COMMED FMGE QUESTIONS palaniprakash933@gmail.com Switch accounts Not shared * Indicates required question 1.Longitudinal, observational and analytical study is also known as? * 1 point Cross Sectional Study Cohort Study Ecological Study Randomized Control Trial 2. A study was conducted to compare MMR vaccine history in children with autism and children without autism. What kind of study is being done here? * 1 point Cross-sectional study Cohort study Case-control study Clinical trial 3. Which of the following statement is correct about triage? * 1 point Red- ambulatory Yellow- stable need observation Black- minor injuries Green- life threatening 4. In a hospital pharmacy setting, a budget of 50,000 Rs is allocated for the purchase of three types of drugs: 35,000 Rs for A drugs, 10,000 Rs for B drugs, and the remaining amount for C drugs. Which type of analysis is being used in this scenario? * 1 point Network Analysis ABC Analysis VED Analysis System Analysis 5.What is the most effective quantitative method for examining previous research studies? * 1 point Cohort study Systematic review Meta-analysis RCT 6. What is the term used to describe a disease that is typically not found in a country but is brought in from abroad, as seen in the case of a 25-year-old male who was diagnosed with the condition upon arrival at an Indian airport, leading to quarantine? * 1 point Endemic Epidemic Zoonotic Exotic 7.Which of the following components are included in the Human Development Index (HDI), as per the World Health Organization (WHO)? * 1 point Life expectancy at birth, literacy and standard of living Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy and standard of living Infant mortality rate, literacy and standard of living Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy and infant mortality rate 8. Which of the following measures cannot be taken to eliminate confounding factors? * 1 point Randomization Blinding Restriction Matching 9. In the context of a new onset of a morbid disease, how does the change in incidence affect the prevalence of the disease? * 1 point Prevalence is not related to incidence Incidence will increase, and prevalence will decrease Incidence and prevalence will increase Prevalence will increase with a decrease in the incidence 10. According to the NACO guidelines, what level of prevention is achieved when an HIV patient undergoes counselling and screening for TB at an ICTC clinic? * 1 point Primordial Primary Secondary Primary & Secondary 11. What level of prevention is being addressed by administering an injection of benzathine penicillin to a patient with rheumatic heart disease? * 1 point Primary Secondary Tertiary Primordial 12. After admitting a patient involved in a road traffic accident, blood has been spilled on the hospital floor. Which disinfectant would you select for cleaning the floor? * 1 point Ethyl alcohol Chlorhexidine Sodium hypochlorite Formaldehyde 13. The blood pressure of a population was tracked from childhood to adulthood. It was observed that those who had lower BP in childhood had low BP in adulthood, while those who had higher BP in childhood had high BP in adulthood. This can be best described as: * 1 point Rule of halves Tracking of blood pressure Stepwise approach Primordial approach 14. Which of the following demographic indicators is used to compare the life expectancy of two different countries? * 1 point QALY DALY HPI HDI 15. Installation and usage of sanitary latrines by general public constitutes which level of prevention: * 1 point Health promotion Specific protection Early diagnosis and treatment Disability limitation and rehabilitation 16. Vaccination & Mass chemoprophylaxis represent * 1 point Health promotion Specific protection Rehabilitation Early diagnosis and treatment 17. A district has total population of 10 lacs, with under -16 populations being 30%. The prevalence of blindness is 0.8/1000 among under -16 populations. Calculate total number of blind among under 16 populations in the district. * 1 point 240 2400 24000 240000 18. 