You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 25-year-old man with a past medical history of constipation and fibromyalgia presents to the emergency department with generalized malaise and severe diarrhea. The patient states that he has not felt well for the past 24 hours and his symptoms are no longer tolerable. He denies taking any medications or illicit drugs and states he is generally healthy. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, pulse is 107/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates an ill appearing young man. Physical exam is notable for rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and piloerection. The patient’s pupils are dilated and reactive to light. During placement of an ultrasound guided IV, multiple scars are noted in the antecubital fossa, and it is noted that it is very difficult to place an IV in this patient. During the exam, he begins actively vomiting. Which of the following could be an appropriate treatment for this patient’s symptoms? Options: A) Clonidine B) Diazepam taper C) Haloperidol and diphenhydramine D) Oseltamivir Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.