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Obstetrics MCQs - Based on Your Learning Guide
(Sources: Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology 7e, Creasy & Resnik's Maternal-Fetal Medicine, The Developing Human - Clinically Oriented Embryology, Guyton & Hall, Park's Preventive Medicine)
SECTION 1: Signs, Symptoms & Diagnosis of Pregnancy (Q6 & Q7)
Q1. A 23-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks, nausea, vomiting, and breast tenderness. Which of the following is the EARLIEST reliable sign of pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound?
- A) Fetal heartbeat
- B) Gestational sac
- C) Fetal pole
- D) Crown-rump length measurement
- E) Biparietal diameter
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - Gestational sac
The gestational sac is the earliest sonographic sign of intrauterine pregnancy, visible on transvaginal ultrasound as early as 4-5 weeks gestation. The fetal pole appears around 5-6 weeks, cardiac activity at ~6 weeks. CRL is the most accurate measure of gestational age in the first trimester but requires a visible fetal pole.
Q2. Which of the following is classified as a probable (not positive/certain) sign of pregnancy?
- A) Fetal heartbeat on Doppler
- B) Fetal movements felt by the examiner
- C) Visualization of fetus on ultrasound
- D) Positive urine pregnancy test (beta-hCG)
- E) Fetal parts palpated on X-ray
Answer & Explanation
Answer: D - Positive urine pregnancy test
Signs of pregnancy are classified as:
- Presumptive (subjective - felt by patient): amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness, quickening
- Probable (objective - observed by examiner but not confirmatory): uterine enlargement, Hegar's sign, Chadwick's sign, ballottement, positive hCG test
- Positive/Certain (only these confirm pregnancy): fetal heartbeat on auscultation/Doppler, fetal movements palpated by examiner, ultrasound visualization of fetus
A positive hCG test, though objective, is probable because hCG can be elevated in trophoblastic disease.
Q3. A urine pregnancy test detects beta-hCG. At what minimum serum hCG level (discriminatory zone) is an intrauterine gestational sac expected to be visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
- A) 100 mIU/mL
- B) 500 mIU/mL
- C) 1,000-2,000 mIU/mL
- D) 5,000 mIU/mL
- E) 10,000 mIU/mL
Answer & Explanation
Answer: C - 1,000-2,000 mIU/mL
The discriminatory zone for transvaginal ultrasound is typically 1,000-2,000 mIU/mL (some institutions use 1,500-2,000 mIU/mL). Above this level, if no intrauterine gestational sac is seen, ectopic pregnancy must be strongly considered. For transabdominal ultrasound, the discriminatory zone is higher (~5,000-6,000 mIU/mL). - Rosen's Emergency Medicine
Q4. Which of the following investigations can definitively confirm an intrauterine pregnancy?
- A) Positive serum beta-hCG
- B) Amenorrhea for 8 weeks
- C) Uterine enlargement on pelvic examination
- D) Transvaginal ultrasound showing a gestational sac with a yolk sac
- E) Presence of morning sickness
Answer & Explanation
Answer: D
A gestational sac with a yolk sac (or fetal pole with cardiac activity) on ultrasound confirms intrauterine pregnancy. A gestational sac alone could represent a pseudo-gestational sac (seen in ectopic pregnancy). Serum beta-hCG confirms pregnancy exists but not its location. Clinical signs are presumptive/probable only.
SECTION 2: Gestational Age & EDD Calculation (Q8)
Q5. Using Nägele's rule, what is the expected date of delivery (EDD) for a woman whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on 1st April?
- A) 1st January of the following year
- B) 8th January of the following year
- C) 8th February of the following year
- D) 1st February of the following year
- E) 15th January of the following year
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - 8th January
Nägele's rule: Take the first day of LNMP → subtract 3 months → add 7 days → add 1 year.
- 1st April → subtract 3 months = 1st January → add 7 days = 8th January (of the following year)
This formula is based on a normal pregnancy lasting 280 days (40 weeks) from the LNMP, or 266 days (38 weeks) from fertilization. - The Developing Human, p. 295
Q6. A woman's last menstrual period started on 10th July. Her cycles are regular, 28 days. What is her gestational age on 10th September of the same year?
- A) 6 weeks
- B) 8 weeks
- C) 9 weeks
- D) 10 weeks
- E) 12 weeks
Answer & Explanation
Answer: D - 10 weeks
From 10th July to 10th September = exactly 2 months = approximately 8-9 weeks. Counting days: July has 31 days → 21 days remaining in July + 31 days in August + 10 days in September = 62 days ÷ 7 = ~9 weeks. Gestational age is calculated from the first day of the LNMP. The answer is closest to 9 weeks (option C is most accurate for 62 days; 10 weeks = 70 days from LMP).
