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Here are 100 ENT Flashcards for MBBS/MD level, covering all ENT topics:

🩺 ENT FLASHCARDS — MBBS/MD Level

🔵 EAR — Anatomy & Physiology

Q1. What are the three ossicles of the middle ear in order from lateral to medial? A: Malleus → Incus → Stapes

Q2. Which muscle is attached to the malleus? A: Tensor tympani (supplied by the medial pterygoid nerve, branch of V3)

Q3. Which muscle is attached to the stapes? A: Stapedius (supplied by the facial nerve - CN VII)

Q4. What is the nerve supply of the external auditory canal? A: Auriculotemporal nerve (V3), Vagus (Arnold's nerve), Facial nerve, Lesser occipital nerve

Q5. What is the function of the Eustachian tube? A: Ventilation and pressure equalization of the middle ear; opens during swallowing and yawning

Q6. What is the length of the external auditory canal? A: ~2.5 cm (outer 1/3 cartilaginous, inner 2/3 bony)

Q7. What is the most common frequency range of human speech? A: 500 Hz to 3000 Hz

Q8. The oval window connects the middle ear to which structure? A: Scala vestibuli of the cochlea

Q9. What is the scala media (cochlear duct) filled with? A: Endolymph (high K+, low Na+)

Q10. Which part of the basilar membrane responds to high-frequency sounds? A: Base of the cochlea

🔵 EAR — Hearing Tests

Q11. In Rinne's test, what does BC > AC indicate? A: Conductive hearing loss (Rinne negative)

Q12. In Weber's test, where does sound lateralize in unilateral conductive hearing loss? A: To the affected (diseased) ear

Q13. In Weber's test, where does sound lateralize in unilateral sensorineural hearing loss? A: To the normal (unaffected) ear

Q14. What is the gold standard test for objective hearing assessment in neonates? A: Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE) + ABR (Auditory Brainstem Response)

Q15. What does a "B-type" tympanogram indicate? A: Flat curve - middle ear effusion or tympanic membrane perforation

Q16. What does an "A-type" tympanogram indicate? A: Normal middle ear pressure and compliance

Q17. What does a "C-type" tympanogram indicate? A: Eustachian tube dysfunction (negative middle ear pressure)

Q18. What is the speech reception threshold (SRT)? A: The softest level at which a patient can correctly identify 50% of spondee words

Q19. What is the SISI test used for? A: To detect cochlear pathology - tests Short Increment Sensitivity Index; high score (>70%) = cochlear lesion

Q20. What is the Stenger test used for? A: To detect unilateral non-organic (functional/feigned) hearing loss

🔵 EAR — Otitis Media & Complications

Q21. What is the most common causative organism in acute otitis media? A: Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common), followed by H. influenzae

Q22. What is the hallmark sign of acute mastoiditis? A: Post-auricular swelling with forward and downward displacement of the pinna

Q23. What is a cholesteatoma? A: An abnormal collection of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear or mastoid

Q24. Which type of tympanic membrane perforation is associated with cholesteatoma? A: Attic (pars flaccida) perforation

Q25. What is the Schwartze sign? A: Reddish blush through the tympanic membrane seen in otosclerosis, indicating vascular changes in the cochlear promontory

Q26. What is the most dreaded intracranial complication of chronic otitis media? A: Meningitis (most common intracranial complication)

Q27. What is Bezold's abscess? A: Pus from mastoiditis tracks below the digastric muscle into the neck, presenting as a swelling in the upper neck

Q28. What is the safe type of CSOM characterized by? A: Central (pars tensa) perforation, mucoid discharge, no cholesteatoma - also called tubotympanic type

Q29. What is the unsafe type of CSOM characterized by? A: Attic or posterosuperior perforation, foul-smelling discharge, cholesteatoma - also called atticoantral type

Q30. What is Gradenigo's syndrome? A: Triad of otorrhea, retro-orbital pain (V nerve), and lateral rectus palsy (VI nerve palsy) - due to petrous apicitis

🔵 EAR — Sensorineural & Other Conditions

Q31. What is the classic triad of Meniere's disease? A: Episodic vertigo + fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss + tinnitus (low-frequency)

Q32. What is the pathological basis of Meniere's disease? A: Endolymphatic hydrops (distension of the endolymphatic compartment)

Q33. What is the first-line medical management of Meniere's disease? A: Low-salt diet, diuretics (e.g., acetazolamide), betahistine

Q34. What is the most common cause of sudden sensorineural hearing loss? A: Viral labyrinthitis (most common); also vascular occlusion

Q35. What is the treatment of sudden SNHL? A: Systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisolone) - within 2 weeks of onset

Q36. What is otosclerosis? A: Abnormal bone remodeling around the oval window causing fixation of the stapes footplate

Q37. What type of hearing loss is seen in otosclerosis? A: Conductive hearing loss (or mixed if cochlear involvement)

Q38. What is Carhart's notch? A: A dip in bone conduction at 2000 Hz on audiogram - seen in otosclerosis, is a mechanical artifact

