You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 66-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction presents to your primary care office with complaints of dyspnea on exertion and swollen feet and ankles. On exam, you note an elevated JVP and 2+ pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. What is the most likely explanation for this patient's lower extremity edema? Options: A) Increase in capillary pressure B) Decrease in plasma proteins C) Increase in capillary permeability D) Increase in interstitial fluid pressure Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.