I have solid material. Here is a full set of practice questions built from current NCLEX-RN format standards, incorporating content from NursesLabs, GoodNurse 2026, and SimpleNursing, all written in NGN-style stems.
NCLEX-RN Practice Questions: Delegation & Priority Setting
30 questions with full rationales - NGN format (2026 standards)
PART A - DELEGATION (Who Does What?)
Question 1
The RN is caring for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which task is most appropriate to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Administering a scheduled oral antibiotic to a stable patient
B. Measuring and recording urine output for a patient post-Foley removal
C. Reinforcing discharge teaching about a new insulin regimen
D. Performing a focused assessment on a patient reporting new chest pain
Answer: B
Rationale: Measuring and recording urine output is a non-invasive, predictable, stable task that falls within UAP scope. Oral medication administration belongs to the LPN/RN. Discharge teaching and assessment always belong to the RN - these require nursing judgment and evaluation.
Question 2
A registered nurse is delegating tasks to an LPN and a UAP. Which assignment is appropriate for the LPN?
A. Developing the care plan for a newly admitted patient with COPD
B. Performing the initial assessment on a postoperative patient just returned from the PACU
C. Changing a simple wound dressing on a patient with a stable, healing surgical incision
D. Evaluating whether a patient's pain medication is effective after administration
Answer: C
Rationale: Changing a routine dressing on a stable wound is within LPN scope. Developing care plans, performing initial assessments, and evaluating the effectiveness of interventions all require professional nursing judgment and belong to the RN.
Question 3
The RN is charge nurse and receives a report about these four patients. Which patient should the RN personally assess first before delegating care?
A. A patient with COPD, SpO2 94% on 2L O2 at baseline, requesting a bath
B. A post-thyroidectomy patient (2 hours post-op) now reporting hoarseness and stridor
C. A patient with hip replacement (day 3) reporting pain 6/10, vital signs stable
D. A patient with a colostomy (day 2) who needs discharge teaching later today
Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor after thyroidectomy signals laryngospasm or recurrent laryngeal nerve damage - an immediate airway emergency. This cannot be delegated; the RN must assess and prepare to secure the airway immediately. All other patients are stable or have needs that can be addressed later. Source: GoodNurse.com 2026
Question 4
Which statement by a UAP indicates a correct understanding of delegation boundaries?
A. "I can take vital signs on any patient, including those just transferred from the ICU."
B. "I can ambulate a post-op patient if the RN confirms the orders first."
C. "I can reinforce the nurse's teaching about wound care after the nurse has already taught the patient."
D. "I can take vital signs and inform the RN if anything seems unusual to me."
Answer: B
Rationale: Ambulating a stable post-op patient is appropriate for a UAP when orders are confirmed and the RN has assessed the patient. Option A is incorrect - recently transferred ICU patients are unstable, not appropriate for UAP-level monitoring. Option C is incorrect - a UAP cannot reinforce teaching (that requires nursing judgment). Option D sounds reasonable but is incomplete - "seems unusual" is not an adequate safety net; the RN must define which values to report.
Question 5
The RN is delegating morning care assignments. Which patient should NOT be assigned to the UAP for vital signs?
A. A 68-year-old post-op day 2 cholecystectomy patient with stable vitals
B. A 55-year-old with pneumonia responding to antibiotics, afebrile x24 hours
C. A 72-year-old admitted 1 hour ago with new onset confusion and slurred speech
D. A 45-year-old with Type 2 diabetes, fasting glucose 180, awaiting breakfast
Answer: C
Rationale: New onset confusion and slurred speech are red-flag neurological symptoms suggesting possible stroke. This patient is unstable and requires immediate RN assessment - not UAP monitoring. The other patients are stable with predictable, routinized needs.
Question 6
Which nursing action can the RN appropriately delegate to an LPN on a medical unit? Select all that apply.