Q39. What virus is associated with Ramsay Hunt syndrome? A: Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) - reactivation in the geniculate ganglion

Q40. What is the clinical triad of Ramsay Hunt syndrome? A: Facial nerve palsy + herpetic vesicles in the ear (auricle/EAC) + hearing loss/vertigo

🔵 NOSE — Anatomy & Physiology

Q41. What are the boundaries of the ostiomeatal complex (OMC)? A: Region in the middle meatus where the maxillary, frontal, and anterior ethmoid sinuses drain; bounded by uncinate process, ethmoid bulla, and middle turbinate

Q42. Which sinus drains into the superior meatus? A: Posterior ethmoid sinuses

Q43. Which sinuses drain into the middle meatus? A: Maxillary, frontal, anterior ethmoidal sinuses (via the ostiomeatal complex)

Q44. What is the blood supply of Little's area (Kiesselbach's plexus)? A: Anastomosis of anterior ethmoidal artery, sphenopalatine artery, greater palatine artery, and superior labial artery

Q45. What is the most common site of epistaxis? A: Little's area (Kiesselbach's plexus) on the anterior nasal septum

Q46. What is the nerve responsible for smell (olfaction)? A: Olfactory nerve (CN I)

Q47. What structures make up the lateral wall of the nose? A: Superior, middle, and inferior turbinates (conchae) with corresponding meatuses

Q48. Where does the nasolacrimal duct drain? A: Into the inferior meatus (under the inferior turbinate)

Q49. What is the sphenopalatine ganglion? A: Parasympathetic ganglion in the pterygopalatine fossa; supplies glands of the nose and palate

Q50. What is the cartilaginous framework of the nasal septum? A: Quadrilateral (septal) cartilage anteriorly; vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid posteriorly

🔵 NOSE — Diseases

Q51. What is the triad of Samter's triad (Aspirin triad)? A: Aspirin sensitivity + nasal polyps + bronchial asthma

Q52. What is the most common type of nasal polyp? A: Ethmoidal polyp (bilateral, arising from ethmoid sinuses)

Q53. What is an antrochoanal polyp? A: A unilateral polyp arising from the maxillary sinus, passing through the ostium into the choana - common in children

Q54. What is the imaging of choice for paranasal sinuses? A: CT scan of paranasal sinuses (coronal view preferred)

Q55. What are the clinical features of acute maxillary sinusitis? A: Pain and tenderness over the cheek, nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, pain worsens on bending forward

Q56. What is Pott's puffy tumor? A: Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone with subperiosteal abscess - complication of frontal sinusitis

Q57. What is the MC complication of ethmoiditis? A: Orbital cellulitis (due to thin lamina papyracea)

Q58. What is the Chandler classification? A: Classification of orbital complications of sinusitis (I-V): preseptal cellulitis, orbital cellulitis, subperiosteal abscess, orbital abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis

Q59. What is Wegener's granulomatosis (GPA) in ENT? A: Saddle nose deformity, septal perforation, bloody nasal discharge; c-ANCA positive

Q60. What is the most common malignant tumor of the nose and paranasal sinuses? A: Squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus

🔵 NOSE — Epistaxis & Septal Conditions

Q61. What is the treatment of posterior epistaxis? A: Posterior nasal packing with a Foley catheter or a post-nasal balloon; endoscopic ligation of sphenopalatine artery if refractory

Q62. What is a deviated nasal septum (DNS)? A: Deviation of the nasal septum from the midline, causing nasal obstruction; may cause contact headache

Q63. What is the most common cause of septal perforation? A: Chronic nose picking (digital trauma); other causes: surgery, cocaine use, Wegener's, syphilis, TB

Q64. What is rhinitis medicamentosa? A: Rebound nasal congestion caused by prolonged use of topical decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline)

Q65. What is the drug of choice for allergic rhinitis? A: Intranasal corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone, mometasone) - most effective single agent

🔵 THROAT — Anatomy & Physiology

Q66. What are the boundaries of the pharynx? A: From the base of skull (above) to the lower border of the cricoid cartilage/C6 vertebra (below)

Q67. What is Waldeyer's ring? A: Ring of lymphoid tissue: palatine tonsils, pharyngeal tonsil (adenoids), lingual tonsil, and lateral pharyngeal bands

Q68. What is the nerve supply of the palatine tonsil? A: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) - main supply; lesser palatine nerve (V2)

Q69. What is the blood supply of the tonsil? A: Main: Tonsillar branch of the facial artery; also from lingual, ascending pharyngeal, and descending palatine arteries

Q70. What is the most dangerous vessel in tonsillar hemorrhage? A: Internal carotid artery (lies 2.5 cm posterolateral to the tonsil)

🔵 THROAT — Tonsils & Adenoids

Q71. What are the indications for tonsillectomy (Paradise criteria)? A: 7 or more episodes/year for 1 year; 5 or more/year for 2 years; 3 or more/year for 3 years; each episode with fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, exudate, or positive Group A Strep

Q72. What is the most common causative organism of acute tonsillitis? A: Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)

