attachment
attachment

Fill the correct answer with proper reason

Reading File
analyse_media
analyse_media
Here are all 14 questions with correct answers and detailed reasoning:

Section A - BCQs (Image 1/5)


Q1. X-rays are modified ______ Correct Answer: b. Electrons
X-rays are produced when fast-moving electrons are suddenly decelerated upon hitting a target (anode). The beam itself is composed of photons (electromagnetic radiation), but the process involves the modification/interaction of electrons. The question refers to the particles that are decelerated/modified to produce X-rays.

Q2. Ultrasound is useful in examining following EXCEPT: Correct Answer: b. Fractures
Ultrasound uses sound waves that cannot pass through bone effectively - it cannot image cortical bone or detect fractures. It is excellent for abdominal aorta, fetus, liver, and gallbladder (soft tissue structures and fluid-filled organs).

Q3. Which is the standard view of mammography projection? Correct Answer: a. Craniocaudal (CC)
The two standard views in mammography are:
  1. Craniocaudal (CC) - top-down view
  2. Mediolateral oblique (MLO) - angled side view
The "anteriolateral oblique" is not standard terminology; MLO is. CC is the definitive standard view referenced in basic mammography protocol.

Q4. For female aged less than 35 years, the modality of choice for breast imaging is: Correct Answer: c. Ultrasound
The marked answer "a. Mammography" is INCORRECT. Mammography is NOT recommended for women under 35 because:
  • Younger women have denser breast tissue, reducing mammography sensitivity
  • Higher radiation sensitivity in younger women
  • Ultrasound is preferred for women under 35/40 as it works better in dense tissue and carries no radiation risk
This is a classic exam correction: Ultrasound is the modality of choice for breast imaging in women < 35 years.

Q5. Imaging modalities from LOWEST to HIGHEST radiation dose: Correct Answer: d. Ultrasound, radiography, computed tomography scan
Radiation doses (approximate):
  • Ultrasound = 0 mSv (no ionizing radiation)
  • MRI = 0 mSv (no ionizing radiation)
  • Radiography (X-ray) = ~0.1 mSv (chest X-ray)
  • CT scan = ~5-15 mSv
Correct ascending order: Ultrasound (0) → Radiography (~0.1 mSv) → CT scan (~10 mSv)
Note: MRI also has zero radiation, but option d specifically lists Ultrasound, Radiography, CT - which is the correct ascending sequence among the options given.

Section A - BCQs (Image 2/5)


Q6. Sir Godfrey Hounsfield invented Computed Tomography in: Correct Answer: a. 1972
Godfrey Hounsfield developed the first clinical CT scanner at EMI. It was publicly announced and first used clinically in 1972. He later shared the 1979 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for this invention (with Allan Cormack).

Q7. KUB X-ray is for? Correct Answer: c. Kidney, Ureters and Bladder
KUB is a standard abdominal X-ray used to evaluate the urinary tract. The acronym stands for Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder. It is used to detect renal calculi, ureteral stones, and bladder stones.

Q8. X-ray production whose energy depends upon the difference of shell levels: Correct Answer: c. Characteristic radiation
When an inner-shell electron is ejected from an atom, an outer-shell electron falls in to fill the vacancy, releasing a photon of energy exactly equal to the difference between the two electron shell energy levels. This is called characteristic (or characteristic X-ray) radiation because the energy is characteristic of the target material (e.g., tungsten).
  • Bremsstrahlung = continuous spectrum radiation from deceleration of electrons
  • Compton = interaction with outer-shell/free electrons (scattering)
  • Characteristic = inner-shell electron transition = energy equals shell-level difference ✓

Q9. X-rays of 10 keV are used in: Correct Answer: b. Mammography
The marked answer "d. Radiation therapy" is INCORRECT. Radiation therapy uses MeV-range energies (millions of eV), not 10 keV.
Typical energy ranges:
  • Mammography: ~25-35 kVp (effective ~15-25 keV) - low energy for soft tissue contrast in breast
  • General radiography: ~60-120 kVp
  • Fluoroscopy: ~70-100 kVp
  • Radiation therapy: 4-25 MeV (megavolts)
10 keV is in the mammography range (low-energy soft tissue imaging).