The key principle: Gestational age = days from first day of LNMP ÷ 7.
Q7. Nägele's rule assumes a regular menstrual cycle of how many days, and what adjustment should be made for a woman with a 35-day cycle?
- A) 28 days; add 7 extra days to EDD
- B) 30 days; no adjustment needed
- C) 28 days; no adjustment needed
- D) 28 days; subtract 7 days from EDD
- E) 30 days; add 5 extra days to EDD
Answer & Explanation
Answer: A - 28 days; add 7 days to EDD
Nägele's rule assumes a 28-day cycle with ovulation on day 14. If a woman has a longer cycle (e.g., 35 days), ovulation occurs later (day 21), so fertilization occurs 7 days later than assumed. Therefore, add the extra days to the calculated EDD (35 - 28 = 7 extra days → add 7 days to EDD). For a shorter cycle (e.g., 21 days), subtract 7 days. The Developing Human, p. 295
SECTION 3: Physiological Changes in Pregnancy (Q9 & Q10)
Q8. Which of the following cardiovascular changes occurs during normal pregnancy?
- A) Cardiac output decreases by 20%
- B) Systolic blood pressure increases by 15%
- C) Heart rate increases by approximately 20%
- D) Peripheral vascular resistance increases
- E) Central venous pressure increases significantly
Answer & Explanation
Answer: C - Heart rate increases by ~20%
Key cardiovascular changes in pregnancy (Morgan & Mikhail):
- Cardiac output: +40% (due to +20% HR and +30% stroke volume)
- Heart rate: +20%
- Systolic BP: -5% (decreases)
- Diastolic BP: -15% (decreases)
- Peripheral vascular resistance: -15% (decreases - due to progesterone-mediated vasodilation)
- CVP, PAP, PAOP: unchanged
Q9. A pregnant woman at 28 weeks lies flat on her back and develops pallor, sweating, and hypotension. What is the mechanism?
- A) Aortic compression by the gravid uterus reducing cardiac output
- B) Compression of the inferior vena cava reducing venous return
- C) Increased progesterone causing vasodilation
- D) Reduced plasma volume in the third trimester
- E) Cardiac arrhythmia due to displacement of the heart
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
This is supine hypotension syndrome (aortocaval compression syndrome), affecting ~5% of women at term. The gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava → reduced venous return → reduced cardiac output → hypotension with pallor, sweating, nausea. Treatment: left lateral tilt (>15° wedge under right hip). Note: the uterus also compresses the aorta (reducing uteroplacental flow), but the primary mechanism of maternal hypotension is IVC compression. - Morgan & Mikhail, p. 1576
Q10. Which of the following respiratory changes is CORRECTLY matched with pregnancy?
- A) Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) increases by 20%
- B) Tidal volume decreases
- C) Minute ventilation increases by 50%
- D) Respiratory rate increases by 30%
- E) PaCO₂ increases due to increased CO₂ production
Answer & Explanation
Answer: C - Minute ventilation increases by 50%
Respiratory changes in pregnancy (Morgan & Mikhail):
| Parameter | Change |
|---|
| FRC | -20% (decreases - diaphragm pushed up) |
| Tidal volume | +40% (increases) |
| Respiratory rate | +15% (slight increase) |
| Minute ventilation | +50% (increases) |
| PaCO₂ | -15% (decreases - hyperventilation) |
| PaO₂ | +10% (increases) |
| HCO₃⁻ | -15% (decreases - renal compensation) |
Result: Pregnancy causes a compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Q11. What happens to GFR (glomerular filtration rate) and serum creatinine during normal pregnancy?
- A) GFR decreases; creatinine increases
- B) GFR increases by 50%; creatinine decreases
- C) GFR unchanged; creatinine unchanged
- D) GFR decreases by 20%; creatinine decreases
- E) GFR increases; creatinine increases proportionally
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - GFR increases by 50%; creatinine decreases
Renal plasma flow and GFR both increase during pregnancy (~50%). As a result, serum creatinine may fall to 0.5 mg/dL and BUN to 9 mg/dL. A "normal" creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL in pregnancy may actually indicate renal impairment. Mild glycosuria (<10 g/day) and mild proteinuria (<300 mg/day) can be normal due to reduced tubular reabsorption threshold. - Morgan & Mikhail, p. 1577
SECTION 4: Uterine/Placental Blood Supply (Q10)
Q12. How does uterine blood flow change during pregnancy, and what fraction goes to the placenta?