Q73. What is quinsy (peritonsillar abscess)? A: Collection of pus in the peritonsillar space; presents with trismus, uvular deviation away from affected side, hot potato voice, and dysphagia

Q74. What is the treatment of peritonsillar abscess? A: Incision and drainage + IV antibiotics; interval tonsillectomy after 6 weeks

Q75. What is the most common complication of adenoid hypertrophy? A: Obstructive sleep apnea + otitis media with effusion (glue ear) due to Eustachian tube obstruction

Q76. What is the typical appearance on lateral neck X-ray in adenoid hypertrophy? A: Soft tissue shadow obliterating the nasopharyngeal airway

Q77. What is Ludwig's angina? A: Bilateral cellulitis of the submandibular space; originates from dental infection; airway emergency

Q78. What is the most dangerous complication of tonsillectomy? A: Primary hemorrhage (within 24 hours); secondary hemorrhage (5-10 days post-op) due to infection

🔵 LARYNX — Anatomy & Physiology

Q79. What cartilages make up the laryngeal framework? A: Thyroid, cricoid (only complete ring), epiglottis (unpaired); arytenoid, corniculate, cuneiform (paired)

Q80. What is the nerve supply of the larynx? A: Superior laryngeal nerve (internal branch: sensory above vocal cords; external branch: cricothyroid muscle); Recurrent laryngeal nerve (motor to all intrinsic muscles except cricothyroid, sensory below cords)

Q81. Which muscle is the only abductor of the vocal cords? A: Posterior cricoarytenoid (PCA) muscle

Q82. Which nerve is at risk during thyroid surgery? A: Recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) - causes hoarseness if damaged unilaterally; bilateral damage causes stridor and respiratory distress

Q83. What is the pre-epiglottic space? A: Space anterior to the epiglottis, bounded anteriorly by the thyroid cartilage and thyrohyoid membrane; important route of spread of epiglottic carcinoma

Q84. What is the subglottis? A: Region from the lower surface of the true vocal cords to the lower border of the cricoid cartilage

🔵 LARYNX — Diseases

Q85. What is the classic sign of acute epiglottitis on lateral neck X-ray? A: "Thumb sign" (swollen epiglottis resembling a thumb)

Q86. What is the causative organism of acute epiglottitis? A: Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB) - most common; now rare due to vaccination

Q87. What is the "steeple sign" on X-ray? A: Subglottic narrowing seen in croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis), caused by Parainfluenza virus

Q88. What is the most common benign tumor of the larynx? A: Vocal cord polyp (in adults); Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis (recurrent respiratory papillomatosis) is most common in children - caused by HPV 6 and 11

Q89. What is contact granuloma? A: Granuloma on the posterior vocal cord (vocal process of arytenoid) due to voice abuse, GERD, or intubation trauma

Q90. What is the most common site of laryngeal carcinoma? A: Glottis (true vocal cord) - 60-65% of cases

Q91. What is the presenting symptom of glottic carcinoma? A: Hoarseness of voice (early symptom due to location on vocal cord)

Q92. What is the staging investigation of choice for laryngeal carcinoma? A: CT scan of the neck with contrast; MRI for soft tissue extension

Q93. What is the TNM staging feature that makes laryngeal SCC T4? A: Invasion through the thyroid cartilage or invasion beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, esophagus, soft tissues of neck)

Q94. What is a tracheostomy emergency sign indicating tube blockage? A: Patient unable to speak, severe respiratory distress, with absence of airflow from tube - action: change inner tube, suction, then replace outer tube if needed

🔵 NECK — Masses & Conditions

Q95. What is the most common cause of a neck mass in adults over 40 years? A: Metastatic malignancy (until proven otherwise)

Q96. What is a branchial cyst? A: Remnant of the second branchial arch; presents as a cystic swelling at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid at the junction of its upper and middle third

Q97. What is a thyroglossal cyst? A: Remnant of the thyroglossal duct; midline cystic swelling that moves upward on swallowing AND on protrusion of the tongue

Q98. What is the treatment of thyroglossal cyst? A: Sistrunk's operation - excision of cyst + central portion of hyoid bone + thyroglossal tract up to the foramen caecum

Q99. What is a cystic hygroma? A: Lymphatic malformation (lymphangioma) - most common in the posterior triangle of the neck; presents at birth; transilluminates brilliantly

Q100. What is the Virchow's node? A: Enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node (Troisier's sign) - indicates intra-abdominal malignancy (especially gastric carcinoma) metastasizing via the thoracic duct

Summary Coverage

Section	Cards
Ear - Anatomy & Physiology	1-10
Ear - Hearing Tests	11-20
Ear - Otitis Media & Complications	21-30
Ear - SNHL & Other Conditions	31-40
Nose - Anatomy & Physiology	41-50
Nose - Diseases	51-60
Nose - Epistaxis & Septal	61-65
Throat - Anatomy	66-70
Throat - Tonsils & Adenoids	71-78
Larynx - Anatomy	79-84
Larynx - Diseases	85-94
Neck Masses	95-100

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