Q10. The stability of a nucleus is determined by all EXCEPT: Correct Answer: a. Atomic number
Nuclear stability is determined by:
  • Number of neutrons (neutron-to-proton ratio) ✓
  • Binding energy per nucleon (higher = more stable) ✓
  • Mass number (affects nuclear configuration) ✓
  • Atomic number (Z) = number of protons only - by itself, Z alone does not determine stability; the N/Z ratio matters, not Z alone
The atomic number alone does not determine stability - it is the neutron-proton ratio and binding energy that govern nuclear stability. ✓

Q11. The detectors used in CT scanner: Correct Answer: b. Solid state detector
Modern CT scanners use solid-state detectors (scintillation crystals + photodiodes, e.g., gadolinium oxysulfide or cesium iodide). Wilson Cloud chambers are used in particle physics (detect ionizing particles via condensation), not in CT scanners.

Q12. The volume element is called: Correct Answer: d. Voxel
  • Pixel = 2D picture element (flat image)
  • Voxel = 3D volume element (volumetric pixel) - the 3D unit in CT/MRI imaging
  • PACS = Picture Archiving and Communication System (not a unit)

Q13. The range of kVp for CT scan is of typical range: Correct Answer: c. 120-150 kVp
Standard CT scan tube voltage ranges from 80-140 kVp, with most conventional CT scans using 120 kVp as the standard setting. The 120-150 kVp range is the most commonly cited typical range in standard radiology references.

Q14. The dynamic scan in nuclear medicine is usually performed for: Correct Answer: a. Hepatobiliary
Dynamic scanning in nuclear medicine tracks the flow/function of a radiotracer over time. It is classically used for:
  • Hepatobiliary (HIDA scan - tracks bile flow) ✓ - this is the primary answer
  • Renal perfusion scans (MAG3/DTPA)
Bone scan = static. Sentinel lymph node = static/intraoperative. Ablation = therapeutic, not diagnostic imaging.

Summary Table of Corrections

QMarked AnswerCorrect AnswerError?
1b. Electronsb. Electrons✓ Correct
2b. Fracturesb. Fractures✓ Correct
3a. Craniocaudala. Craniocaudal✓ Correct
4a. Mammographyc. Ultrasound❌ Wrong
5d. US, X-ray, CTd. US, X-ray, CT✓ Correct
6a. 1972a. 1972✓ Correct
7c. Kidney, ureters, bladderc. Kidney, ureters, bladder✓ Correct
8c. Characteristic radiationc. Characteristic radiation✓ Correct
9a. General radiography (marked "d")b. Mammography❌ Wrong
10a. Atomic number (EXCEPT)a. Atomic number✓ Correct
11b. Solid state detectorb. Solid state detector✓ Correct
12d. Voxeld. Voxel✓ Correct
13c. 120-150 kVpc. 120-150 kVp✓ Correct
14a. Hepatobiliarya. Hepatobiliary✓ Correct
Key corrections needed: Q4 (Ultrasound, not Mammography, for women <35) and Q9 (Mammography uses ~10-25 keV range, not radiation therapy).
attachment
attachment
attachment

Fill the correct true or false with proper reason

analyse_media
analyse_media
analyse_media
The media analysis was partially truncated. I have enough visual context from the images themselves to answer all questions comprehensively. Let me now provide complete True/False answers for all questions across all three images.

TRUE / FALSE ANSWERS WITH REASONS


IMAGE 4/5 — Questions 16–24


Q16. Fluoroscopy

StatementAnswer
aEnables radiologist to visualize X-rays image in real timeTRUE
bNo administration of contrast agent neededFALSE
cIs a three dimensional examinationFALSE
dCan only be used for GIT pathologiesFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Fluoroscopy provides real-time continuous X-ray imaging on a monitor.
  • b. FALSE - Fluoroscopy frequently requires contrast agents (barium, iodinated contrast) for GIT, urological, and vascular studies.
  • c. FALSE - Fluoroscopy provides 2D real-time images, not 3D. CT provides 3D.
  • d. FALSE - Fluoroscopy is used for GIT, urological, vascular (angiography), orthopedic, and interventional procedures - not limited to GIT.

Q17. Things to consider while examining a radiograph of a patient

StatementAnswer
aTake history firstTRUE
bUnnecessary radiography should be avoidedTRUE
cAlways look radiographs, no need to see the patientFALSE
dRemember the rule of TWO in case of fracturesTRUE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Clinical history is essential to correctly interpret radiographs.
  • b. TRUE - ALARA principle (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) - unnecessary radiation exposure must be avoided.
  • c. FALSE - Clinical correlation with the patient is mandatory. Radiographs must always be interpreted in the context of clinical examination.
  • d. TRUE - The "Rule of TWO" in fractures: two views, two joints (above and below), two sides (compare), two occasions (follow-up). This is standard radiological practice.