A. Administering IV push furosemide to a patient in fluid overload
B. Administering scheduled oral medications to stable patients
C. Completing the admission assessment for a new patient with chest pain
D. Reinforcing (not initiating) teaching about a low-sodium diet
E. Monitoring a stable patient's wound drain output and reporting to the RN
F. Titrating a heparin drip based on aPTT results
Answers: B, D, E
Rationale:
- B - Scheduled oral meds to stable patients = within LPN scope
- D - Reinforcing (not initiating) existing teaching = LPN scope; initial teaching belongs to RN
- E - Monitoring and reporting drain output on a stable patient = LPN scope
- A - IV push medications are not in LPN scope in most states
- C - Initial assessment is an RN-only responsibility
- F - Titrating IV drips requires clinical judgment; RN only
Question 7
A patient with active C. difficile needs transport to CT scan. The RN should:
A. Personally transport the patient to maintain infection control standards
B. Delegate transport to the UAP after ensuring contact precautions are in place
C. Call the physician before the patient can leave the unit
D. Postpone the CT until the C. diff resolves
Answer: B
Rationale: Transporting a patient to CT is a non-judgment task that a UAP can safely perform. The RN's responsibility is to coordinate care and ensure contact precautions (gown + gloves) are applied - which is appropriate to do before handoff. There is no reason to call the physician or delay medically indicated imaging. Source: GoodNurse.com 2026
Question 8
A nurse manager observes the RN delegating the following task. Which delegation requires immediate intervention?
A. RN asks the UAP to obtain a routine fingerstick blood glucose on a stable diabetic patient
B. RN asks the LPN to administer scheduled PO acetaminophen to a post-op day 3 patient
C. RN asks the UAP to perform a focused respiratory assessment on a patient with new dyspnea
D. RN asks the LPN to reinforce walking technique after the RN completed initial physical therapy teaching
Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment requires professional nursing judgment and cannot be delegated to a UAP under any circumstances. "New dyspnea" indicates a change in condition - an unstable, unpredictable finding. The RN must personally assess this patient. All other delegations are appropriate.
PART B - PRIORITY SETTING (Which Patient First?)
Question 9
The RN on a medical floor is notified of the following situations at the same time. Which requires the nurse's IMMEDIATE attention?
A. A patient with heart failure who gained 1.5 kg overnight and has 2+ pedal edema
B. A patient with COPD whose SpO2 dropped from 94% to 86% on 2L O2, with increased respiratory effort
C. A patient with hypertension whose blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg (baseline is 155-165/90-95)
D. A patient with chronic low back pain requesting their scheduled morphine 30 minutes early
Answer: B
Rationale: SpO2 of 86% with increased respiratory effort is acute respiratory compromise - the highest priority. This is a new, worsening change from the patient's baseline. Heart failure with chronic edema and weight gain needs prompt attention but is not immediately life-threatening. The hypertensive patient is at their baseline. Controlled pain management can wait.
Question 10
The RN is assigned four postoperative patients. Which patient should be assessed FIRST?
A. Post-appendectomy day 1, pain 5/10, tolerating clear liquids
B. Post-total knee replacement day 2, requesting assistance to ambulate
C. Post-cholecystectomy day 1, temperature 38.1°C (100.6°F), mild incisional pain
D. Post-abdominal hysterectomy, just returned from the PACU 20 minutes ago, BP 88/54 mmHg, HR 118
Answer: D
Rationale: A fresh post-op patient (20 minutes from PACU) with BP 88/54 and HR 118 indicates possible hemorrhagic shock - this is the highest priority. Newly returned PACU patients are always high-risk; hemodynamic instability (hypotension + tachycardia) demands immediate RN assessment. The other patients are stable with expected post-op findings.
Question 11
The RN receives a call from the UAP about a patient with a new cast on their left forearm. The UAP reports the patient has severe pain, pale fingers, and states they "can't feel" their fingertips. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the PRN opioid analgesic ordered for cast pain
B. Elevate the extremity above heart level and reassess in 30 minutes
C. Immediately assess the patient for signs of compartment syndrome and notify the provider
D. Document the finding and add it to the end-of-shift report
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain, pallor, and paresthesia (the "Ps" of neurovascular compromise) after casting are classic signs of compartment syndrome - a limb-threatening emergency. The nurse must assess immediately and escalate to the provider. Giving pain medication without addressing the cause delays treatment and can mask worsening symptoms. Elevating above heart level is actually contraindicated in compartment syndrome (reduces perfusion further). Source: GoodNurse.com 2026
Question 12
The nurse is caring for a patient with Type 1 diabetes on an insulin drip for DKA. The UAP reports the blood glucose is 58 mg/dL and the patient is diaphoretic. The priority action is:
A. Slow the insulin drip rate and reassess glucose in 1 hour
B. Stop the insulin drip, treat the hypoglycemia per protocol immediately, and notify the provider
C. Ask the UAP to give the patient orange juice
D. Document the finding and continue current management
Answer: B
Rationale: BG of 58 mg/dL with diaphoresis = symptomatic hypoglycemia, which is immediately dangerous (brain requires continuous glucose). Stop the insulin drip first, treat hypoglycemia per protocol (likely IV dextrose in a DKA patient who may have altered consciousness), and notify the provider. The UAP should not independently administer oral intake without RN assessment. This is time-critical. Source: GoodNurse.com 2026
Question 13
The nurse receives morning report on five patients. Using priority-setting principles, rank these patients from HIGHEST to LOWEST priority for initial assessment.
