The oblique fissure of the lung separates the: - A) Upper lobe from the middle lobe (right) - B) **Upper (and middle) lobe from the lower lobe ✓** - C) Upper lobe from the lingula - D) Middle lobe from the lower lobe **Q77.** How many bronchopulmonary segments does the right lung have? - A) 8 - B) **10 ✓** - C) 12 - D) 18 **Q78.** The bronchopulmonary segment is the smallest surgically resectable unit of the lung because it has its own: - A) Pleura - B) **Bronchus and vascular supply ✓** - C) Lymphatic drainage only - D) Nerve supply **Q79.** The parietal pleura is innervated by: - A) Vagus nerve only - B) Sympathetic fibers only - C) **Intercostal and phrenic nerves (somatic — pain sensitive) ✓** - D) Pulmonary plexus **Q80.** The visceral pleura is innervated by: - A) Intercostal nerves - B) Phrenic nerve - C) **Autonomic fibers via pulmonary plexus (NOT pain-sensitive) ✓** - D) Somatic intercostal nerves **Q81.** The right main bronchus is more vertical than the left; therefore, inhaled foreign bodies most commonly lodge in the: - A) Left main bronchus - B) Right upper lobe bronchus - C) **Right lower lobe bronchus (or right main bronchus) ✓** - D) Left lower lobe bronchus **Q82.** The fibrous pericardium is fused with the: - A) Visceral pericardium - B) **Diaphragm inferiorly and great vessels superiorly ✓** - C) Pleura laterally - D) Esophagus posteriorly **Q83.** The transverse sinus of the pericardium lies between: - A) The superior vena cava and left atrium - B) **The aorta/pulmonary trunk and the superior vena cava/pulmonary veins ✓** - C) The two atria - D) The inferior vena cava and left ventricle **Q84.** The right coronary artery supplies the: - A) Left ventricle predominantly - B) Left atrium only - C) **Right atrium, right ventricle, and SA/AV nodes (usually) ✓** - D) Interventricular septum exclusively **Q85.** The coronary sinus drains into the: - A) Right ventricle - B) Superior vena cava - C) **Right atrium ✓** - D) Left atrium **Q86.** The SA node (pacemaker) is located in the: - A) Interventricular septum - B) AV groove - C) Left atrium - D) **Upper right atrium near the SVC opening ✓** **Q87.** The AV node is located in the: - A) Right atrium near the SVC - B) Interventricular septum superiorly - C) **Interatrial septum at the triangle of Koch ✓** - D) Left atrium **Q88.** The arch of the aorta gives rise to which branches (from right to left)? - A) Left common carotid, right subclavian, brachiocephalic - B) **Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian ✓** - C) Left subclavian, left common carotid, brachiocephalic - D) Right and left common carotid, right subclavian **Q89.** The azygos vein drains into the: - A) Left brachiocephalic vein - B) Inferior vena cava - C) **Superior vena cava ✓** - D) Right subclavian vein **Q90.** Coarctation of the aorta typically occurs at the: - A) Ascending aorta - B) Aortic arch - C) **Isthmus (junction of arch and descending aorta, near ligamentum arteriosum) ✓** - D) Abdominal aorta --- ## SECTION 4: GIT — ABDOMINAL WALL, INGUINAL CANAL, GI ORGANS ### (Weeks 9–14) --- **Q91.** The linea alba is formed by the fusion of the: - A) Two rectus abdominis muscles - B) Transversus abdominis aponeuroses only - C) **Aponeuroses of all three anterolateral abdominal muscles ✓** - D) Internal oblique aponeurosis alone **Q92.** The rectus sheath POSTERIOR wall is ABSENT below the: - A) Costal margin - B) Umbilicus - C) **Arcuate line (semicircular line of Douglas) ✓** - D) Inguinal ligament **Q93.** Below the arcuate line, which layers are anterior to the rectus abdominis? - A) External oblique aponeurosis only - B) External and internal oblique aponeuroses - C) **All three aponeuroses + transversalis fascia ✓** - D) External oblique alone **Q94.** The inguinal ligament extends from the: - A) Anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle - B) **Anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle ✓** - C) Posterior superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis - D) Iliac crest to the pubic crest **Q95.** The deep inguinal ring is an opening in the: - A) External oblique aponeurosis - B) Internal oblique muscle - C) **Transversalis fascia ✓** - D) Transversus abdominis muscle **Q96.** The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the: - A) **External oblique aponeurosis ✓** - B) Internal oblique aponeurosis - C) Transversalis fascia - D) Transversus abdominis **Q97.** The FLOOR of the inguinal canal is formed by the: - A) Conjoint tendon - B) Transversalis fascia - C) **Inguinal ligament (and lacunar ligament medially) ✓** - D) External oblique aponeurosis **Q98.** The ROOF of the inguinal canal is formed by: - A) Inguinal ligament - B) **Arching fibers of internal oblique and transversus abdominis ✓** - C) External oblique aponeurosis - D) Transversalis fascia **Q99.** The POSTERIOR WALL of the inguinal canal is formed by: - A) External oblique aponeurosis - B) Inguinal ligament - C) **Transversalis fascia + conjoint tendon (ilio-inguinal ligament medially) ✓** - D) Internal oblique muscle **Q100.** Contents of the inguinal canal in the male include all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Vas deferens - B) Testicular artery - C) Ilio-inguinal nerve - D) **Round ligament of the uterus ✓** **Q101.** In an INDIRECT inguinal hernia, the hernial sac passes through: - A) Hesselbach's triangle - B) Posterior wall of the inguinal canal - C) **Deep inguinal ring laterally (lateral to inferior epigastric vessels) ✓** - D) Femoral canal **Q102.** A DIRECT inguinal hernia passes through: - A) Deep inguinal ring - B) Lateral to inferior epigastric vessels - C) **Hesselbach's triangle (medial to inferior epigastric vessels) ✓** - D) Femoral ring **Q103.** Hesselbach's triangle is bounded by the following EXCEPT: - A) Inferior epigastric vessels (laterally) - B) Inguinal ligament (inferiorly) - C) Lateral border of rectus abdominis (medially) - D) **Femoral canal (inferolaterally) ✓** **Q104.** The anterior abdominal wall is supplied by the following arteries EXCEPT: - A) Superior epigastric artery - B) Inferior epigastric artery - C) Deep circumflex iliac artery - D) **Splenic artery ✓** **Q105.** The femoral hernia passes through the: - A) Superficial inguinal ring - B) Deep inguinal ring - C) Hesselbach's triangle - D) **Femoral ring (below the inguinal ligament) ✓** --- **Q106.** The esophagus begins at the level of: - A) C4 - B) **C6 (lower border of cricoid cartilage) ✓** - C) T1 - D) T4 **Q107.** The three physiological constrictions of the esophagus are at the following levels EXCEPT: - A) Junction with pharynx (C6) - B) Where it crosses the aortic arch (T4) - C) Where it pierces the diaphragm (T10) - D) **At the gastro-esophageal junction (T8) ✓** **Q108.** The gastro-esophageal junction (lower esophageal sphincter) is at the level of: - A) T8 - B) T10 - C) **T11 ✓** - D) L1 **Q109.** The stomach is divided into all of the following parts EXCEPT: - A) Fundus - B) Body - C) Pylorus - D) **Cecum ✓** **Q110.** The blood supply of the lesser curvature of the stomach is from: - A) Splenic artery - B) Gastro-epiploic arteries - C) **Right and left gastric arteries ✓** - D) Short gastric arteries **Q111.** The pyloric sphincter prevents reflux from: - A) Stomach to esophagus - B) Jejunum to duodenum - C) **Duodenum to stomach ✓** - D) Cecum to ileum **Q112.** The duodenum has how many parts? - A) 2 - B) 3 - C) **4 ✓** - D) 5 **Q113.** The ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla) opens into the: - A) First part of the duodenum - B) Third part of the duodenum - C) **Second part (descending) of the duodenum ✓** - D) Jejunum **Q114.** The DJ flexure (duodenojejunal junction) is suspended by: - A) Transverse mesocolon - B) Greater omentum - C) **Ligament of Treitz (suspensory muscle) ✓** - D) Mesentery proper **Q115.** Features that distinguish jejunum from ileum include: - A) Thinner walls - B) More fat in mesentery - C) More Peyer's patches - D) **Larger villi, fewer and larger arterial arcades, longer vasa recta ✓** **Q116.** The cecum is located in the: - A) Left iliac fossa - B) Left lumbar region - C) **Right iliac fossa ✓** - D) Epigastric region **Q117.** The appendix most commonly lies in which position? - A) Pre-ileal - B) Post-cecal - C) Pelvic - D) **Retrocecal ✓** **Q118.** McBurney's point, the surface marking of the appendix base, lies: - A) At the midpoint of the right inguinal ligament - B) One-third of the way from the umbilicus to the ASIS - C) **One-third of the way from the right ASIS to the umbilicus ✓** - D) Two-thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the right ASIS **Q119.** The portal vein is formed by the union of the: - A) Splenic vein and inferior mesenteric vein - B) Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein (with inferior mesenteric draining into splenic) - C) **Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein behind the neck of pancreas ✓** - D) Hepatic veins and superior mesenteric vein **Q120.** The liver is divided into right and left functional lobes by the: - A) Falciform ligament - B) **Plane through the gallbladder fossa and inferior vena cava (Cantlie's line) ✓** - C) Ligamentum teres - D) Coronary ligament **Q121.** The bare area of the liver is covered by: - A) Visceral peritoneum on all sides - B) **No peritoneum (it is in direct contact with the diaphragm) ✓** - C) Parietal peritoneum - D) Fibrous capsule only **Q122.** The porta hepatis transmits all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Portal vein - B) Hepatic artery proper - C) Bile duct - D) **Hepatic vein ✓** **Q123.** The gallbladder is supplied by the: - A) Hepatic artery proper - B) Left hepatic artery - C) **Cystic artery (branch of right hepatic artery) ✓** - D) Superior mesenteric artery **Q124.