Q18. Digital Angiography

StatementAnswer
aIt is a diagnostic procedure that produces X-ray picture of blood vesselsTRUE
bNo catheter insertedFALSE
cNo contrast media requiredFALSE
dFirst angiogram was done in 1996FALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA) produces X-ray images of blood vessels using contrast.
  • b. FALSE - Conventional/digital angiography typically requires catheter insertion (arterial/venous access) to deliver contrast.
  • c. FALSE - Iodinated contrast media is essential in angiography to visualize blood vessels.
  • d. FALSE - The first angiogram was performed by Egas Moniz in 1927, not 1996.

Q19. Computed Tomography is

StatementAnswer
aSingle planer visualization of body partsFALSE
bMinutes details can be seen within the thin slicesTRUE
cThis technique is developed by Nikola Tesla in 1993FALSE
dNo X-rays involved in this examinationFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - CT provides multi-planar (axial, coronal, sagittal, oblique) visualization, not single-plane.
  • b. TRUE - CT detects fine anatomical details in thin cross-sectional slices (as thin as 0.5-1 mm).
  • c. FALSE - CT was invented by Sir Godfrey Hounsfield (not Nikola Tesla) and introduced clinically in 1972.
  • d. FALSE - CT uses X-rays (ionizing radiation). That is the fundamental basis of CT imaging.

Q20. Radiation and Pregnancy

StatementAnswer
aPrimary responsibility lies with the referring clinicianTRUE
bMost sensitive period is 8-15 weeksTRUE
cChest X-ray can be done with lead shielding skirt if necessaryTRUE
dVery early (pre-implant) stage of pregnancy is the most sensitive periodFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - The referring clinician bears primary responsibility for justifying radiation exposure in pregnancy.
  • b. TRUE - Organogenesis (8-15 weeks of gestation) is the most radiosensitive period for teratogenesis and organ malformation.
  • c. TRUE - Chest X-rays deliver very low uterine dose (~0.001 mGy); with gonadal/pelvic lead shielding, they are considered acceptably safe when clinically necessary.
  • d. FALSE - The pre-implantation stage (0-2 weeks) follows the "all or nothing" rule - radiation either kills the embryo or has no effect. The most sensitive period for malformations is organogenesis (weeks 2-8, particularly 8-15 weeks for CNS effects). The pre-implant stage is NOT the most sensitive for teratogenic effects.

Q21. MRI

StatementAnswer
aIs best for soft tissue pathologies diagnosisTRUE
bIts an expansive examination as compare to ultrasoundTRUE
cX-ray are used during this examinationFALSE
dIt is the ultimate examination to see bone fracturesFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - MRI has superior soft tissue contrast compared to all other modalities - gold standard for CNS, musculoskeletal soft tissues, and abdominal organs.
  • b. TRUE - MRI is significantly more expensive than ultrasound due to equipment cost and scan time.
  • c. FALSE - MRI uses radiofrequency waves and a strong magnetic field - NO X-rays or ionizing radiation involved.
  • d. FALSE - Plain X-ray and CT are the primary modalities for fracture detection. MRI is used for occult fractures, stress fractures, and associated soft tissue injury, but it is not the "ultimate" examination for routine fractures.

Q22. Regarding MRI Sequences

StatementAnswer
aProton density weighted image is beneficial in assessing articular cartilageTRUE
bT2W images may exhibit and angiographic effectTRUE
cFat is dark on T1W imagesFALSE
dFluid is dark on T2W imagesFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Proton density (PD) sequences are excellent for cartilage, menisci, and fibrocartilage assessment.
  • b. TRUE - T2W MR angiography (MRA) uses the bright T2 signal of flowing blood to create angiographic images (e.g., MR myelography, MRCP use this principle).
  • c. FALSE - Fat is BRIGHT (white) on T1W images. This is a classic MRI teaching point: "Fat is bright on T1."
  • d. FALSE - Fluid is BRIGHT (white) on T2W images - another key teaching point: "Water/fluid is bright on T2."

Q23. MRI is Contraindicated in

StatementAnswer
aPatients with pacemakersTRUE
bPatients with breast implantsFALSE
cPatients with cochlear implantsTRUE
dPatients with tooth fillingsFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Conventional pacemakers are absolute contraindications to MRI; the magnetic field can cause device malfunction, heating, or movement. (Note: MRI-conditional pacemakers now exist.)
  • b. FALSE - Most modern breast implants (silicone/saline) are MRI-safe/MRI-conditional. Breast MRI is routinely performed with implants in situ.
  • c. TRUE - Most cochlear implants contain magnetic and electronic components that are contraindicated in MRI due to risk of device damage, displacement, and demagnetization.
  • d. FALSE - Most dental fillings (amalgam, composite) are MRI-compatible and do not pose a safety risk, though they may cause local artifact.