100% mortality disease, incidence and prevalence relationship will be * 1 point P=I P<I P>I No relationship 19. A person wants to study about relationship between smoking and lung cancer, so he collects data about people diseased with lung cancer from government hospitals and the no of cigarette packets sold at the same time period. Which type of study design is this? * 1 point Cross sectional Ecological Experimental Cohort study 20. The physical examination records of the entire incoming freshman class of 1953 at the University of Minnesota was examined in 1977 to see if their recorded height and weight at the time of admission to university was related to their chance of developing CHD. This is an example of * 1 point Case control study Concurrent Cohort study Non concurrent Cohort Study Interventional study 21.A research team conducts a study to investigate the association between smoking and bladder cancer. They select a group of patients with bladder cancer and compare their smoking history. Which of the following best describes the significance of the study in this scenario? * 1 point It allows for the determination of the incidence of bladder cancer among smokers and non smokers It helps to establish a temporal relationship between smoking and bladder cancer It is a cost effective and efficient way to study the association between smoking and bladder cancer It can be used to follow patients over time to observe development 22.All of the following are morbidity indicators except? * 1 point Notification rate Incidence rate Attendance rate Expectation of life 23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a common source epidemic with a single exposure? * 1 point The epidemic curve shows a rapid increase and decrease in cases Cases are spread across multiple incubation periods of the disease The epidemic often appears as explosive outbreak with cases clustered quickly Single tall peak with no secondary waves 24. Global Hunger index does not include which of the following component * 1 point IMR U5MR Child Mortality Rate Percentage of undernourished children under 5 years 25.All are correct about ILR (Ice Lined Refrigerator) except: * 1 point Keep all vaccines, including those returned under the Open Vial Policy, in the basket supplied with ILR. Store diluents at +2°C to +8°C at least 72 hours before use. Keep freeze-sensitive vaccines at the top of the basket. Arrange vaccines as per their expiry dates (early expiry ones above later expiry enes). 26.Which of the following is not included in the IT initiatives under Mission Indradhanush? * 1 point eVIN ANMOL SAFE-VAC AEFI 27.Glucose tolerance test is a useful screening test for diabetes. The ability of the test to differentiate diseased rom non diseases is called * 1 point Reliability specificity Sensitivity Validity 28.General fertility rate is 1 point Number of live birth in a women in the reproductive age group 15-44 years Number of live birth in unmarried women in the age group 15-44 years Number of children a women would have if she were to pass through reproductive years Number of abortions usually per 1000 woman of child bearing age 29. 4-8 person sitting in front of an audience and discussion health topic. They also invites Audience to ask question in the end. Which type of discussion is this. * 1 point Panel discussion Symposium Focused Group Discussion SPIKES 30. Which Agency funds TB program in India * 1 point SIDA WHO USAIDS DANIDA 31. Which of the following vaccines are given at birth? * 1 point Pentavalent, MR, HiB BCG, OPV, MR BCG,OPV, Hepatitis B BCG, IP, Hepatitis B 32. In Corrosive acid Case, Stomach is opened from which side? * 1 point Pylorus part Fundus side Lesser curvature side Greater curvature side 33. A surgeon performs a hysterectomy for uterine fibroids after obtaining relevant informed consent from the patient. Despite adequate precaution, the ureter was injured intraoperatively Under which of the following principles will the doctor not be held responsible for this act ? * 1 point Novus actas interveniens Medical maloccurrence Res ipsa loquitur Physician error 34. Black foot disease with peripheral neuropathy is seen in which metal poisoning? * 1 point Arsenic lead Mercury Cadmium 35.A 23 year old farm worker from a remote village is brought to the hospital 8 hours later, following a snake bite at 5 in the morning. The patient complained of headache, blurred vision, tingling sensation around the mouth, dizziness, and vertigo and had multiple episodes of vomiting since the bite. He has signs of respiratory depression and bradycardia (HR<50). The local wound showed mild swelling and blistering. There are no apparent bleeding manifestations. He was administered 10 vials of antivenom. Whićh of the following is the subsequent step