** Calot's triangle is bounded by: - A) Portal vein, liver, and cystic duct - B) **Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and inferior surface of liver ✓** - C) Cystic artery, portal vein, and liver - D) Gallbladder, cystic duct, and hepatic artery **Q125.** The pancreas is primarily a: - A) Purely endocrine organ - B) Purely exocrine organ - C) **Both exocrine and endocrine organ ✓** - D) Ductless gland **Q126.** The head of the pancreas is related posteriorly to the: - A) Stomach - B) Transverse colon - C) Spleen - D) **Inferior vena cava and portal vein ✓** **Q127.** The main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung) usually joins the: - A) Cystic duct - B) Left hepatic duct - C) **Common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla ✓** - D) Duodenum separately **Q128.** The right kidney lies slightly LOWER than the left kidney because it is displaced by the: - A) Right adrenal gland - B) Right ureter - C) **Right lobe of the liver ✓** - D) Ascending colon **Q129.** The hilum of the kidney (from anterior to posterior) contains: - A) Artery, vein, ureter - B) Vein, ureter, artery - C) **Vein, artery, pelvis of ureter ✓** - D) Ureter, artery, vein **Q130.** The three sites of physiological narrowing of the ureter are at: - A) Pelvi-ureteric junction, brim of pelvis, and vesico-ureteric junction - B) **Pelvi-ureteric junction, pelvic brim, and entry into bladder ✓** - C) Upper, middle, and lower thirds - D) Renal hilum, ischial spine, and trigone --- ## SECTION 5: PELVIC WALLS ### (Week 15) --- **Q131.** The bony pelvis is composed of all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Two hip bones (os coxae) - B) Sacrum - C) Coccyx - D) **Fifth lumbar vertebra ✓** **Q132.** The pelvic inlet (superior pelvic aperture) is bounded by: - A) Pubic symphysis anteriorly, ischial tuberosities laterally - B) **Pubic symphysis anteriorly, sacral promontory posteriorly, pectineal line and arcuate line laterally ✓** - C) Coccyx posteriorly and pubic arch anteriorly - D) Ischial spines laterally and sacral promontory posteriorly **Q133.** The true (obstetric) conjugate of the pelvis is measured from the: - A) **Sacral promontory to the upper border of the pubic symphysis ✓** - B) Sacral promontory to the lower border of the symphysis - C) Ischial spines to each other (transverse) - D) Outer edges of the ischial tuberosities **Q134.** Which pelvic diameter is used to assess the engagement of the fetal head? - A) True conjugate - B) **Diagonal conjugate ✓** - C) Transverse diameter of inlet - D) Interspinous diameter **Q135.** The female pelvis differs from the male pelvis in that the female pelvis has: - A) Narrow subpubic angle (<70°) - B) Heart-shaped inlet - C) **Wide subpubic angle (>80°, close to 90°) ✓** - D) Prominent ischial spines **Q136.** The pelvic floor (pelvic diaphragm) is formed mainly by: - A) Obturator internus - B) Piriformis - C) **Levator ani and coccygeus muscles ✓** - D) Gluteus maximus **Q137.** The lateral wall of the pelvis is formed mainly by the: - A) Sacrum - B) Pubic bone - C) **Obturator internus muscle (with obturator membrane) ✓** - D) Levator ani **Q138.** The posterior wall of the pelvis is formed by the: - A) Hip bone and obturator internus - B) Pubic symphysis - C) **Sacrum, coccyx, and piriformis muscle ✓** - D) Levator ani and coccygeus **Q139.** The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the: - A) Obturator foramen - B) **Greater sciatic foramen (below piriformis) ✓** - C) Lesser sciatic foramen - D) Femoral canal **Q140.** The pudendal nerve re-enters the perineum through the: - A) Greater sciatic foramen - B) **Lesser sciatic foramen (via Alcock's canal) ✓** - C) Obturator foramen - D) Urogenital hiatus **Q141.** The internal iliac artery (anterior division) supplies all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Uterine artery - B) Superior vesical artery - C) Inferior vesical artery - D) **External iliac artery ✓** **Q142.** The obturator nerve (L2–L4) exits the pelvis through the: - A) Greater sciatic foramen - B) Lesser sciatic foramen - C) **Obturator canal (obturator foramen) ✓** - D) Femoral canal **Q143.** Which muscle forms the floor of the femoral triangle? - A) Adductor longus - B) Iliopsoas and pectineus - C) Sartorius - D) **Iliopsoas medially and pectineus laterally ✓** **Q144.** The sacrospinous ligament converts the greater sciatic notch into the: - A) Lesser sciatic foramen - B) **Greater sciatic foramen ✓** - C) Obturator foramen - D) Femoral ring **Q145.** The coccygeus muscle is innervated by: - A) Pudendal nerve - B) Obturator nerve - C) **Branches of S4 and S5 ✓** - D) Inferior rectal nerve --- ## SECTION 6: PELVIC CAVITY — Male & Female Viscera ### (Week 16) --- **Q146.** The vas deferens (ductus deferens) is a continuation of the: - A) Seminal vesicle duct - B) Ejaculatory duct - C) **Epididymis (tail of epididymis) ✓** - D) Prostatic urethra **Q147.** The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the: - A) Vas deferens and prostatic duct - B) **Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle ✓** - C) Seminal vesicle duct and urethral duct - D) Vas deferens and urethra **Q148.** The ejaculatory duct opens into the urethra at the: - A) External urethral sphincter - B) Membranous urethra - C) **Seminal colliculus (verumontanum) in the prostatic urethra ✓** - D) Bulbar urethra **Q149.** The prostate gland surrounds the urethra at the: - A) Membranous part - B) **Neck of the bladder (prostatic urethra) ✓** - C) Bulbar part - D) Penile (spongy) part **Q150.** Blood supply of the prostate gland is from: - A) Superior vesical artery - B) Uterine artery - C) **Inferior vesical artery and middle rectal artery ✓** - D) External pudendal artery **Q151.** The seminal vesicles are located: - A) Within the prostate - B) **Posterior to the bladder, superior to the prostate ✓** - C) In the scrotum - D) Along the vas deferens in the inguinal canal **Q152.** The ovary is supplied by the: - A) Internal iliac artery only - B) Uterine artery only - C) **Ovarian artery (from abdominal aorta at L1) and uterine artery ✓** - D) External iliac artery **Q153.** The ovarian vein on the RIGHT drains into the: - A) Left renal vein - B) Portal vein - C) **Inferior vena cava directly ✓** - D) Right renal vein **Q154.** The ovarian vein on the LEFT drains into the: - A) Inferior vena cava - B) Portal vein - C) Right renal vein - D) **Left renal vein ✓** **Q155.** The uterine tube (fallopian tube) has all of the following parts EXCEPT: - A) Infundibulum - B) Ampulla - C) Isthmus - D) **Corpus ✓** **Q156.** Fertilization normally occurs in the: - A) Uterine cavity - B) Isthmus of the tube - C) **Ampulla of the uterine tube ✓** - D) Ovary **Q157.** The uterus is normally in a position of: - A) Retroversion and retroflexion - B) **Anteversion and anteflexion ✓** - C) Anteversion only - D) Vertical alignment with the vagina **Q158.** The round ligament of the uterus passes through the: - A) Broad ligament and exits via obturator foramen - B) **Inguinal canal to attach to the labium majus ✓** - C) Sacrospinous ligament - D) Femoral canal **Q159.** The ureter is closely related to the uterine artery. During hysterectomy the ureter may be damaged. The uterine artery crosses the ureter at the: - A) Pelvic brim - B) **Level of the uterine cervix (ureter passes below the uterine artery — "water under the bridge") ✓** - C) Bladder neck - D) Ischial spine **Q160.** The female urethra is approximately how long? - A) 2 cm - B) **4 cm ✓** - C) 8 cm - D) 12 cm --- ## SECTION 7: MIXED ULTRA HIGH YIELD — CLINICAL & APPLIED ### (All Topics Combined) --- **Q161.** Which muscle is the chief muscle of inspiration? - A) External intercostal muscles - B) Internal intercostal muscles - C) **Diaphragm ✓** - D) Sternocleidomastoid **Q162.** During a "bucket-handle" movement of the ribs, which diameter of the thorax increases? - A) Anteroposterior - B) Vertical - C) **Transverse ✓** - D) Oblique **Q163.** During "pump-handle" movement of the upper ribs, which diameter increases? - A) Transverse - B) Vertical - C) **Anteroposterior ✓** - D) Oblique **Q164.** A fracture of the femur in the midshaft region would most directly damage the: - A) Anterior tibial artery - B) **Nutrient artery of the femur (branch of profunda femoris) ✓** - C) Femoral artery - D) Popliteal artery **Q165.** A patient with a rib fracture at the angle of the rib most likely injures the: - A) Costochondral cartilage - B) **Intercostal neurovascular bundle ✓** - C) Pleura only - D) Periosteum **Q166.** The lymph from the lateral quadrant of the breast drains primarily into: - A) Internal mammary (parasternal) nodes - B) Supraclavicular nodes - C) **Axillary lymph nodes (pectoral group) ✓** - D) Mediastinal nodes **Q167.** An indirect inguinal hernia in a child is due to: - A) Weakness in Hesselbach's triangle - B) **Patent processus vaginalis ✓** - C) Weakened posterior wall of inguinal canal - D) Enlarged femoral ring **Q168.** The nerve most commonly injured during an appendectomy (via right iliac fossa incision) is the: - A) Iliohypogastric nerve - B) **Ilio-inguinal nerve ✓** - C) Genitofemoral nerve - D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve **Q169.** In a patient with gallstones, pain may be referred to the right shoulder tip because of irritation of the: - A) Vagus nerve - B) Right intercostal nerves - C) **Right phrenic nerve (C3–C5, referred to shoulder) ✓** - D) Right thoracic splanchnic nerve **Q170.