Q24. Disadvantages of MRI

StatementAnswer
aLong scan acquisition timeTRUE
bPatient claustrophobiaTRUE
cNo role in soft tissue pathologiesFALSE
dCalcification seen easilyFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - MRI sequences take minutes to complete; a full MRI scan can take 30-90 minutes - a real clinical disadvantage.
  • b. TRUE - The narrow bore of the MRI scanner causes claustrophobia in a significant proportion of patients, sometimes requiring sedation.
  • c. FALSE - MRI has an EXCELLENT role in soft tissue pathologies - it is the best modality for soft tissues (brain, spinal cord, muscles, ligaments, tendons, pelvic organs). This is a major ADVANTAGE, not a disadvantage.
  • d. FALSE - Calcification is poorly visualized on MRI. CT is far superior for detecting calcifications. This is actually a DISADVANTAGE of MRI.

IMAGE 5/5 — Questions 25–30


Q25. Ultrasound is?

StatementAnswer
aImaging technique uses high frequency sound waves and their echoes to produce imageTRUE
bAlso known as pulse echo techniqueTRUE
cContraindicated during pregnancyFALSE
dRadiations are involvedFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Ultrasound uses high-frequency sound waves (2-20 MHz) and their returning echoes to construct images.
  • b. TRUE - The pulse-echo principle is the fundamental basis of diagnostic ultrasound.
  • c. FALSE - Ultrasound is the SAFEST imaging modality in pregnancy - used routinely for fetal assessment throughout gestation.
  • d. FALSE - Ultrasound uses sound waves (mechanical energy), NOT ionizing radiation. It is radiation-free.

Q26. Radiological Signs and Their Causes

StatementAnswer
aPopcorn calcification - fibro adenomaTRUE
bLicked candy stick appearance - leprosyTRUE
cSalt and pepper skull - hyperparathyroidismTRUE
dChampagne glass pelvis - pseudochondroplasiaFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Popcorn calcification is the classic sign of a calcified fibroadenoma of the breast, or pulmonary hamartoma.
  • b. TRUE - "Licked candy stick" or "sucked candy" appearance of phalanges is classic for leprosy (absorption of terminal/middle phalanges).
  • c. TRUE - "Salt and pepper skull" (granular decalcification of the skull vault) is a classic radiological sign of hyperparathyroidism.
  • d. FALSE - Champagne glass (or wine glass) pelvis is the classic sign of achondroplasia, not pseudochondroplasia. In achondroplasia, the pelvic inlet is champagne glass-shaped due to horizontal acetabular roofs and small sacrosciatic notches.

Q27. Scoliosis

StatementAnswer
aAt least 10 degrees of rotation should be present to qualify for scoliosisFALSE
bAt least 5 degrees of change in angle should be present to say scoliosis has progressFALSE
cTrunk rotation of more than 7 degrees is abnormalFALSE
dMRI is routinely indicated for all patients with scoliosisFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - Scoliosis is defined as a lateral curvature of the spine of ≥10 degrees on Cobb angle measurement - this is about the Cobb angle, not rotation. The statement confuses rotation with the Cobb angle definition.
  • b. FALSE - Progression is defined as an increase of ≥5 degrees in Cobb angle on serial X-rays. This statement is actually TRUE by standard criteria. ✓
  • c. FALSE - Trunk rotation >7 degrees measured by scoliometer (Adam's forward bend test) is considered a threshold for referral. This is actually TRUE. ✓
  • d. FALSE - MRI is NOT routinely indicated for all scoliosis patients. It is reserved for: atypical curves (left thoracic), rapid progression, neurological symptoms, or juvenile/infantile onset.
Corrected answers: a=FALSE, b=TRUE, c=TRUE, d=FALSE

Q28. Osteopetrosis

StatementAnswer
aThe radiological findings in the congenital type and delayed type are essentially the sameTRUE
bThe cortex and medulla cannot be differentiated in long bonesTRUE
cBone within bone appearance is seen in 75% of casesFALSE
dBoth transverse and longitudinal striations are seenTRUE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Both types show diffuse sclerosis with loss of corticomedullary differentiation.
  • b. TRUE - In osteopetrosis ("marble bone disease"), abnormal osteoclast function leads to failure of bone resorption, making the entire bone uniformly dense with loss of corticomedullary distinction.
  • c. FALSE - "Bone within bone" (endobone) appearance is a characteristic but NOT universal finding; it is seen in a subset of cases, not in 75%.
  • d. TRUE - Both transverse (Rugger jersey spine) and longitudinal striations can be seen in osteopetrosis.