- Patient with HIV/AIDS, CD4 count 85, temperature 102.4°F (39.1°C), new cough
- Patient with stable CHF, SpO2 94% on 2L O2 at their usual baseline
- Patient with schizophrenia expressing active suicidal ideation with a specific plan
- Patient post-laparoscopic appendectomy day 1, pain 4/10, tolerating diet
- Patient in a new cast with pain 8/10, toes cool and pale
Correct order: 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
Rationale:
- 5 first - Cool, pale toes in a new cast = possible compartment syndrome, limb-threatening emergency requiring immediate vascular assessment
- 3 second - Active suicidal ideation with a plan = immediate safety risk, 1:1 precautions needed now
- 1 third - Fever in an immunocompromised patient (CD4 <200 = AIDS) with new cough = possible opportunistic infection / sepsis risk; needs rapid assessment
- 2 fourth - Stable CHF at baseline; needs attention but not urgent
- 4 last - Expected post-op day 1 findings; stable and predictable
Question 14
The charge RN receives calls from three staff nurses simultaneously. Which call takes priority?
A. "My patient with COPD has a respiratory rate of 22 and SpO2 92% - she says she feels 'about the same.'"
B. "My patient just had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure - it stopped 90 seconds ago and he's now post-ictal but breathing."
C. "My patient with heart failure is reporting sudden onset chest pain 8/10 and diaphoresis."
D. "My patient's IV infiltrated and the site is swollen - she's due for her next antibiotic dose."
Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden chest pain with diaphoresis in a cardiac patient = potential acute MI or serious cardiac event - the highest priority. The post-ictal patient is actively being monitored and breathing; the airway is patent. The COPD patient is at their baseline. IV infiltration is uncomfortable but not life-threatening.
Question 15
The nurse enters a patient's room and finds them unresponsive, not breathing, with no palpable carotid pulse. After calling for help, what is the FIRST action?
A. Apply supplemental oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
C. Attach the cardiac monitor to determine the rhythm
D. Obtain IV access and prepare IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: For an unresponsive, apneic, pulseless patient - start CPR immediately with chest compressions. Per current AHA guidelines (CAB sequence: Compressions first, then Airway, then Breathing), compressions take priority over all other interventions. Oxygenation and monitoring are important but come after initiating compressions.
PART C - COMBINED DELEGATION + PRIORITY (NGN-Style Scenarios)
Question 16 - Matrix Grid Style
The nurse is caring for four patients at the start of the shift. For each patient, indicate whether the action should be performed by the RN, LPN, or UAP.
| Patient / Task | RN | LPN | UAP |
|---|
| Patient with new onset confusion - perform initial neurological assessment | | | |
| Stable patient with UTI - administer scheduled oral trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole | | | |
| Post-op day 2 hip replacement - assist with ambulation to hallway | | | |
| CHF patient gaining 2 kg overnight - interpret significance and call provider | | | |
| Stable wound healing normally - reinforce dressing while RN is occupied | | | |
Answers:
| Task | Answer |
|---|
| Neurological assessment (new onset confusion) | RN - Initial assessment, change in condition |
| Scheduled oral antibiotic (stable patient) | LPN - Routine oral medication |
| Assist with ambulation (stable, day 2) | UAP - Non-invasive, predictable |
| Interpret weight gain + call provider | RN - Requires nursing judgment and clinical decision-making |
| Reinforce stable wound dressing | LPN - Routine dressing on stable, predictable wound |
Question 17 - Unfolding Case Study (NGN Format)
Read the following scenario. Answer questions 17a through 17c.
A 78-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and CHF is admitted for diuresis. Current medications include furosemide 40 mg IV daily, digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily, and warfarin. This morning's labs: K+ 3.1, INR 3.4, digoxin level 1.9 ng/mL, Na+ 138. VS: BP 118/72, HR 58, RR 16, SpO2 96%.
17a. The nurse reviews the lab results. Which finding requires the MOST urgent action?