** The McBurney's incision for appendectomy is made at McBurney's point with the muscle fibers: - A) Transected horizontally - B) Transected vertically - C) **Split in the direction of their fibers (grid-iron incision) ✓** - D) Excised completely **Q171.** A ureteric stone most likely causes pain in the loin radiating to the: - A) Back - B) Upper abdomen - C) **Groin and genitalia (scrotum/labia) ✓** - D) Buttock **Q172.** The transpyloric plane (L1) passes through all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Pylorus of the stomach - B) DJ flexure - C) Hilum of the kidney - D) **Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta ✓** **Q173.** Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure? - A) Stomach - B) Transverse colon - C) Jejunum - D) **Duodenum (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts) ✓** **Q174.** Courvoisier's law states that in a patient with jaundice and a palpable gallbladder: - A) The cause is likely gallstones - B) **The cause is likely carcinoma of the head of the pancreas (not stones) ✓** - C) The gallbladder is always diseased - D) It is a sign of acute cholecystitis **Q175.** The posterior relation of the head of the pancreas includes all of the following EXCEPT: - A) Inferior vena cava - B) Common bile duct - C) Portal vein - D) **Abdominal aorta ✓** **Q176.** Murphy's sign is positive in: - A) Appendicitis - B) Pancreatitis - C) **Acute cholecystitis ✓** - D) Peptic ulcer **Q177.** The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow) connects the: - A) Greater sac with the lesser sac (omental bursa) - B) **Lesser sac (omental bursa) with the greater peritoneal cavity ✓** - C) Peritoneal cavity with the retroperitoneum - D) Subphrenic space with the pelvis **Q178.** The posterior vagal trunk (from the left vagus) supplies the: - A) Posterior surface of the esophagus only - B) **Posterior surface of stomach, liver, biliary tract, and small intestine to splenic flexure ✓** - C) Left half of the colon only - D) Descending colon **Q179.** Which ligament connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and contains the ligamentum teres (obliterated left umbilical vein)? - A) Coronary ligament - B) Triangular ligament - C) **Falciform ligament ✓** - D) Gastrohepatic ligament **Q180.** The Calot's triangle (cystohepatic triangle) contains the: - A) Portal vein - B) Common bile duct - C) **Cystic artery ✓** - D) Right hepatic duct --- ## SECTION 8: FINAL HIGH YIELD MIXED BANK ### (All Weeks) --- **Q181.** A Colles' fracture involves the: - A) Neck of the femur - B) Shaft of the radius - C) **Distal radius (within 2.5 cm of the wrist) — dinner fork deformity ✓** - D) Olecranon of the ulna **Q182.** The blood supply to the head of the femur in an adult primarily comes from: - A) Obturator artery via the ligament of the head - B) Femoral artery - C) **Medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries (retinacular vessels) ✓** - D) Internal iliac artery **Q183.** The intervertebral disc is composed of a central nucleus pulposus (remnant of notochord) surrounded by the: - A) Hyaline cartilage ring - B) Elastic cartilage - C) **Annulus fibrosus (fibrocartilage) ✓** - D) Periosteum **Q184.** The most common site of a prolapsed (herniated) intervertebral disc is: - A) L1–L2 - B) L2–L3 - C) L3–L4 - D) **L4–L5 or L5–S1 ✓** **Q185.** In a median nerve injury at the wrist (carpal tunnel syndrome), which finger movement is LOST? - A) Extension of all fingers - B) **Opposition of the thumb ✓** - C) Adduction of the fingers - D) Extension of the thumb **Q186.** The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2–L3) enters the thigh: - A) Through the femoral triangle - B) Through the obturator canal - C) **Just medial to the ASIS, under the inguinal ligament ✓** - D) Through the greater sciatic foramen **Q187.** Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the: - A) Femoral nerve - B) Obturator nerve - C) **Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve ✓** - D) Saphenous nerve **Q188.** The saphenous vein joins the femoral vein at the: - A) Adductor canal - B) Popliteal fossa - C) **Saphenous opening (fossa ovalis) ✓** - D) Medial malleolus **Q189.** Which nerve supplies the skin of the medial thigh and is the sensory branch of the femoral nerve? - A) Obturator nerve - B) Genitofemoral nerve - C) **Saphenous nerve ✓** - D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve **Q190.** The sciatic nerve is formed from roots: - A) L2–L4 - B) L3–L5 - C) **L4, L5, S1, S2, S3 ✓** - D) L1–L4 **Q191.** A fracture of the neck of fibula may damage which nerve causing foot drop? - A) Tibial nerve - B) Sciatic nerve - C) **Common peroneal (fibular) nerve ✓** - D) Superficial peroneal nerve **Q192.** The tendon calcaneus (Achilles tendon) is the combined tendon of: - A) Soleus alone - B) Gastrocnemius alone - C) **Gastrocnemius and soleus ✓** - D) Peroneus longus and tibialis posterior **Q193.** The posterior tibial artery gives rise to which branch before passing behind the medial malleolus? - A) Peroneal artery - B) Anterior tibial artery - C) **Peroneal (fibular) artery ✓** - D) Popliteal artery **Q194.** The thoracic duct begins as the cisterna chyli at the level of: - A) T10 - B) T12 - C) **L1–L2 ✓** - D) L3 **Q195.** The spleen is a lymphoid organ located in the: - A) Right hypochondriac region - B) **Left hypochondriac region ✓** - C) Epigastric region - D) Left lumbar region **Q196.** Referred pain from the diaphragm is felt in the: - A) Epigastric region - B) Umbilical region - C) **Shoulder tip (C3–C5 dermatome) ✓** - D) Right iliac fossa **Q197.** The transpyloric plane (of Addison) lies at the level of: - A) T12 - B) **L1 ✓** - C) L2 - D) L3 **Q198.** The umbilicus is at the level of: - A) L1 - B) **L3–L4 (intervertebral disc) ✓** - C) L2 - D) L4–L5 **Q199.** In the neck of femur fracture in the elderly, the limb is typically held in: - A) Adduction and internal rotation - B) Adduction and external rotation - C) **Abduction and external rotation ✓** - D) Flexion and internal rotation **Q200.** The nutrient artery of the tibia is a branch of the: - A) Anterior tibial artery - B) Popliteal artery - C) **Posterior tibial artery ✓** - D) Peroneal artery --- ## ANSWER KEY SUMMARY | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | Q | Ans | |---|-----|---|-----|---|-----|---|-----| | 1 | C | 51 | C | 101 | C | 151 | B | | 2 | B | 52 | C | 102 | C | 152 | C | | 3 | C | 53 | C | 103 | D | 153 | C | | 4 | C | 54 | C | 104 | D | 154 | D | | 5 | B | 55 | C | 105 | D | 155 | D | | 6 | B | 56 | C | 106 | B | 156 | C | | 7 | B | 57 | B | 107 | D | 157 | B | | 8 | C | 58 | C | 108 | C | 158 | B | | 9 | C | 59 | C | 109 | D | 159 | B | | 10 | B | 60 | B | 110 | C | 160 | B | | 11 | D | 61 | C | 111 | C | 161 | C | | 12 | C | 62 | B | 112 | C | 162 | C | | 13 | C | 63 | C | 113 | C | 163 | C | | 14 | C | 64 | C | 114 | C | 164 | B | | 15 | C | 65 | B | 115 | D | 165 | B | | 16 | C | 66 | A | 116 | C | 166 | C | | 17 | D | 67 | C | 117 | D | 167 | B | | 18 | C | 68 | B | 118 | C | 168 | B | | 19 | C | 69 | B | 119 | C | 169 | C | | 20 | C | 70 | C | 120 | B | 170 | C | | 21 | C | 71 | C | 121 | B | 171 | C | | 22 | D | 72 | B | 122 | D | 172 | D | | 23 | C | 73 | B | 123 | C | 173 | D | | 24 | C | 74 | B | 124 | B | 174 | B | | 25 | C | 75 | C | 125 | C | 175 | D | | 26 | C | 76 | B | 126 | D | 176 | C | | 27 | C | 77 | B | 127 | C | 177 | B | | 28 | D | 78 | B | 128 | C | 178 | B | | 29 | D | 79 | C | 129 | C | 179 | C | | 30 | C | 80 | C | 130 | B | 180 | C | | 31 | C | 81 | C | 131 | D | 181 | C | | 32 | C | 82 | B | 132 | B | 182 | C | | 33 | C | 83 | B | 133 | A | 183 | C | | 34 | D | 84 | C | 134 | B | 184 | D | | 35 | C | 85 | C | 135 | C | 185 | B | | 36 | C | 86 | D | 136 | C | 186 | C | | 37 | C | 87 | C | 137 | C | 187 | C | | 38 | D | 88 | B | 138 | C | 188 | C | | 39 | C | 89 | C | 139 | B | 189 | C | | 40 | C | 90 | C | 140 | B | 190 | C | | 41 | D | 91 | C | 141 | D | 191 | C | | 42 | C | 92 | C | 142 | C | 192 | C | | 43 | C | 93 | C | 143 | D | 193 | C | | 44 | D | 94 | A | 144 | B | 194 | C | | 45 | C | 95 | C | 145 | C | 195 | B | | 46 | D | 96 | A | 146 | C | 196 | C | | 47 | D | 97 | C | 147 | B | 197 | B | | 48 | C | 98 | B | 148 | C | 198 | B | | 49 | C | 99 | C | 149 | B | 199 | C | | 50 | C | 100 | D | 150 | C | 200 | C | --- *Prepared by: Qazi Musa | KMU Format | General Anatomy — First Year MBBS* *Source: THIEME Atlas of General Anatomy & Musculoskeletal System; Gray's Anatomy for Students*
ls /home/daytona/skills/docx/scripts/office/