Q29. Spondylolisthesis

StatementAnswer
aDegenerative Spondylolisthesis is common in L5-S1 levelFALSE
bIsthmic listhesis is common in L4-5 levelFALSE
cDefects in the pars is developmentalFALSE
dPain is worse in flexion in the isthmic typeFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - Degenerative spondylolisthesis is most common at L4-L5 (due to the sagittal orientation of facets). L5-S1 is more common for isthmic type.
  • b. FALSE - Isthmic (spondylolytic) spondylolisthesis is most common at L5-S1, not L4-5.
  • c. FALSE - Pars interarticularis defects (spondylolysis) in isthmic spondylolisthesis are due to stress fractures (repetitive trauma/fatigue fracture), not developmental defects.
  • d. FALSE - In isthmic spondylolisthesis, pain is typically worse in extension (lumbar extension narrows the neural foramina and stresses the pars), not flexion.

Q30. Spinal Canal

StatementAnswer
aAll cervical vertebrae show a triangular spinal canalFALSE
bThe lower limit of AP diameter of C7 spinal canal is 15 mmFALSE
cThe thoracic dural sac is larger than the cordTRUE
dThe upper lumbar vertebrae show round canals with equal transverse and AP diametersFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - The cervical spinal canal is triangular at C1 (atlas) but is more oval/circular at subaxial cervical levels (C3-C7). Not ALL cervical vertebrae are triangular.
  • b. FALSE - The lower limit of the AP diameter of the cervical spinal canal is 12 mm (not 15 mm). Values below 12 mm suggest cervical stenosis.
  • c. TRUE - The thoracic dural sac is indeed larger than the thoracic spinal cord, with CSF surrounding the cord in the subarachnoid space.
  • d. FALSE - Upper lumbar vertebrae have a triangular (trefoil) or ovoid canal, not round canals with equal dimensions. The lumbar canal tends to be more triangular, especially L4-L5 where trefoil shape predisposes to spinal stenosis.

IMAGE 3/5 — Questions 7–15


Q7. MRI is Contraindicated in

StatementAnswer
aPatients with pacemakersTRUE
bPatients with breast implantsFALSE
cPatients with cochlear implantsTRUE
dPatients with tooth fillingsFALSE
(Same as Q23 above - see reasoning there)

Q8. Fat Appears

StatementAnswer
aWhite on ultrasoundTRUE
bDark on CT scanFALSE
cDark on chest X-rayFALSE
dWhite on MRITRUE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Fat appears hyperechoic (bright/white) on ultrasound due to multiple acoustic interfaces.
  • b. FALSE - Fat appears DARK (hypodense/low attenuation, typically -50 to -100 HU) on CT scan. This is actually how fat is identified on CT (negative Hounsfield units).
  • c. FALSE - Fat appears relatively dark (radiolucent) on chest X-ray - it is less dense than soft tissue and appears darker.
  • d. TRUE - Fat is BRIGHT (hyperintense) on T1W MRI sequences - this is one of the fundamental MRI signal characteristics.

Q9. X-rays Cannot Travel Through

StatementAnswer
aVacuumFALSE
bLeadTRUE
cWaterFALSE
dHuman bodyFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - X-rays travel through vacuum (they are electromagnetic radiation - they travel best through vacuum, just like visible light).
  • b. TRUE - Lead (Pb) has a very high atomic number (Z=82) and density, making it the standard X-ray shielding material. X-rays cannot effectively penetrate lead.
  • c. FALSE - X-rays pass through water (and soft tissue which is mostly water), which is why soft tissues appear grey on X-ray.
  • d. FALSE - X-rays pass through the human body - that is the entire basis of diagnostic radiology. Dense structures (bone) attenuate more, soft tissues less.

Q10. Universal Mass Unit (Dalton/amu)

StatementAnswer
a1/12 mass of C-12 atomTRUE
b1/12 mass of C-13 atomFALSE
c1/16 mass of O-16 atomFALSE
dBy mass of waterFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - The atomic mass unit (amu or Dalton) is defined as exactly 1/12 the mass of a Carbon-12 atom. This is the internationally accepted definition.
  • b. FALSE - C-13 is a different isotope; the standard is C-12.
  • c. FALSE - O-16 was the old historical standard before 1961; the current standard is C-12.
  • d. FALSE - amu is not related to the mass of water.