of management? * 1 point Check the blood coagulation profile Neostigmine with atropine Epinephrine injection IV hydrocortisone 36. The Body of a 45-year-old male with a known history of HIV infection has been sent for Postmortem investigations. What is the best method of organ removal in the autopsy of this case? * 1 point Lettule’s method Ghon’s method Rokitansky method Virchow method 37. "An accused person is not criminally responsible, if at the time of committing the crime, he didn't have the capacity to regular his conduct to the requirement of the law, as as result of mental disease or defect" is stated in which rule * 1 point Duhrams rule American low institutes rule New Hampshire doctorine Curren’s rule 38. What is the term for a child born when a woman pretends to be pregnant and later uses the child to extort a man? * 1 point Supposititious child Superfecundation Posthumous child Superfetation 39. Which test is employed to distinguish human blood from blood of other species among the options provided? * 1 point Teichmann test Preciptin test Barbario test Takayama test 40.Pink feathery crystals are seen in ? * 1 point Takayama test Teichmann test Barbario’s test Xanthoprotein 41. Antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity? * 1 point Fomepizole Flumazenil Naloxone Physostigmine 42. A patient was brought to the casualty with greenish color skin and rotten egg odor. The most probable poisoning could be * 1 point Carbon monoxide Nitrite Cyanide Hydrogen sulphide 43. Bullet fingerprinting involve: * 1 point Primary markings Secondary markings Both None 44. In alleged history of gunshot injury, there is burning, blackening, tattooing around the wound. The Injury is : * 1 point Close shot entry wound Close shot exit wound Distant shot entry wound Distant shot exit wound 45.A patient was referred by a doctor to a radiologist for a CT scan and the doctor was given money for the referral. What is this unethical act called? * 1 point Dichotomy Medical maloccurrence Criminal negligence Commission 46. A surgeon returns home from a party after many pegs of alcohol and is called to perform an emergency operation. During the operation, the assisting staff noticed the handshaking and the instruments falling. He eventually nicks an artery and the patient collapses. Under which of the following terms will this incident be tried? * 1 point Criminal negligence Civil negligence not amounting to criminal negligence Therapeutic misadventure Dichotomy 47. What type of strangulation method is the Spanish windlass? * 1 point Bansdola Garroting Mugging Throttling 48. A 30-year-old pedestrian is hit by a car. He is noted to have a tibial fracture on the left leg and a contusion over the scalp on the right side. The tibial fracture in this patient is a result of? * 1 point Primary Impact Fracture Secondary Impact Fracture Tertiary Impact fracture Run- over Injury 49. Brush burn is a type of: * 1 point Linear abrasion Graze abrasion Imprint abrasion Pressure abrasion 50.Which of the following finding is considered as a positive result in Breslau's second life test? * 1 point Air in stomach and small intestine Meconium in the stomach and intestine Air in the middle ear Voluminous and crepitant lungs This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. - Contact form owner - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy Does this form look suspicious? Report Google Forms Give only answers

Here are the answers to all 50 questions:
  1. Cohort Study
  2. Case-control study
  3. Yellow- stable need observation
  4. ABC Analysis
  5. Meta-analysis
  6. Exotic
  7. Life expectancy at birth, literacy and standard of living
  8. Blinding
  9. Incidence and prevalence will increase
  10. Secondary
  11. Secondary
  12. Sodium hypochlorite
  13. Tracking of blood pressure
  14. HDI
  15. Health promotion (Specific protection - sanitary latrines fall under specific protection per Leavell & Clark)
  16. Specific protection
  17. 240 (10,00,000 × 30% = 3,00,000 × 0.8/1000 = 240)
  18. P < I (disease is fatal, so cases die quickly, reducing prevalence)
  19. Ecological
  20. Non concurrent Cohort Study
  21. It is a cost effective and efficient way to study the association between smoking and bladder cancer
  22. Expectation of life
  23. Cases are spread across multiple incubation periods of the disease
  24. Child Mortality Rate (GHI includes: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, child mortality U5MR)