cd /home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs && cat > generate_mcqs.js << 'JSEOF' const { Document, Packer, Paragraph, TextRun, HeadingLevel, AlignmentType, BorderStyle, ShadingType } = require('docx'); const fs = require('fs'); const sections_data = [ { title: "SECTION 1: GENERAL ANATOMY — Anatomical Terms, Muscles, Blood Vessels, Nervous System (Weeks 1–2)", qs: [ { n:1, q:"The anatomical position is described as the body standing erect, eyes looking forward, with upper limbs at sides and palms facing:", opts:["A) Posteriorly","B) Medially","C) Anteriorly","D) Laterally"], ans:"C" }, { n:2, q:"Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body is called:", opts:["A) Adduction","B) Abduction","C) Extension","D) Circumduction"], ans:"B" }, { n:3, q:"The plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is the:", opts:["A) Coronal plane","B) Transverse plane","C) Median (midsagittal) plane","D) Oblique plane"], ans:"C" }, { n:4, q:"Pronation refers to rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces:", opts:["A) Anteriorly","B) Superiorly","C) Posteriorly (downward)","D) Medially"], ans:"C" }, { n:5, q:"Which term describes movement that decreases the angle at a joint?", opts:["A) Extension","B) Flexion","C) Abduction","D) Rotation"], ans:"B" }, { n:6, q:"Dorsiflexion of the ankle moves the foot:", opts:["A) Downward (plantarward)","B) Upward toward the shin","C) Laterally (eversion)","D) Medially (inversion)"], ans:"B" }, { n:7, q:"The term 'ipsilateral' means:", opts:["A) On the opposite side","B) On the same side","C) Toward the midline","D) Away from the midline"], ans:"B" }, { n:8, q:"Circumduction is a movement that combines:", opts:["A) Flexion and extension only","B) Abduction and adduction only","C) Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction","D) Rotation and flexion"], ans:"C" }, { n:9, q:"A parasagittal plane:", opts:["A) Is identical to the median plane","B) Divides the body into anterior and posterior","C) Is parallel to the median plane but not midline","D) Divides the body into equal halves"], ans:"C" }, { n:10, q:"Inversion of the foot refers to:", opts:["A) Turning the sole outward","B) Turning the sole inward","C) Flexing the ankle","D) Extending the toes"], ans:"B" }, { n:11, q:"Skeletal muscle is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Voluntary control","B) Striated appearance","C) Multinucleated fibers","D) Presence of intercalated discs"], ans:"D" }, { n:12, q:"Smooth muscle is found in which of the following?", opts:["A) Biceps brachii","B) Heart wall","C) Walls of blood vessels","D) Diaphragm"], ans:"C" }, { n:13, q:"Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that cardiac muscle:", opts:["A) Is under voluntary control","B) Has no striations","C) Has intercalated discs","D) Is multinucleated"], ans:"C" }, { n:14, q:"A pennate muscle has fibers arranged:", opts:["A) Parallel to the long axis throughout","B) In a circular manner","C) Obliquely to a central tendon, like a feather","D) In a fan shape from a single point"], ans:"C" }, { n:15, q:"Which type of muscle contraction produces no movement of the joint but increases muscle tension?", opts:["A) Isotonic concentric","B) Isotonic eccentric","C) Isometric","D) Isokinetic"], ans:"C" }, { n:16, q:"The origin of a muscle is typically:", opts:["A) The more mobile attachment","B) The distal attachment","C) The more fixed (proximal) attachment","D) Always located on a flat bone"], ans:"C" }, { n:17, q:"A fusiform muscle has a shape that is:", opts:["A) Flat and broad","B) Fan-shaped","C) Feather-shaped (pennate)","D) Spindle-shaped, widest in middle"], ans:"D" }, { n:18, q:"Which muscle type is found exclusively in the heart?", opts:["A) Skeletal muscle","B) Smooth muscle","C) Cardiac muscle","D) Multipennate muscle"], ans:"C" }, { n:19, q:"An agonist muscle is one that:", opts:["A) Opposes the main movement","B) Fixes the proximal joint","C) Produces the main movement","D) Reverses the movement"], ans:"C" }, { n:20, q:"A sphincter muscle is characterized by fibers arranged in a:", opts:["A) Parallel pattern","B) Pennate pattern","C) Circular pattern","D) Multipennate pattern"], ans:"C" }, { n:21, q:"The tunica intima of an artery consists of:", opts:["A) Smooth muscle and elastic fibers","B) Fibrous connective tissue","C) Endothelium and subendothelial connective tissue","D) Lymphatic capillaries"], ans:"C" }, { n:22, q:"Which blood vessel lacks a tunica media?", opts:["A) Artery","B) Vein","C) Arteriole","D) Capillary"], ans:"D" }, { n:23, q:"Lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries in that they:", opts:["A) Have a continuous basement membrane","B) Are lined by columnar epithelium","C) Are blind-ended and have a discontinuous basement membrane","D) Carry oxygenated fluid"], ans:"C" }, { n:24, q:"The largest lymphatic vessel in the body is the:", opts:["A) Right lymphatic duct","B) Cisterna chyli","C) Thoracic duct","D) Left jugular trunk"], ans:"C" }, { n:25, q:"A nerve fiber that carries impulses TOWARD the CNS is:", opts:["A) Efferent","B) Motor","C) Afferent (sensory)","D) Autonomic"], ans:"C" }, { n:26, q:"The neurilemma (sheath of Schwann) is found around nerve fibers of the:", opts:["A) CNS only","B) Neither CNS nor PNS","C) PNS only","D) Both CNS and PNS"], ans:"C" }, { n:27, q:"Which of the following is NOT a component of the autonomic nervous system?", opts:["A) Sympathetic division","B) Parasympathetic division","C) Somatic motor neurons","D) Enteric nervous system"], ans:"C" }, { n:28, q:"The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Lower limbs","B) Left side of thorax","C) Left side of head and neck","D) Right side of head and neck"], ans:"D" }, { n:29, q:"Veins differ from arteries in that veins:", opts:["A) Have thicker walls","B) Carry only deoxygenated blood","C) Have no valves","D) Have thinner walls and often contain valves"], ans:"D" }, { n:30, q:"The functional unit of the nervous system is the:", opts:["A) Schwann cell","B) Myelin sheath","C) Neuron","D) Node of Ranvier"], ans:"C" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 2: BONES AND CARTILAGE (Weeks 3–4)", qs: [ { n:31, q:"The diaphysis of a long bone is the:", opts:["A) Expanded end of the bone","B) Growth plate between epiphysis and diaphysis","C) Shaft of the bone","D) Articular surface covered by cartilage"], ans:"C" }, { n:32, q:"The epiphyseal plate is composed of:", opts:["A) Fibrocartilage","B) Elastic cartilage","C) Hyaline cartilage","D) Fibrous tissue"], ans:"C" }, { n:33, q:"The nutrient foramen of a long bone is directed AWAY from:", opts:["A) The nearest joint","B) The metaphysis","C) The growing end (epiphysis)","D) The periosteum"], ans:"C" }, { n:34, q:"The periosteum is ABSENT over:", opts:["A) The diaphysis","B) The metaphysis","C) The nutrient foramen","D) Articular cartilage"], ans:"D" }, { n:35, q:"The medullary (marrow) cavity of long bones in adults mainly contains:", opts:["A) Red marrow (hematopoietic)","B) Hyaline cartilage","C) Yellow marrow (adipose tissue)","D) Cancellous bone"], ans:"C" }, { n:36, q:"Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?", opts:["A) Scapula","B) Clavicle","C) Patella","D) Hyoid bone"], ans:"C" }, { n:37, q:"Intramembranous ossification occurs in which bone?", opts:["A) Femur","B) Tibia","C) Flat bones of the skull","D) Vertebrae"], ans:"C" }, { n:38, q:"The primary ossification center of a long bone appears in the:", opts:["A) Epiphysis","B) Articular cartilage","C) Periosteum","D) Diaphysis (shaft)"], ans:"D" }, { n:39, q:"Osteoclasts are derived from:", opts:["A) Osteoblasts","B) Fibroblasts","C) Monocyte/macrophage lineage (hematopoietic stem cells)","D) Chondrocytes"], ans:"C" }, { n:40, q:"Haversian systems (osteons) are found in:", opts:["A) Spongy (cancellous) bone only","B) Cartilage","C) Compact (cortical) bone","D) Woven bone"], ans:"C" }, { n:41, q:"Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?", opts:["A) Support and protection","B) Hematopoiesis","C) Mineral storage","D) Impulse conduction"], ans:"D" }, { n:42, q:"Bones are richly supplied by sensory nerve fibers through the:", opts:["A) Endosteum only","B) Marrow cavity","C) Periosteum","D) Articular cartilage"], ans:"C" }, { n:43, q:"The rule of direction of the nutrient foramen states it is directed away from the:", opts:["A) Diaphysis","B) Metaphysis","C) Dominant growing end","D) Periosteum"], ans:"C" }, { n:44, q:"Hyaline cartilage is found in all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Articular surfaces of synovial joints","B) Costal cartilages","C) Tracheal rings","D) Intervertebral discs"], ans:"D" }, { n:45, q:"Fibrocartilage is found in:", opts:["A) Articular surfaces of long bones","B) Pinna of the ear","C) Intervertebral discs","D) Costal cartilages"], ans:"C" }, { n:46, q:"Elastic cartilage is found in which structure?", opts:["A) Trachea","B) Articular surfaces","C) Pubic symphysis","D) Pinna of the ear (auricle)"], ans:"D" }, { n:47, q:"The zone of provisional calcification in the epiphyseal plate is:", opts:["A) Closest to the epiphysis","B) The proliferating zone","C) The hypertrophic zone","D) Adjacent to the metaphysis"], ans:"D" }, { n:48, q:"Which vitamin is essential for normal bone mineralization?", opts:["A) Vitamin C","B) Vitamin B12","C) Vitamin D","D) Vitamin K"], ans:"C" }, { n:49, q:"The endosteum lines the:", opts:["A) Outer surface of bone","B) Articular cartilage","C) Medullary cavity and trabeculae of cancellous bone","D) Epiphyseal plate"], ans:"C" }, { n:50, q:"Short bones are found in which region?", opts:["A) Skull vault","B) Ribs","C) Carpals and tarsals","D) Femur and humerus"], ans:"C" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 3: THORACIC WALL (Weeks 5–8)", qs: [ { n:51, q:"The sternal angle (angle of Louis) corresponds to which vertebral level?", opts:["A) T1","B) T3","C) T4/T5 (disc)","D) T6"], ans:"C" }, { n:52, q:"How many pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum via costal cartilages?", opts:["A) 5","B) 6","C) 7 (true ribs)","D) 10"], ans:"C" }, { n:53, q:"Ribs 11 and 12 are called floating ribs because they:", opts:["A) Articulate with the sternum indirectly","B) Articulate with thoracic vertebrae only via the head","C) Do not articulate anteriorly at all","D) Have no costal cartilage"], ans:"C" }, { n:54, q:"The typical intercostal nerve is a ventral ramus of which spinal nerves?", opts:["A) T1–T6","B) T1–T11","C) T3–T11","D) T2–T12"], ans:"C" }, { n:55, q:"The intercostal neurovascular bundle (nerve, artery, vein) is located:", opts:["A) Along the inferior border of the rib above","B) Along the superior border of the rib below","C) In the costal groove along the inferior border of each rib","D) In the midcostal position"], ans:"C" }, { n:56, q:"A clinical procedure (e.g., pleural tap) to avoid the intercostal neurovascular bundle should be inserted:", opts:["A) At the lower border of the upper rib","B) In the middle of the intercostal space","C) Just