Q11. The Lowest Binding for an Atomic Shell

StatementAnswer
aShell which is near to nucleusFALSE
bShell which has maximum number of electronsFALSE
cDepends upon number of neutronsFALSE
dShell which is farthest from nucleusTRUE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - The shell nearest to the nucleus (K shell) has the HIGHEST binding energy. Inner electrons are tightly bound.
  • b. FALSE - The maximum number of electrons in a shell does not determine binding energy directly; distance from nucleus does.
  • c. FALSE - Electron binding energy depends on the nuclear charge (proton number) and distance from nucleus, NOT on neutrons.
  • d. TRUE - The outermost shell (valence shell) has the LOWEST binding energy because electrons are furthest from the positively charged nucleus and least strongly attracted.

Q12. Regarding Modern CT Scanners

StatementAnswer
aIt uses non-ionizing radiationFALSE
bTakes hours for image processingFALSE
cTakes minutes to scan whole bodyTRUE
dHas very limited application in musculoskeletal imagingFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. FALSE - CT uses ionizing radiation (X-rays). It is a significant source of medical radiation exposure.
  • b. FALSE - Modern CT image reconstruction takes seconds, not hours (thanks to advanced reconstruction algorithms and computing power).
  • c. TRUE - Whole-body CT (trauma protocol) can be completed in under 2 minutes on modern multi-detector CT (MDCT) scanners.
  • d. FALSE - CT has extensive applications in musculoskeletal imaging: fracture characterization, joint assessment, bone tumors, surgical planning. It is not limited at all.

Q13. Regarding CT Systems, It Produces

StatementAnswer
aImages in transverse planeTRUE
bImages in sagittal planeTRUE
cImages in coronal planeTRUE
dSimilar images to ultrasoundFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - CT primarily acquires axial (transverse) data and can reconstruct in any plane.
  • b. TRUE - Multi-planar reformation (MPR) allows sagittal reconstructions.
  • c. TRUE - Coronal reformations are routinely produced from CT data.
  • d. FALSE - CT and ultrasound produce completely different types of images based on entirely different physical principles (X-ray attenuation vs. sound wave reflection).

Q14. Spatial Resolution is Measured in Units of

StatementAnswer
aLp/inchFALSE
bCm/lpFALSE
cinch/lpFALSE
dLp/cmTRUE
Reasons:
  • d. TRUE - Spatial resolution in radiology is measured in line pairs per centimeter (lp/cm). Higher lp/cm = better spatial resolution. (Also expressed as lp/mm in some contexts.)

Q15. Material Used for X-ray Production

StatementAnswer
aMolybdenumTRUE
bTungstenTRUE
cIronFALSE
dGoldFALSE
Reasons:
  • a. TRUE - Molybdenum is used as the target material in mammography X-ray tubes because its characteristic X-rays (~17-19 keV) are ideal for breast imaging.
  • b. TRUE - Tungsten (Wolfram, W) is the standard anode target material in most diagnostic X-ray tubes due to its very high melting point (3422°C) and high atomic number (Z=74), making it ideal for X-ray production.
  • c. FALSE - Iron is not used as an X-ray tube target material due to its lower atomic number and melting point.
  • d. FALSE - Gold is not a standard X-ray tube target material, though it has been used experimentally.

Quick Reference Summary Table

Qabcd
16 FluoroscopyTFFF
17 Radiograph reviewTTFT
18 Digital AngiographyTFFF
19 CTFTFF
20 Radiation & PregnancyTTTF
21 MRITTFF
22 MRI SequencesTTFF
23 MRI ContraindicationsTFTF
24 MRI DisadvantagesTTFF
25 UltrasoundTTFF
26 Radiological SignsTTTF
27 ScoliosisFTTF
28 OsteopetrosisTTFT
29 SpondylolisthesisFFFF
30 Spinal CanalFFTF
7 MRI Contraind.TFTF
8 Fat AppearanceTFFT
9 X-ray travelFTFF
10 Mass unitTFFF
11 Lowest bindingFFFT
12 Modern CTFFTF
13 CT planesTTTF
14 Spatial resolutionFFFT
15 X-ray materialsTTFF
This is a shared conversation. Sign in to Orris to start your own chat.