- A) Increases 5-fold; 50% to placenta
- B) Increases 20-fold; 80% to placenta
- C) Increases 10-fold; 60% to placenta
- D) Increases 3-fold; 90% to placenta
- E) Increases 20-fold; 50% to placenta
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - 20-fold increase; 80% to placenta
Uterine blood flow increases 20-fold during pregnancy. 80% of uterine blood flow supplies the placenta (intervillous space); the remaining 20% goes to the myometrium. At term, approximately 625 mL/min flows through the maternal placental circulation. Uterine vasculature is maximally dilated with absent autoregulation - any reduction in perfusion pressure (aortocaval compression, hypotension) directly reduces placental flow. - Morgan & Mikhail; Guyton & Hall
Q13. What is the characteristic change in the spiral arteries during normal pregnancy, and what happens to this process in preeclampsia?
- A) Spiral arteries constrict; in preeclampsia they dilate excessively
- B) Endothelium is replaced by trophoblast, walls lose smooth muscle; in preeclampsia this remodeling fails in the myometrial segment
- C) Spiral arteries develop atherosclerotic plaques normally; preeclampsia reverses this
- D) Spiral arteries become varicose; preeclampsia prevents this
- E) No change normally; in preeclampsia they dilate due to high estrogen
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
In normal pregnancy, trophoblastic invasion remodels the spiral arteries:
- Endothelium is replaced by trophoblast
- Internal elastic lamina and smooth muscle are replaced by amorphous fibrin matrix
- Vessels become wide, low-resistance, high-flow conduits
In preeclampsia, this remodeling fails in the myometrial portion (extends only to the decidual segment). The vessels retain their smooth muscle and elastic tissue, their diameter is only ~40% of normal, resulting in:
- High-resistance uteroplacental blood flow
- Placental ischemia
- Acute atherosis (foam cells, fibrinoid necrosis)
This is the fundamental placental lesion of preeclampsia. - Creasy & Resnik, p. 1061
SECTION 5: Obstetric Investigations (Q5)
Q14. A 28-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation presents for routine antenatal care. Which of the following investigations is routinely indicated at this gestational age?
- A) Amniocentesis for karyotype
- B) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) / Quadruple screen
- C) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) swab
- D) Glucose challenge test
- E) Non-stress test (NST)
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - Quadruple screen / MSAFP
Routine obstetric investigations by trimester:
- First trimester (10-13 wks): Blood group/Rh, VDRL/RPR, HIV, rubella IgG, hepatitis B, urine culture, CBC; nuchal translucency ultrasound + PAPP-A + free beta-hCG (combined screen)
- Second trimester (15-20 wks): Quadruple screen (MSAFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin A) for Down syndrome/NTD; anomaly scan (18-20 wks)
- 24-28 wks: Glucose challenge test (GDM screening)
- 35-37 wks: GBS swab
- Third trimester: NST, biophysical profile if indicated
Q15. Which ultrasound measurement is MOST accurate for estimating gestational age in the first trimester?
- A) Biparietal diameter (BPD)
- B) Femur length (FL)
- C) Abdominal circumference (AC)
- D) Crown-rump length (CRL)
- E) Head circumference (HC)
Answer & Explanation
Answer: D - Crown-Rump Length (CRL)
CRL is the method of choice for estimating fetal age until the end of the first trimester (up to ~13 weeks) because there is very little variability in fetal size during this period - the error margin is ±5-7 days. In the second and third trimesters, BPD, HC, AC, and femur length are used, but their accuracy decreases as gestational age advances (error ±2-3 weeks). - The Developing Human, p. 296
SECTION 6: Antenatal Care & Counselling (Q11-Q13)
Q16. A 30-year-old woman who wants to conceive asks about preconception supplementation. Which of the following is the MOST important supplement to recommend, and what is its primary benefit?
- A) Iron 60 mg/day - prevents maternal anemia
- B) Folic acid 400-800 mcg/day - prevents neural tube defects
- C) Calcium 1000 mg/day - prevents gestational hypertension
- D) Vitamin D 1000 IU/day - prevents preterm birth
- E) Iodine 150 mcg/day - prevents hypothyroidism
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B - Folic acid 400-800 mcg/day
Folic acid supplementation beginning at least 1 month before conception and continuing through the first trimester reduces the risk of neural tube defects (NTD) - anencephaly, spina bifida - by up to 70%. The neural tube closes by day 28 post-fertilization (before most women know they are pregnant), hence preconception supplementation is critical. Women with a previous NTD-affected pregnancy require 4-5 mg/day (high-dose).