above the upper border of the lower rib","D) At any point in the space"], ans:"C" }, { n:57, q:"The manubrium of the sternum articulates with the body at the:", opts:["A) Xiphisternal joint","B) Manubriosternal joint (sternal angle of Louis)","C) Sternoclavicular joint","D) 1st costal cartilage"], ans:"B" }, { n:58, q:"The xiphisternum (xiphoid process) is the:", opts:["A) Superior part of the sternum","B) Middle part of the sternum","C) Inferior part of the sternum","D) Articulation with the clavicle"], ans:"C" }, { n:59, q:"The first rib is atypical because it:", opts:["A) Has a costal groove on its inferior surface","B) Articulates with T2 vertebra","C) Is flat, broad, and has two grooves on its superior surface","D) Has a tubercle but no head"], ans:"C" }, { n:60, q:"The external intercostal muscle fibers run in which direction?", opts:["A) Horizontally","B) Downward and forward (like hands in pockets)","C) Downward and backward","D) Vertically"], ans:"B" }, { n:61, q:"The internal intercostal muscle fibers run:", opts:["A) Downward and forward","B) Horizontally","C) Downward and backward (at right angles to external)","D) Vertically"], ans:"C" }, { n:62, q:"During inspiration (quiet breathing), the diaphragm:", opts:["A) Relaxes and moves superiorly","B) Contracts and flattens, moving inferiorly","C) Remains in a fixed position","D) Moves superiorly with the ribs"], ans:"B" }, { n:63, q:"The central tendon of the diaphragm is pierced by the:", opts:["A) Aorta","B) Esophagus","C) Inferior vena cava","D) Thoracic duct"], ans:"C" }, { n:64, q:"The aortic hiatus in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level?", opts:["A) T8","B) T10","C) T12","D) L1"], ans:"C" }, { n:65, q:"The esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level?", opts:["A) T8","B) T10","C) T12","D) L1"], ans:"B" }, { n:66, q:"The caval opening (IVC) in the diaphragm is at which vertebral level?", opts:["A) T8","B) T10","C) T12","D) L1"], ans:"A" }, { n:67, q:"The right dome of the diaphragm is higher than the left because it is pushed up by the:", opts:["A) Spleen","B) Stomach","C) Liver","D) Right kidney"], ans:"C" }, { n:68, q:"The internal thoracic (mammary) artery arises from the:", opts:["A) Aorta","B) Subclavian artery","C) Axillary artery","D) Superior intercostal artery"], ans:"B" }, { n:69, q:"Which structure passes through the AORTIC HIATUS of the diaphragm along with the aorta?", opts:["A) Vagus nerve","B) Thoracic duct and azygos vein","C) Esophagus","D) Inferior vena cava"], ans:"B" }, { n:70, q:"The diaphragm is innervated mainly by the:", opts:["A) Vagus nerve (CN X)","B) Intercostal nerves","C) Phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5)","D) Thoracic splanchnic nerves"], ans:"C" }, { n:71, q:"The superior mediastinum extends from the thoracic inlet down to the:", opts:["A) Xiphoid process","B) Hilum of the lung","C) Sternal angle (T4/5 disc)","D) Diaphragm"], ans:"C" }, { n:72, q:"The anterior mediastinum is located between the:", opts:["A) Trachea and vertebral column","B) Sternum and pericardium","C) Hilum of the lungs bilaterally","D) Esophagus and aorta"], ans:"B" }, { n:73, q:"The right lung has how many lobes?", opts:["A) 2","B) 3","C) 4","D) 5"], ans:"B" }, { n:74, q:"The left lung has how many lobes?", opts:["A) 1","B) 2","C) 3","D) 4"], ans:"B" }, { n:75, q:"The lingula is a feature of the:", opts:["A) Right upper lobe","B) Right middle lobe","C) Left upper lobe","D) Right lower lobe"], ans:"C" }, { n:76, q:"The oblique fissure of the lung separates the:", opts:["A) Upper lobe from the middle lobe (right)","B) Upper (and middle) lobe from the lower lobe","C) Upper lobe from the lingula","D) Middle lobe from the lower lobe"], ans:"B" }, { n:77, q:"How many bronchopulmonary segments does the right lung have?", opts:["A) 8","B) 10","C) 12","D) 18"], ans:"B" }, { n:78, q:"The bronchopulmonary segment is the smallest surgically resectable unit of the lung because it has its own:", opts:["A) Pleura","B) Bronchus and vascular supply","C) Lymphatic drainage only","D) Nerve supply"], ans:"B" }, { n:79, q:"The parietal pleura is innervated by:", opts:["A) Vagus nerve only","B) Sympathetic fibers only","C) Intercostal and phrenic nerves (somatic — pain sensitive)","D) Pulmonary plexus"], ans:"C" }, { n:80, q:"The visceral pleura is innervated by:", opts:["A) Intercostal nerves","B) Phrenic nerve","C) Autonomic fibers via pulmonary plexus (NOT pain-sensitive)","D) Somatic intercostal nerves"], ans:"C" }, { n:81, q:"The right main bronchus is more vertical; therefore, inhaled foreign bodies most commonly lodge in the:", opts:["A) Left main bronchus","B) Right upper lobe bronchus","C) Right lower lobe bronchus (or right main bronchus)","D) Left lower lobe bronchus"], ans:"C" }, { n:82, q:"The fibrous pericardium is fused with the:", opts:["A) Visceral pericardium","B) Diaphragm inferiorly and great vessels superiorly","C) Pleura laterally","D) Esophagus posteriorly"], ans:"B" }, { n:83, q:"The transverse sinus of the pericardium lies between:", opts:["A) The superior vena cava and left atrium","B) The aorta/pulmonary trunk and the superior vena cava/pulmonary veins","C) The two atria","D) The inferior vena cava and left ventricle"], ans:"B" }, { n:84, q:"The right coronary artery supplies the:", opts:["A) Left ventricle predominantly","B) Left atrium only","C) Right atrium, right ventricle, and SA/AV nodes (usually)","D) Interventricular septum exclusively"], ans:"C" }, { n:85, q:"The coronary sinus drains into the:", opts:["A) Right ventricle","B) Superior vena cava","C) Right atrium","D) Left atrium"], ans:"C" }, { n:86, q:"The SA node (pacemaker) is located in the:", opts:["A) Interventricular septum","B) AV groove","C) Left atrium","D) Upper right atrium near the SVC opening"], ans:"D" }, { n:87, q:"The AV node is located in the:", opts:["A) Right atrium near the SVC","B) Interventricular septum superiorly","C) Interatrial septum at the triangle of Koch","D) Left atrium"], ans:"C" }, { n:88, q:"The arch of the aorta gives rise to which branches (from right to left)?", opts:["A) Left common carotid, right subclavian, brachiocephalic","B) Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian","C) Left subclavian, left common carotid, brachiocephalic","D) Right and left common carotid, right subclavian"], ans:"B" }, { n:89, q:"The azygos vein drains into the:", opts:["A) Left brachiocephalic vein","B) Inferior vena cava","C) Superior vena cava","D) Right subclavian vein"], ans:"C" }, { n:90, q:"Coarctation of the aorta typically occurs at the:", opts:["A) Ascending aorta","B) Aortic arch","C) Isthmus (junction of arch and descending aorta, near ligamentum arteriosum)","D) Abdominal aorta"], ans:"C" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 4: GIT — Abdominal Wall, Inguinal Canal, GI Organs (Weeks 9–14)", qs: [ { n:91, q:"The linea alba is formed by the fusion of the:", opts:["A) Two rectus abdominis muscles","B) Transversus abdominis aponeuroses only","C) Aponeuroses of all three anterolateral abdominal muscles","D) Internal oblique aponeurosis alone"], ans:"C" }, { n:92, q:"The rectus sheath POSTERIOR wall is ABSENT below the:", opts:["A) Costal margin","B) Umbilicus","C) Arcuate line (semicircular line of Douglas)","D) Inguinal ligament"], ans:"C" }, { n:93, q:"Below the arcuate line, which layers are anterior to the rectus abdominis?", opts:["A) External oblique aponeurosis only","B) External and internal oblique aponeuroses","C) All three aponeuroses + transversalis fascia","D) External oblique alone"], ans:"C" }, { n:94, q:"The inguinal ligament extends from the:", opts:["A) Anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle","B) Posterior superior iliac spine to the pubic symphysis","C) Iliac crest to the pubic crest","D) Anterior inferior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle"], ans:"A" }, { n:95, q:"The deep inguinal ring is an opening in the:", opts:["A) External oblique aponeurosis","B) Internal oblique muscle","C) Transversalis fascia","D) Transversus abdominis muscle"], ans:"C" }, { n:96, q:"The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the:", opts:["A) External oblique aponeurosis","B) Internal oblique aponeurosis","C) Transversalis fascia","D) Transversus abdominis"], ans:"A" }, { n:97, q:"The FLOOR of the inguinal canal is formed by the:", opts:["A) Conjoint tendon","B) Transversalis fascia","C) Inguinal ligament (and lacunar ligament medially)","D) External oblique aponeurosis"], ans:"C" }, { n:98, q:"The ROOF of the inguinal canal is formed by:", opts:["A) Inguinal ligament","B) Arching fibers of internal oblique and transversus abdominis","C) External oblique aponeurosis","D) Transversalis fascia"], ans:"B" }, { n:99, q:"The POSTERIOR WALL of the inguinal canal is formed by:", opts:["A) External oblique aponeurosis","B) Inguinal ligament","C) Transversalis fascia + conjoint tendon medially","D) Internal oblique muscle"], ans:"C" }, { n:100, q:"Contents of the inguinal canal in the male include all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Vas deferens","B) Testicular artery","C) Ilio-inguinal nerve","D) Round ligament of the uterus"], ans:"D" }, { n:101, q:"In an INDIRECT inguinal hernia, the hernial sac passes through:", opts:["A) Hesselbach's triangle","B) Posterior wall of the inguinal canal","C) Deep inguinal ring laterally (lateral to inferior epigastric vessels)","D) Femoral canal"], ans:"C" }, { n:102, q:"A DIRECT inguinal hernia passes through:", opts:["A) Deep inguinal ring","B) Lateral to inferior epigastric vessels","C) Hesselbach's triangle (medial to inferior epigastric vessels)","D) Femoral ring"], ans:"C" }, { n:103, q:"Hesselbach's triangle is bounded by