  25. Store diluents at +2°C to +8°C at least 72 hours before use (diluents need 24 hours, not 72)
  26. AEFI
  27. Validity
  28. Number of live birth in a women in the reproductive age group 15-44 years
  29. Panel discussion
  30. DANIDA
  31. BCG, OPV, Hepatitis B
  32. Greater curvature side
  33. Medical maloccurrence
  34. Arsenic
  35. Neostigmine with atropine (neurotoxic snakebite - cobra, with respiratory depression)
  36. Virchow method (organ-by-organ removal, safest for infectious cases like HIV)
  37. Curren's rule
  38. Supposititious child
  39. Precipitin test
  40. Takayama test (haemochromogen/pink feathery crystals)
  41. Flumazenil
  42. Hydrogen sulphide
  43. Both (primary - land marks from barrel; secondary - from use)
  44. Close shot entry wound
  45. Dichotomy
  46. Criminal negligence
  47. Garroting
  48. Primary Impact Fracture
  49. Graze abrasion
  50. Air in stomach and small intestine

Psychiatry Quiz palaniprakash933@gmail.com Switch accounts * Indicates required question Email * Record palaniprakash933@gmail.com as the email to be included with my response 1.Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in schizophrenia? * Male gender Acute onset with clear precipitant Family history of schizophrenia Early age of onset (<20 years) 2.According to Bleuler's 4 As, which of the following is NOT a fundamental symptom of schizophrenia? * Autism Ambivalence Affect disturbance Auditory hallucinations 3.Which atypical antipsychotic has the LEAST propensity to cause extrapyramidal symptoms? * Risperidone Clozapine Paliperidone Amisulpride 4.Which of the following is the most common side effect of typical antipsychotics that limits their use? * Weight gain Extrapyramidal symptoms Sedation Hypotension 5.What is the most common long-term side effect of SSRIs? * Weight gain Sexual dysfunction Sedation Hypertension 6.Which of the following symptoms in a patient with depression suggests a medical emergency? * Depressed mood Guilt feelings Diurnal variation of mood Suicidal thoughts 7.Which sleep disturbance is typically present in depression? * Sleep onset insomnia Early morning insomnia Increased latency of REM sleep Hypersomnia 8.A patient presents with elevated mood, racing thoughts, decreased sleep for 5 days, but can still function at work. What is the diagnosis? * Manic episode Hypomanic episode Mixed episode Cyclothymia 9.A patient has worried excessively about multiple issues (health, finances, work) for the past 8 months, with difficulty concentrating and muscle tension. What is the diagnosis? * Generalized anxiety disorder Panic disorder Adjustment disorder with anxiety OCD 10.A couple seeks genetic counseling about causes of intellectual disability in children. Which chromosome abnormality is the most common cause of intellectual disability? * Fragile X syndrome Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) Turner syndrome Klinefelter syndrome 11.A 7-year-old boy has difficulty paying attention in class, frequently interrupts others, and cannot sit still. Symptoms started before age 8. What is the diagnosis? * Conduct disorder Oppositional defiant disorder Autism spectrum disorder ADHD 12.A patient with long-term heroin dependence is started on a medication that is a partial opioid agonist with a ceiling effect on respiratory depression. Which drug is this? * Methadone Naloxone Naltrexone Buprenorphine 13. A 23-year-old college student presents with a distorted perception of time, increased appetite, and conjunctival injection after smoking a substance. Which is the most likely substance used? * LSD Cocaine Cannabis Amphetamine 14.Which screening questionnaire for alcohol use disorder uses the acronym CAGE? * Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener Consumption, Abuse, Guilt, Effects Craving, Addiction, Guilt, Excess Control, Anger, Guilt, Ethics 15.A 32-year-old woman with severe melancholic depression and active suicidality is scheduled for modified ECT under general anesthesia with muscle relaxation. Which agent is preferred? * Propofol Ketamine Methohexital Etomidate 16.What is the first-line psychotherapy for anxiety disorders? * Psychoanalysis Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) Interpersonal therapy Supportive therapy 17.Which of the following best describes the clinical features of excoriation (skin-picking) disorder? * Repetitive