Q17. A woman at 10 weeks gestation reports she works as a radiology technician and asks about occupational risk. Which of the following represents a TERATOGENIC risk in the first trimester?
- A) Diagnostic ultrasound
- B) MRI without contrast
- C) Ionizing radiation above 50 mGy (5 rad)
- D) Low-level occupational radiation (<1 mGy/year)
- E) Therapeutic ultrasound physiotherapy
Answer & Explanation
Answer: C
Fetal risks from ionizing radiation:
- <50 mGy: No proven teratogenic risk - diagnostic X-rays (chest X-ray = ~0.01 mGy) are safe
- 50-100 mGy: Possible teratogenesis
- >100 mGy (>10 rad): Definite risk of microcephaly, intellectual disability, growth restriction
- Most sensitive period: 2-18 weeks (organogenesis + brain development)
Ultrasound (diagnostic and therapeutic at normal doses) has no proven teratogenic risk. MRI without gadolinium contrast is considered safe in pregnancy.
SECTION 7: Common Pregnancy Complaints Related to Physiological Changes (Q14)
Q18. A 24-year-old woman at 20 weeks gestation complains of heartburn and regurgitation after meals. Which physiological change BEST explains this symptom?
- A) Increased gastric acid secretion in pregnancy
- B) Reduced lower esophageal sphincter pressure + upward displacement of stomach by the uterus
- C) Accelerated gastric emptying displacing food upward
- D) Increased GFR causing electrolyte imbalance
- E) Progesterone increasing GI motility
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Gastroesophageal reflux in pregnancy results from:
- Progesterone relaxes smooth muscle → reduces lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure → sphincter incompetence
- Upward displacement of stomach by the enlarging uterus → altered angle of esophagogastric junction
- Reduced gastric motility (delayed emptying)
Note: Gastric acidity and volume do NOT significantly change. This is why pregnant patients are at high risk for aspiration during anesthesia. - Morgan & Mikhail, p. 1577
Q19. A pregnant woman at 32 weeks develops bilateral ankle swelling and varicose veins. What is the physiological basis?
- A) Increased plasma albumin reducing oncotic pressure
- B) Decreased aldosterone causing sodium retention
- C) Chronic partial compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus
- D) Cardiac failure due to increased cardiac output
- E) Increased GFR causing fluid overload
Answer & Explanation
Answer: C
In the third trimester, the gravid uterus causes chronic partial compression of the inferior vena cava → venous stasis in the lower extremities → edema, phlebitis, and varicose veins. This also distends the epidural veins (relevant to epidural analgesia - increased risk of intravascular cannulation). Physiological edema of pregnancy (pitting, bilateral, dependent) is normal and distinct from the pathological edema of preeclampsia (facial, hands, non-dependent). - Morgan & Mikhail, p. 1576
Q20. During pregnancy, the physiological anemia occurs because plasma volume increases MORE than red cell mass increases. What are the correct approximate changes?
- A) Plasma volume +20%, RBC mass +20% → no anemia
- B) Plasma volume +55%, RBC mass +20-30% → dilutional anemia
- C) Plasma volume +10%, RBC mass +40% → polycythemia
- D) Plasma volume +40%, RBC mass +40% → no change in Hb
- E) Plasma volume +55%, RBC mass +55% → no change in Hb
Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
In pregnancy:
- Plasma volume increases by ~55% (the greater rise)
- Red blood cell (RBC) mass increases by ~20-30% (lesser rise)
- Net result: Dilutional (physiological) anemia → hemoglobin falls by ~20%
This is the basis for the WHO definition of anemia in pregnancy: Hb <11 g/dL in 1st and 3rd trimesters, <10.5 g/dL in 2nd trimester. The disproportionate plasma expansion also explains the fall in serum albumin, uric acid, and other proteins. - Morgan & Mikhail, Table 40-1
Score Guide
| Score | Level |
|---|
| 18-20 | Excellent |
| 14-17 | Good - review weak sections |
| 10-13 | Fair - re-read physiology |
| <10 | Revisit the fundamentals |
Sources: Morgan & Mikhail's Clinical Anesthesiology 7e, Creasy & Resnik's Maternal-Fetal Medicine, The Developing Human (Clinically Oriented Embryology), Guyton & Hall Medical Physiology, Park's Preventive & Social Medicine