the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Inferior epigastric vessels (laterally)","B) Inguinal ligament (inferiorly)","C) Lateral border of rectus abdominis (medially)","D) Femoral canal (inferolaterally)"], ans:"D" }, { n:104, q:"The anterior abdominal wall is supplied by the following arteries EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Superior epigastric artery","B) Inferior epigastric artery","C) Deep circumflex iliac artery","D) Splenic artery"], ans:"D" }, { n:105, q:"The femoral hernia passes through the:", opts:["A) Superficial inguinal ring","B) Deep inguinal ring","C) Hesselbach's triangle","D) Femoral ring (below the inguinal ligament)"], ans:"D" }, { n:106, q:"The esophagus begins at the level of:", opts:["A) C4","B) C6 (lower border of cricoid cartilage)","C) T1","D) T4"], ans:"B" }, { n:107, q:"The three physiological constrictions of the esophagus are at the following levels EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Junction with pharynx (C6)","B) Where it crosses the aortic arch (T4)","C) Where it pierces the diaphragm (T10)","D) At the gastro-esophageal junction (T8)"], ans:"D" }, { n:108, q:"The gastro-esophageal junction (lower esophageal sphincter) is at the level of:", opts:["A) T8","B) T10","C) T11","D) L1"], ans:"C" }, { n:109, q:"The stomach is divided into all of the following parts EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Fundus","B) Body","C) Pylorus","D) Cecum"], ans:"D" }, { n:110, q:"The blood supply of the lesser curvature of the stomach is from:", opts:["A) Splenic artery","B) Gastro-epiploic arteries","C) Right and left gastric arteries","D) Short gastric arteries"], ans:"C" }, { n:111, q:"The pyloric sphincter prevents reflux from:", opts:["A) Stomach to esophagus","B) Jejunum to duodenum","C) Duodenum to stomach","D) Cecum to ileum"], ans:"C" }, { n:112, q:"The duodenum has how many parts?", opts:["A) 2","B) 3","C) 4","D) 5"], ans:"C" }, { n:113, q:"The ampulla of Vater (hepatopancreatic ampulla) opens into the:", opts:["A) First part of the duodenum","B) Third part of the duodenum","C) Second part (descending) of the duodenum","D) Jejunum"], ans:"C" }, { n:114, q:"The DJ flexure (duodenojejunal junction) is suspended by:", opts:["A) Transverse mesocolon","B) Greater omentum","C) Ligament of Treitz (suspensory muscle)","D) Mesentery proper"], ans:"C" }, { n:115, q:"Features that distinguish jejunum from ileum include:", opts:["A) Thinner walls","B) More fat in mesentery","C) More Peyer's patches","D) Larger villi, fewer and larger arterial arcades, longer vasa recta"], ans:"D" }, { n:116, q:"The cecum is located in the:", opts:["A) Left iliac fossa","B) Left lumbar region","C) Right iliac fossa","D) Epigastric region"], ans:"C" }, { n:117, q:"The appendix most commonly lies in which position?", opts:["A) Pre-ileal","B) Post-cecal","C) Pelvic","D) Retrocecal"], ans:"D" }, { n:118, q:"McBurney's point lies:", opts:["A) At the midpoint of the right inguinal ligament","B) One-third of the way from the umbilicus to the ASIS","C) One-third of the way from the right ASIS to the umbilicus","D) Two-thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the right ASIS"], ans:"C" }, { n:119, q:"The portal vein is formed by the union of the:", opts:["A) Splenic vein and inferior mesenteric vein","B) Hepatic veins and superior mesenteric vein","C) Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein behind the neck of pancreas","D) Inferior mesenteric and superior mesenteric veins"], ans:"C" }, { n:120, q:"The liver is divided into right and left functional lobes by the:", opts:["A) Falciform ligament","B) Plane through the gallbladder fossa and inferior vena cava (Cantlie's line)","C) Ligamentum teres","D) Coronary ligament"], ans:"B" }, { n:121, q:"The bare area of the liver is covered by:", opts:["A) Visceral peritoneum on all sides","B) No peritoneum (direct contact with the diaphragm)","C) Parietal peritoneum","D) Fibrous capsule only"], ans:"B" }, { n:122, q:"The porta hepatis transmits all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Portal vein","B) Hepatic artery proper","C) Bile duct","D) Hepatic vein"], ans:"D" }, { n:123, q:"The gallbladder is supplied by the:", opts:["A) Hepatic artery proper","B) Left hepatic artery","C) Cystic artery (branch of right hepatic artery)","D) Superior mesenteric artery"], ans:"C" }, { n:124, q:"Calot's triangle is bounded by:", opts:["A) Portal vein, liver, and cystic duct","B) Cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and inferior surface of liver","C) Cystic artery, portal vein, and liver","D) Gallbladder, cystic duct, and hepatic artery"], ans:"B" }, { n:125, q:"The pancreas is primarily a:", opts:["A) Purely endocrine organ","B) Purely exocrine organ","C) Both exocrine and endocrine organ","D) Ductless gland"], ans:"C" }, { n:126, q:"The head of the pancreas is related posteriorly to the:", opts:["A) Stomach","B) Transverse colon","C) Spleen","D) Inferior vena cava and portal vein"], ans:"D" }, { n:127, q:"The main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung) usually joins the:", opts:["A) Cystic duct","B) Left hepatic duct","C) Common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla","D) Duodenum separately"], ans:"C" }, { n:128, q:"The right kidney lies slightly LOWER than the left kidney because it is displaced by the:", opts:["A) Right adrenal gland","B) Right ureter","C) Right lobe of the liver","D) Ascending colon"], ans:"C" }, { n:129, q:"The hilum of the kidney (from anterior to posterior) contains:", opts:["A) Artery, vein, ureter","B) Vein, ureter, artery","C) Vein, artery, pelvis of ureter","D) Ureter, artery, vein"], ans:"C" }, { n:130, q:"The three sites of physiological narrowing of the ureter are at:", opts:["A) Pelvi-ureteric junction, brim of pelvis, and vesico-ureteric junction","B) Pelvi-ureteric junction, pelvic brim, and entry into bladder","C) Upper, middle, and lower thirds","D) Renal hilum, ischial spine, and trigone"], ans:"B" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 5: PELVIC WALLS (Week 15)", qs: [ { n:131, q:"The bony pelvis is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Two hip bones (os coxae)","B) Sacrum","C) Coccyx","D) Fifth lumbar vertebra"], ans:"D" }, { n:132, q:"The pelvic inlet (superior pelvic aperture) is bounded by:", opts:["A) Pubic symphysis anteriorly, ischial tuberosities laterally","B) Pubic symphysis anteriorly, sacral promontory posteriorly, pectineal line laterally","C) Coccyx posteriorly and pubic arch anteriorly","D) Ischial spines laterally and sacral promontory posteriorly"], ans:"B" }, { n:133, q:"The true (obstetric) conjugate of the pelvis is measured from the:", opts:["A) Sacral promontory to the upper border of the pubic symphysis","B) Sacral promontory to the lower border of the symphysis","C) Ischial spines to each other (transverse)","D) Outer edges of the ischial tuberosities"], ans:"A" }, { n:134, q:"Which pelvic diameter is used clinically to assess the engagement of the fetal head?", opts:["A) True conjugate","B) Diagonal conjugate","C) Transverse diameter of inlet","D) Interspinous diameter"], ans:"B" }, { n:135, q:"The female pelvis differs from the male pelvis in that the female pelvis has:", opts:["A) Narrow subpubic angle (<70°)","B) Heart-shaped inlet","C) Wide subpubic angle (>80°, close to 90°)","D) Prominent ischial spines"], ans:"C" }, { n:136, q:"The pelvic floor (pelvic diaphragm) is formed mainly by:", opts:["A) Obturator internus","B) Piriformis","C) Levator ani and coccygeus muscles","D) Gluteus maximus"], ans:"C" }, { n:137, q:"The lateral wall of the pelvis is formed mainly by the:", opts:["A) Sacrum","B) Pubic bone","C) Obturator internus muscle (with obturator membrane)","D) Levator ani"], ans:"C" }, { n:138, q:"The posterior wall of the pelvis is formed by the:", opts:["A) Hip bone and obturator internus","B) Pubic symphysis","C) Sacrum, coccyx, and piriformis muscle","D) Levator ani and coccygeus"], ans:"C" }, { n:139, q:"The sciatic nerve exits the pelvis through the:", opts:["A) Obturator foramen","B) Greater sciatic foramen (below piriformis)","C) Lesser sciatic foramen","D) Femoral canal"], ans:"B" }, { n:140, q:"The pudendal nerve re-enters the perineum through the:", opts:["A) Greater sciatic foramen","B) Lesser sciatic foramen (via Alcock's canal)","C) Obturator foramen","D) Urogenital hiatus"], ans:"B" }, { n:141, q:"The internal iliac artery (anterior division) supplies all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Uterine artery","B) Superior vesical artery","C) Inferior vesical artery","D) External iliac artery"], ans:"D" }, { n:142, q:"The obturator nerve (L2–L4) exits the pelvis through the:", opts:["A) Greater sciatic foramen","B) Lesser sciatic foramen","C) Obturator canal (obturator foramen)","D) Femoral canal"], ans:"C" }, { n:143, q:"Which muscle forms the floor of the femoral triangle?", opts:["A) Adductor longus","B) Iliopsoas medially and pectineus laterally","C) Sartorius","D) Rectus femoris"], ans:"B" }, { n:144, q:"The sacrospinous ligament converts the greater sciatic notch into the:", opts:["A) Lesser sciatic foramen","B) Greater sciatic foramen","C) Obturator foramen","D) Femoral ring"], ans:"B" }, { n:145, q:"The coccygeus muscle is innervated by:", opts:["A) Pudendal nerve","B) Obturator nerve","C) Branches of S4 and S5","D) Inferior rectal nerve"], ans:"C" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 6: PELVIC CAVITY — Male & Female Viscera (Week 16)", qs: [ { n:146, q:"The vas deferens (ductus deferens) is a continuation of the:", opts:["A) Seminal vesicle duct","B) Ejaculatory duct","C) Epididymis (tail of epididymis)","D) Prostatic