A. Na+ 138 mEq/L
B. K+ 3.1 mEq/L
C. INR 3.4
D. Digoxin level 1.9 ng/mL
Answer: B
Rationale: K+ 3.1 = hypokalemia (below normal 3.5-5.0). This is MOST urgent in this patient because hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity - even a digoxin level within the therapeutic range (0.5-2.0 ng/mL) becomes dangerous when potassium is low. Combined with HR of 58, this patient is at risk for serious cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate potassium replacement is needed.
17b. Which actions should the nurse take at this time? Select all that apply.
A. Administer the digoxin as scheduled
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider
C. Administer the scheduled furosemide as ordered
D. Report the low potassium and hold furosemide pending provider clarification
E. Apply supplemental oxygen
F. Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitoring
Answers: B, D, F
Rationale:
- B - Hold digoxin: HR is 58 (below 60 = hold), plus hypokalemia increases toxicity risk
- D - Furosemide (loop diuretic) will further lower potassium - hold and clarify
- F - Cardiac monitoring is prudent given hypokalemia + digoxin risk for arrhythmia
- A - Incorrect: never give digoxin when HR <60
- C - Incorrect: furosemide worsens hypokalemia
- E - SpO2 is 96% and patient is not in distress; O2 not indicated
17c. The provider is notified. Which task can the RN appropriately delegate to the LPN?
A. Performing a reassessment of the patient's apical pulse after 30 minutes
B. Administering IV potassium chloride per the new provider order
C. Educating the patient about high-potassium foods to eat at home
D. Recording the patient's intake and output for the past 8 hours
Answer: D
Rationale: Recording I&O is a documentation/monitoring task appropriate for LPN. IV potassium administration requires careful RN-level monitoring (cardiac monitoring required; extravasation risk). Post-intervention reassessment and discharge education require RN judgment.
Question 18
The nurse receives a call from the UAP: "Mr. Santos in 412 is saying he feels like his heart is 'fluttering' and he looks pale and sweaty." The nurse's FIRST action is:
A. Tell the UAP to obtain the patient's vital signs and report back
B. Go to the patient's room immediately and assess the patient
C. Call the provider to report the change in condition
D. Ask the UAP to apply a cardiac monitor
Answer: B
Rationale: New onset palpitations with pallor and diaphoresis indicate a potentially serious cardiac event. The nurse must personally assess the patient immediately - you cannot direct care for an unstable, potentially deteriorating patient through a UAP. Calling the provider before assessing provides incomplete information. The UAP should not apply or interpret a cardiac monitor. Assess first, then escalate.
Question 19
The nurse is preparing to make assignments for the shift. A float nurse from the oncology unit is working the medical-surgical floor. Which patient is MOST appropriate to assign to the float nurse?
A. A patient with new-onset sepsis requiring a vasopressor titration
B. A post-op patient 4 hours after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
C. A stable patient with community-acquired pneumonia on oral antibiotics, day 3
D. A patient with end-stage renal disease awaiting dialysis access placement today
Answer: C
Rationale: Float nurses should be assigned the most stable patients with the most predictable needs. A patient with CAP on oral antibiotics (day 3) is stable and predictable - safe for a float. The sepsis patient (vasopressor titration), fresh post-CABG (complex monitoring), and ESRD patient awaiting an invasive procedure all require specialized, high-level nursing judgment that should not be assigned to a nurse unfamiliar with the unit's protocols.
Question 20 - Drop-Down Cloze Style (NGN)
Complete the following sentence by selecting the most appropriate response for each blank.
The nurse enters the room of a patient who had a total thyroidectomy 3 hours ago and finds the patient is experiencing muscle twitching, tingling around the mouth, and a positive Chvostek's sign. The nurse recognizes this as __________ and the priority intervention is __________.
Blank 1 options: A) hypocalcemia, B) hyperkalemia, C) hypomagnesemia, D) hyponatremia
Blank 2 options: A) administer calcium gluconate IV as ordered and notify provider, B) apply oxygen and call a rapid response, C) reposition the patient and reassess in 15 minutes, D) administer IV magnesium sulfate
Answers: A (hypocalcemia) and A (administer calcium gluconate)
Rationale: After thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands causes hypocalcemia. Chvostek's sign (facial twitch on tapping the cheek near the facial nerve) and Trousseau's sign (carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation) are classic findings. The immediate intervention is IV calcium gluconate per provider order. Calcium gluconate should always be at the bedside post-thyroidectomy. This is also the antidote to magnesium sulfate toxicity.