skin picking associated with delusional infestation beliefs Compulsive skin picking leading to tissue damage, preceded by tension and followed by relief Skin picking secondary to tactile hallucinations in schizophrenia Recurrent excoriations due to allergic skin reactions 18.Which of the following antidepressants is most likely to cause sexual dysfunction? * Mirtazapine Bupropion Sertraline Agomelatine 19.Which of the following mood stabilizers requires monitoring of serum drug levels, renal function, and thyroid function? * Valproate Carbamazepine Lithium Lamotrigine 20.A child refuses to go to school, complains of stomach aches and headaches on school mornings, and clings to the mother.Symptoms resolve on weekends. The most likely diagnosis is: * Conduct disorder Separation anxiety disorder Social anxiety disorder School refusal due to specific phobia 21.Which antipsychotic is associated with the highest risk of metabolic syndrome including weight gain, hyperglycaemia, and dyslipidaemia? * Haloperidol Aripiprazole Olanzapine Amisulpride 22.A patient suffering from schizophrenia has failed adequate trials of two antipsychotic drugs. The drug of choice for this condition is: * Clozapine Olanzapine Haloperidol Risperidone 23.A patient is described as dramatic, attention-seeking, seductive, and emotionally shallow. She considers everyone she meets her"best friend." The most likely personality disorder is: * Borderline personality disorder Narcissistic personality disorder Dependent personality disorder Histrionic personality disorder 24.A patient on an antidepressant develops weight gain, sedation, and increased appetite. Which drug is MOST likely responsible? * Fluoxetine Mirtazapine Venlafaxine Bupropion 25.A patient presents with two distinct personality states that alternately take control of behaviour, each with its own memories, mannerisms, and name. The MOST likely diagnosis is: * Schizophrenia Borderline personality disorder Dissociative identity disorder Bipolar disorder 26.The first-line pharmacological treatment for Major Depressive Disorder is: * Amitriptyline Phenelzine Sertraline Lithium 27.A 20-year-old woman washes her hands over 50 times a day despite knowing it is excessive. She is distressed by the behaviour.The first line pharmacological treatment is: * Diazepam Fluoxetine Haloperidol Lithium 28.Under the Mental Healthcare Act 2017, the minimum age for making an advance directive for mental healthcare is: * 16 years 18 years 21 years No minimum age specified 29.A patient with bipolar disorder on lithium develops polyuria and polydipsia. Urine osmolality remains low despite water deprivation.The MOST likely mechanism is: * Lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus Lithium-induced central diabetes insipidus Psychogenic polydipsia Lithium-induced hypothyroidism causing fluid retention 30.The drug of choice for long-term pharmacological management of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is: * Alprazolam Buspirone or an SSRI Propranolol Clonazepam 31.A child with ADHD has a co-existing cardiac condition that makes stimulant medication unsuitable, so the psychiatrist selects a non-stimulant drug for ADHD. Which of the following is this? * Methylphenidate Modafinil Dextroamphetamine Atomoxetine 32.The effective S.lithium concentration to prevent relapse in bipolar disorder is- * 0.4-0.8 mEq/l 0.6-1.5 mEq/l 1.0-1.2 mEq/l 1.0-1.5 mEq/l 33.Besides depression with suicidal risk, electroconvulsive therapy is regarded as a first-line treatment for which of the following conditions? * Generalised anxiety disorder Specific phobia Catatonia Dysthymia 34.Bipolar II disorder is characterised by at least one episode each of * Hypomania and depression Mania and depression Mania and hypomania Depression and a mixed episode 35.A 6-year-old boy wakes up screaming and terrified every night within 2 hours of falling asleep. He does not recognise his parents during the episode and has no memory of it in the morning. The most likely diagnosis is: * Nightmare disorder Sleep terror disorder REM sleep behaviour disorder Sleepwalking disorder 36.A 35-year-old man describes feeling "frusgled" and says his mind is full of "blantrons," using these terms as though they carry clear meaning. This is termed: * Verbigeration Metonym Echolalia Neologism 37.A 33-year-old woman with bipolar disorder on lithium prophylaxis presents in a florid manic episode. Today's serum lithium level is 0.5 mmol/L and rapid symptom control is needed. The best next step is: * . Switch to carbamazepine Start an SSRI Add an antipsychotic Add a benzodiazepine only 38.A 43-year-old woman with major depressive disorder is started on bupropion. Which of the following pre-existing conditions represents the most critical contraindication to this medication? * Bulimia nervosa with active purging behavior Hypertension Insomnia Mild hepatic impairment 39.Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched regarding mechanism of action? * Disulfiram – blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase → acetaldehyde accumulation Acamprosate – blocks dopamine reuptake Naltrexone – blocks GABA-A receptors Methadone – partial mu agonist with kappa antagonism 40.Which of these is not categorized as an obsessive-compulsive and related disorder in the DSM-5? * Body dysmorphic disorder Excoriation disorder Hoarding disorder Hypochondriasis 41.During a psychiatric interview, a patient frequently shifts from one topic to another unrelated topic without completing any of them. This speech pattern is known as: * Circumstantiality Derailment Perseveration Tangentiality 42.Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder? * Chronic feelings of emptiness Frequent self-harm Grandiose self-importance Unstable interpersonal relationships 43.A 30-year-old male is brought in an agitated, combative state. Examination reveals nystagmus (horizontal AND vertical),hypertension, hyperthermia, and analgesia. He is insensitive to pain.Urine toxicology is pending. The most likely intoxicant is: * Cocaine LSD Phencyclidine (PCP) MDMA (Ecstasy) 44.Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with schizophrenia? * Serotonin Dopamine GABA Acetylcholine 45.The treatment of choice for catatonia is: * Lithium Lorazepam Clozapine Fluoxetine 46.The mood stabilizer causing Ebstein anomaly when used during pregnancy is: * Valproate Carbamazepine Lithium Lamotrigine 47.Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is used to assess: * Intelligence Personality Cognitive function Mood 48.A patient develops tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia after taking antipsychotics. This is: * Akathisia Acute dystonia Drug-induced parkinsonism Tardive dyskinesia 49.A patient hears voices commenting on his actions. This is: * Illusion Delusion Third-person auditory hallucination Depersonalization 50.The gold standard treatment for severe depression with suicidal risk is: * CBT SSRIs Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) Buspirone This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. - Contact form owner - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy Does this form look suspicious? Report Google Forms Give correct answers only

  1. Acute onset with clear precipitant
  2. Auditory hallucinations
  3. Clozapine
  4. Extrapyramidal symptoms
  5. Sexual dysfunction
  6. Suicidal thoughts
  7. Early morning insomnia
  8. Hypomanic episode
  9. Generalized anxiety disorder
  10. Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
  11. ADHD
  12. Buprenorphine
  13. Cannabis
  14. Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener
  15. Methohexital
  16. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
  17. Compulsive skin picking leading to tissue damage, preceded by tension and followed by relief
  18. Sertraline
  19. Lithium
  20. Separation anxiety disorder
  21. Olanzapine
  22. Clozapine
  23. Histrionic personality disorder
  24. Mirtazapine
  25. Dissociative identity disorder
  26. Sertraline
  27. Fluoxetine
  28. 18 years
  29. Lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  30. Buspirone or an SSRI
  31. Atomoxetine
  32. 0.6-1.5 mEq/l
  33. Catatonia
  34. Hypomania and depression
  35. Sleep terror disorder
  36. Neologism
  37. Add an antipsychotic
  38. Bulimia nervosa with active purging behavior
  39. Disulfiram – blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase → acetaldehyde accumulation
  40. Hypochondriasis
  41. Derailment
  42. Grandiose self-importance
  43. Phencyclidine (PCP)
  44. Dopamine
  45. Lorazepam
  46. Lithium
  47. Cognitive function
  48. Drug-induced parkinsonism
  49. Third-person auditory hallucination
  50. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
This is a shared conversation. Sign in to Orris to start your own chat.