urethra"], ans:"C" }, { n:147, q:"The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the:", opts:["A) Vas deferens and prostatic duct","B) Vas deferens and duct of seminal vesicle","C) Seminal vesicle duct and urethral duct","D) Vas deferens and urethra"], ans:"B" }, { n:148, q:"The ejaculatory duct opens into the urethra at the:", opts:["A) External urethral sphincter","B) Membranous urethra","C) Seminal colliculus (verumontanum) in the prostatic urethra","D) Bulbar urethra"], ans:"C" }, { n:149, q:"The prostate gland surrounds the urethra at the:", opts:["A) Membranous part","B) Neck of the bladder (prostatic urethra)","C) Bulbar part","D) Penile (spongy) part"], ans:"B" }, { n:150, q:"Blood supply of the prostate gland is from:", opts:["A) Superior vesical artery","B) Uterine artery","C) Inferior vesical artery and middle rectal artery","D) External pudendal artery"], ans:"C" }, { n:151, q:"The seminal vesicles are located:", opts:["A) Within the prostate","B) Posterior to the bladder, superior to the prostate","C) In the scrotum","D) Along the vas deferens in the inguinal canal"], ans:"B" }, { n:152, q:"The ovary is supplied by the:", opts:["A) Internal iliac artery only","B) Uterine artery only","C) Ovarian artery (from abdominal aorta at L1) and uterine artery","D) External iliac artery"], ans:"C" }, { n:153, q:"The ovarian vein on the RIGHT drains into the:", opts:["A) Left renal vein","B) Portal vein","C) Inferior vena cava directly","D) Right renal vein"], ans:"C" }, { n:154, q:"The ovarian vein on the LEFT drains into the:", opts:["A) Inferior vena cava","B) Portal vein","C) Right renal vein","D) Left renal vein"], ans:"D" }, { n:155, q:"The uterine tube (fallopian tube) has all of the following parts EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Infundibulum","B) Ampulla","C) Isthmus","D) Corpus"], ans:"D" }, { n:156, q:"Fertilization normally occurs in the:", opts:["A) Uterine cavity","B) Isthmus of the tube","C) Ampulla of the uterine tube","D) Ovary"], ans:"C" }, { n:157, q:"The uterus is normally in a position of:", opts:["A) Retroversion and retroflexion","B) Anteversion and anteflexion","C) Anteversion only","D) Vertical alignment with the vagina"], ans:"B" }, { n:158, q:"The round ligament of the uterus passes through the:", opts:["A) Broad ligament and exits via obturator foramen","B) Inguinal canal to attach to the labium majus","C) Sacrospinous ligament","D) Femoral canal"], ans:"B" }, { n:159, q:"During hysterectomy, the uterine artery crosses the ureter at the:", opts:["A) Pelvic brim","B) Level of the uterine cervix ('water under the bridge')","C) Bladder neck","D) Ischial spine"], ans:"B" }, { n:160, q:"The female urethra is approximately how long?", opts:["A) 2 cm","B) 4 cm","C) 8 cm","D) 12 cm"], ans:"B" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 7: MIXED ULTRA HIGH YIELD — Clinical & Applied (All Topics)", qs: [ { n:161, q:"Which muscle is the chief muscle of inspiration?", opts:["A) External intercostal muscles","B) Internal intercostal muscles","C) Diaphragm","D) Sternocleidomastoid"], ans:"C" }, { n:162, q:"During a 'bucket-handle' movement of the ribs, which diameter of the thorax increases?", opts:["A) Anteroposterior","B) Vertical","C) Transverse","D) Oblique"], ans:"C" }, { n:163, q:"During 'pump-handle' movement of the upper ribs, which diameter increases?", opts:["A) Transverse","B) Vertical","C) Anteroposterior","D) Oblique"], ans:"C" }, { n:164, q:"A fracture of the femur in the midshaft region would most directly damage the:", opts:["A) Anterior tibial artery","B) Nutrient artery of the femur (branch of profunda femoris)","C) Femoral artery","D) Popliteal artery"], ans:"B" }, { n:165, q:"A patient with a rib fracture at the angle of the rib most likely injures the:", opts:["A) Costochondral cartilage","B) Intercostal neurovascular bundle","C) Pleura only","D) Periosteum"], ans:"B" }, { n:166, q:"The lymph from the lateral quadrant of the breast drains primarily into:", opts:["A) Internal mammary (parasternal) nodes","B) Supraclavicular nodes","C) Axillary lymph nodes (pectoral group)","D) Mediastinal nodes"], ans:"C" }, { n:167, q:"An indirect inguinal hernia in a child is due to:", opts:["A) Weakness in Hesselbach's triangle","B) Patent processus vaginalis","C) Weakened posterior wall of inguinal canal","D) Enlarged femoral ring"], ans:"B" }, { n:168, q:"The nerve most commonly injured during an appendectomy (right iliac fossa incision) is the:", opts:["A) Iliohypogastric nerve","B) Ilio-inguinal nerve","C) Genitofemoral nerve","D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve"], ans:"B" }, { n:169, q:"In a patient with gallstones, pain may be referred to the right shoulder tip because of irritation of the:", opts:["A) Vagus nerve","B) Right intercostal nerves","C) Right phrenic nerve (C3–C5, referred to shoulder)","D) Right thoracic splanchnic nerve"], ans:"C" }, { n:170, q:"The McBurney's incision for appendectomy splits muscle fibers in a:", opts:["A) Horizontal manner","B) Vertical manner","C) Grid-iron (along direction of fibers)","D) Excision completely"], ans:"C" }, { n:171, q:"A ureteric stone most likely causes pain in the loin radiating to the:", opts:["A) Back","B) Upper abdomen","C) Groin and genitalia (scrotum/labia)","D) Buttock"], ans:"C" }, { n:172, q:"The transpyloric plane (L1) passes through all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Pylorus of the stomach","B) DJ flexure","C) Hilum of the kidney","D) Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta"], ans:"D" }, { n:173, q:"Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure?", opts:["A) Stomach","B) Transverse colon","C) Jejunum","D) Duodenum (2nd, 3rd, 4th parts)"], ans:"D" }, { n:174, q:"Courvoisier's law states that in a patient with jaundice and a palpable gallbladder:", opts:["A) The cause is likely gallstones","B) The cause is likely carcinoma of the head of the pancreas (not stones)","C) The gallbladder is always diseased","D) It is a sign of acute cholecystitis"], ans:"B" }, { n:175, q:"The posterior relation of the head of the pancreas includes all of the following EXCEPT:", opts:["A) Inferior vena cava","B) Common bile duct","C) Portal vein","D) Abdominal aorta"], ans:"D" }, { n:176, q:"Murphy's sign is positive in:", opts:["A) Appendicitis","B) Pancreatitis","C) Acute cholecystitis","D) Peptic ulcer"], ans:"C" }, { n:177, q:"The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow) connects the:", opts:["A) Greater sac with the lesser sac","B) Lesser sac (omental bursa) with the greater peritoneal cavity","C) Peritoneal cavity with the retroperitoneum","D) Subphrenic space with the pelvis"], ans:"B" }, { n:178, q:"The posterior vagal trunk supplies the:", opts:["A) Posterior surface of the esophagus only","B) Posterior surface of stomach, liver, biliary tract, and small intestine to splenic flexure","C) Left half of the colon only","D) Descending colon"], ans:"B" }, { n:179, q:"Which ligament connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and contains the ligamentum teres?", opts:["A) Coronary ligament","B) Triangular ligament","C) Falciform ligament","D) Gastrohepatic ligament"], ans:"C" }, { n:180, q:"The Calot's triangle (cystohepatic triangle) contains the:", opts:["A) Portal vein","B) Common bile duct","C) Cystic artery","D) Right hepatic duct"], ans:"C" }, ] }, { title: "SECTION 8: FINAL HIGH YIELD MIXED BANK (All Weeks)", qs: [ { n:181, q:"A Colles' fracture involves the:", opts:["A) Neck of the femur","B) Shaft of the radius","C) Distal radius (within 2.5 cm of the wrist) — dinner fork deformity","D) Olecranon of the ulna"], ans:"C" }, { n:182, q:"The blood supply to the head of the femur in an adult primarily comes from:", opts:["A) Obturator artery via the ligament of the head","B) Femoral artery","C) Medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries (retinacular vessels)","D) Internal iliac artery"], ans:"C" }, { n:183, q:"The intervertebral disc is composed of a central nucleus pulposus surrounded by the:", opts:["A) Hyaline cartilage ring","B) Elastic cartilage","C) Annulus fibrosus (fibrocartilage)","D) Periosteum"], ans:"C" }, { n:184, q:"The most common site of a prolapsed (herniated) intervertebral disc is:", opts:["A) L1–L2","B) L2–L3","C) L3–L4","D) L4–L5 or L5–S1"], ans:"D" }, { n:185, q:"In a median nerve injury at the wrist (carpal tunnel syndrome), which finger movement is LOST?", opts:["A) Extension of all fingers","B) Opposition of the thumb","C) Adduction of the fingers","D) Extension of the thumb"], ans:"B" }, { n:186, q:"The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2–L3) enters the thigh:", opts:["A) Through the femoral triangle","B) Through the obturator canal","C) Just medial to the ASIS, under the inguinal ligament","D) Through the greater sciatic foramen"], ans:"C" }, { n:187, q:"Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the:", opts:["A) Femoral nerve","B) Obturator nerve","C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve","D) Saphenous nerve"], ans:"C" }, { n:188, q:"The saphenous vein joins the femoral vein at the:", opts:["A) Adductor canal","B) Popliteal fossa","C) Saphenous opening (fossa ovalis)","D) Medial malleolus"], ans:"C" }, { n:189, q:"Which nerve supplies the skin of the medial thigh and is the sensory branch of the femoral nerve?", opts:["A) Obturator nerve","B) Genitofemoral nerve","C) Saphenous nerve","D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve"], ans:"C" }, { n:190, q:"The sciatic nerve is formed from roots:", opts:["A) L2–L4","B) L3–L5","C) L4, L5, S1, S2, S3","D) L1–L4"], ans:"C" }, { n:191, q:"A fracture of the neck of fibula may damage which nerve causing foot drop?", opts:["A) Tibial nerve","B) Sciatic