PART D - QUICK-FIRE SCENARIOS (10 Questions, Rapid Review)
Q21. A patient with active suicidal ideation states, "I have a plan and I know how to do it." The FIRST action is:
→ Initiate 1:1 monitoring and ensure immediate safety (remove access to means; notify provider). Do not leave the patient alone.
Q22. The UAP reports a patient's BP is 210/118. The nurse's first action is:
→ Go assess the patient immediately. Determine if there are signs of hypertensive emergency (headache, visual changes, chest pain, confusion). Then notify the provider.
Q23. The RN is preparing to do discharge teaching for a new diabetic patient. The LPN offers to do it. The appropriate response is:
→ RN must perform initial teaching. LPN can reinforce teaching that has already been provided, but initial patient education belongs to the RN.
Q24. Four patients need PRN medications. Who gets medicated FIRST?
- A. Pain 8/10 post-op day 1 (stable, VS normal)
- B. Chest pain 6/10, diaphoretic, HR 110
- C. Headache 5/10, BP 138/86, stable
- D. Nausea after chemotherapy
→ B. Chest pain with diaphoresis and tachycardia = cardiac emergency, not just pain management.
Q25. Which patient can be safely discharged to create a bed for an incoming emergency?
- A. Patient 2 hours post-op from knee replacement
- B. Patient with pneumonia who is afebrile x24 hrs, SpO2 96% on RA, tolerating PO
- C. Patient with new insulin regimen who hasn't completed diabetes teaching
- D. Patient awaiting cardiac catheterization tomorrow
→ B. Medically stable, treatment complete, tolerating oral intake. All others have unmet needs that require continued inpatient monitoring or care.
Q26. The nurse is about to give digoxin. The apical pulse is 56. The action is:
→ Hold the digoxin and notify the provider. The threshold is HR <60 - never administer digoxin when the heart rate is below 60 bpm.
Q27. Which patient should be seen LAST?
- A. Post-op patient with fever 38.8°C on day 1
- B. Patient with COPD at their baseline, requesting water
- C. Patient reporting sudden vision loss in one eye
- D. Patient on a heparin drip with aPTT result just returned
→ B. The stable COPD patient requesting water has the least urgent need. Sudden monocular vision loss (C) is a possible stroke/retinal emergency. Post-op fever (A) needs assessment. aPTT result (D) may require drip titration.
Q28. The nurse can delegate taking vital signs to the UAP for which patient?
- A. A patient 30 minutes post-cardiac catheterization
- B. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation
- C. A patient with stable hypertension, day 3 of admission, awaiting discharge
- D. A patient just transferred from the PACU
→ C. Stable, predictable, nearing discharge. All others represent unstable or newly changed conditions requiring RN-level monitoring.
Q29. Which is the RN's priority action when a patient on a ventilator sets off the high-pressure alarm?
→ Assess the patient first (not the machine). Check for coughing, biting the tube, secretions, or worsening respiratory distress. If unable to identify and correct the cause quickly, manually ventilate with a bag-valve-mask and call for help.
Q30. The RN's patient load includes: a post-op bowel resection day 1, a patient with a UTI on IV antibiotics, a patient with stable angina awaiting stress test, and a new admission with uncontrolled blood glucose of 540 mg/dL and Kussmaul respirations. Who is the HIGHEST priority?
→ The new admission with BG 540 and Kussmaul respirations - this is DKA, a life-threatening metabolic emergency. Kussmaul (deep, labored) respirations indicate severe metabolic acidosis. Immediate IV fluid resuscitation, insulin, and electrolyte monitoring are required.
Strategy Summary Card
ALWAYS RN: Assess · Teach · Evaluate · Unstable patients
New symptoms · IV push meds · Care planning
Titrate drips · First dose of new meds · Blood
LPN CAN DO: Routine oral/SQ/IM meds · Reinforce teaching
Stable dressing changes · Monitor & report
Routine procedures (predictable, stable)
UAP CAN DO: Vitals (stable patients) · Bathing/hygiene
Ambulation (confirmed orders) · I&O recording
Specimen collection · Positioning
PRIORITY TRIGGERS: Stridor · SpO2 <90% acutely · HR >120 or <50
Chest pain + diaphoresis · BP extremes with symptoms
New confusion · Active bleeding · BG <70 or >400
Fever in neutropenia · Suicidal plan · Limb pallor/pain
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