nerve","C) Common peroneal (fibular) nerve","D) Superficial peroneal nerve"], ans:"C" }, { n:192, q:"The tendon calcaneus (Achilles tendon) is the combined tendon of:", opts:["A) Soleus alone","B) Gastrocnemius alone","C) Gastrocnemius and soleus","D) Peroneus longus and tibialis posterior"], ans:"C" }, { n:193, q:"The posterior tibial artery gives rise to which branch before passing behind the medial malleolus?", opts:["A) Anterior tibial artery","B) Fibular (peroneal) artery","C) Popliteal artery","D) Sural artery"], ans:"B" }, { n:194, q:"The thoracic duct begins as the cisterna chyli at the level of:", opts:["A) T10","B) T12","C) L1–L2","D) L3"], ans:"C" }, { n:195, q:"The spleen is a lymphoid organ located in the:", opts:["A) Right hypochondriac region","B) Left hypochondriac region","C) Epigastric region","D) Left lumbar region"], ans:"B" }, { n:196, q:"Referred pain from the diaphragm is felt in the:", opts:["A) Epigastric region","B) Umbilical region","C) Shoulder tip (C3–C5 dermatome)","D) Right iliac fossa"], ans:"C" }, { n:197, q:"The transpyloric plane (of Addison) lies at the level of:", opts:["A) T12","B) L1","C) L2","D) L3"], ans:"B" }, { n:198, q:"The umbilicus is at the level of:", opts:["A) L1","B) L3–L4 (intervertebral disc)","C) L2","D) L4–L5"], ans:"B" }, { n:199, q:"In neck of femur fracture in the elderly, the limb is typically held in:", opts:["A) Adduction and internal rotation","B) Adduction and external rotation","C) Abduction and external rotation","D) Flexion and internal rotation"], ans:"C" }, { n:200, q:"The nutrient artery of the tibia is a branch of the:", opts:["A) Anterior tibial artery","B) Popliteal artery","C) Posterior tibial artery","D) Peroneal artery"], ans:"C" }, ] } ]; const children = []; // Title children.push(new Paragraph({ text: "KMU-Style Ultra High Yield MCQs", heading: HeadingLevel.TITLE, alignment: AlignmentType.CENTER, spacing: { after: 100 } })); children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [new TextRun({ text: "GENERAL ANATOMY — First Year MBBS", bold: true, size: 28 })], alignment: AlignmentType.CENTER, spacing: { after: 80 } })); children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [new TextRun({ text: "Author: Qazi Musa", bold: true, size: 24 })], alignment: AlignmentType.CENTER, spacing: { after: 80 } })); children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [new TextRun({ text: "Total: 200 MCQs | KMU Pattern | All Topics Covered", size: 22, italics: true })], alignment: AlignmentType.CENTER, spacing: { after: 200 } })); children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [new TextRun({ text: "Source: THIEME Atlas of General Anatomy & Musculoskeletal System; Gray's Anatomy for Students", size: 18, italics: true, color: "555555" })], alignment: AlignmentType.CENTER, spacing: { after: 400 } })); // Generate questions for (const section of sections_data) { children.push(new Paragraph({ text: section.title, heading: HeadingLevel.HEADING_1, spacing: { before: 400, after: 200 }, border: { bottom: { style: BorderStyle.SINGLE, size: 6, color: "2E74B5" } } })); for (const q of section.qs) { // Question stem children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [ new TextRun({ text: `Q${q.n}. `, bold: true, size: 22 }), new TextRun({ text: q.q, bold: false, size: 22 }) ], spacing: { before: 160, after: 60 }, indent: { left: 0 } })); // Options for (const opt of q.opts) { const letter = opt.charAt(0); const isCorrect = letter === q.ans; children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [ new TextRun({ text: " " + opt + (isCorrect ? " ✓" : ""), bold: isCorrect, color: isCorrect ? "006400" : "000000", size: 20 }) ], spacing: { before: 30, after: 30 }, indent: { left: 360 } })); } } } // Answer key summary children.push(new Paragraph({ text: "QUICK ANSWER KEY", heading: HeadingLevel.HEADING_1, spacing: { before: 600, after: 200 } })); const answerLines = []; let line = ""; let count = 0; for (const section of sections_data) { for (const q of section.qs) { if (count % 10 === 0 && count > 0) answerLines.push(line.trim()); line += `Q${q.n}:${q.ans} `; count++; } } if (line.trim()) answerLines.push(line.trim()); for (const al of answerLines) { children.push(new Paragraph({ children: [new TextRun({ text: al, font: "Courier New", size: 18 })], spacing: { before: 40, after: 40 } })); } const doc = new Document({ creator: "Qazi Musa", title: "KMU General Anatomy 200 MCQs", description: "Ultra High Yield MCQs for KMU First Year MBBS General Anatomy", sections: [{ children }] }); const { Packer } = require('docx'); Packer.toBuffer(doc).then(buffer => { require('fs').writeFileSync('/home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs.docx', buffer); console.log("Done! File written."); }); JSEOF node generate_mcqs.js
cd /home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs && sed -i 's/^const { Packer } = require.*$//' generate_mcqs.js && node generate_mcqs.js
cd /home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs && python3 -c " content = open('generate_mcqs.js').read() content = content.replace(\"const { Packer } = require('docx');\n\", '') open('generate_mcqs2.js', 'w').write(content) print('fixed') " && node generate_mcqs2.js
python3 /home/daytona/skills/docx/scripts/office/validate.py /home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs.docx
ls -lh /home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs.docx && python3 -c " import zipfile with zipfile.ZipFile('/home/daytona/workspace/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs/KMU_General_Anatomy_200_MCQs.docx') as z: names = z.namelist() print('Valid ZIP/DOCX - files inside:', names[:5]) "
✅ KMU-Style 200 Ultra High Yield MCQs — General Anatomy
Author: Qazi Musa | First Year MBBS
KMU General Anatomy 200 MCQs
Word Document · DOCX
Topic-wise Distribution (200 MCQs)
| Section | Topic | Week | MCQs |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General Anatomy (terms, muscles, vessels, nerves) | 1–2 | 30 |
| 2 | Bones & Cartilage | 3–4 | 20 |
| 3 | Thoracic Wall, Mediastinum, Heart, Lungs | 5–8 | 40 |
| 4 | GIT — Abdominal wall, Inguinal canal, Gut organs, Liver, Pancreas, Kidney | 9–14 | 40 |
| 5 | Pelvic Walls | 15 | 15 |
| 6 | Pelvic Cavity (Male & Female viscera) | 16 | 15 |
| 7 | Mixed Clinical & Applied (all topics) | All | 20 |
| 8 | Final High Yield Bank | All | 20 |
Sample MCQs (Previews)
- A) Along the inferior border of the rib above
- B) Along the superior border of the rib below
- C) In the costal groove along the inferior border of each rib ✓
- D) In the midcostal position
- A) Deep inguinal ring
- B) Lateral to inferior epigastric vessels
- C) Hesselbach's triangle (medial to inferior epigastric vessels) ✓
- D) Femoral ring
- A) Portal vein
- B) Hepatic artery proper
- C) Bile duct
- D) Hepatic vein ✓
- A) Pelvic brim
- B) Level of the uterine cervix ("water under the bridge") ✓
- C) Bladder neck
- D) Ischial spine
KMU Format Features Used:
- Single best answer (A, B, C, D) — 4 options each
- Correct answer marked with ✓ in green (in Word file)
- Clinical vignette-style applied questions included
- "EXCEPT" type negative questions included
- High-yield distractors reflecting common exam traps
- Covers all syllabus learning outcomes (C1–C4 cognitive levels)
5,6,7,8 week Hain or han 30 pages main in ko detail ka Sath smajao Pdf banao documents pdf TOPIC: THORACIC WALLS Structures of the thoracic wall Describe the structure of thoracic wall in detail C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 17 Dorsalspine(Vert brae), costal cartilage and Ribs Discuss the surface anatomy of dorsal spine, sternum, costal cartilages and ribs. C2 18 Sternum Explain the normal movement of the chest wall in the process of aeration of the lungs. C2 19 Intercostal Muscles Explain origin ,insertion and action of muscles of thoracic wall C2 20 Intercostal Nerves Explain intercostal nerves C2 21 Diaphragm Discuss structure of diaphragm in detail C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 2 MCQ’s 3 22 Blood supply of thoracic wall Explain blood supply of thoracic wall C2 23 Week-6 Joints of thorax Discuss in detail functional movements across the joints of thorac wall C2 24 Surface anatomy Locate origin ,insertion of intercostal muscles indpendently P4 Demo 2 OSPE 9 25 Identify bony landmarks of dorsal spine independently P4 26 Observe thoracic and abdominal wall movements P1 27 Identify types of ribs independently P4 28 Protocols Show respect towards subject while observing thoracic wall movements A Role Play 29 Week-7 Mediastinum/Pleura Describe s the general arrangement of the thoracic viscera and their relationship to one another and to the chest wall. C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 30 Discuss structures related to anterior ,posterior superior and inferior mediastinum C2 31 Trachea/Lungs Distinguish thoracic cavity, pleural cavity (pleural space), pericardial cavity, and cost diaphragmatic recess. C2 32 Bronchopul-monary seg- ments Explain broncho pulmonary segment as functional unit of lung C2 33 Pericardium Explain the structure of heart, including its layers ,cham- bers conducting system, C2 Heart – Its blood supply, venous drainage & nerve supply Explain blood supply and nerve supply of hreart C2 Interactive Lecture/SGD 4 MCQ’s 6 35 Large veins of thorax, supe- rior and inferior vena cava. Pulmonary veins brachioce- phalic veins. Large arteries of aorta Explain the structure and location of largest blood vessels within the thoracic cavity C2 36 Applied anatomy Discuss different pathological conditions related to lungs and heart C2
mkdir -p /home/daytona/workspace/thoracic_anatomy_weeks5_8 && python3 -c "import reportlab; print(reportlab.Version)"