Here are exam-oriented question sets on autocoids, organized by difficulty and type:
AUTOCOIDS — Exam Question Bank
SECTION A: Single Best Answer (MCQs)
1. Histamine is synthesized from L-histidine by which enzyme?
- A) Histaminase
- B) Histidine decarboxylase ✅
- C) Monoamine oxidase
- D) Diamine oxidase
Explanation: Histidine decarboxylase catalyzes the decarboxylation of L-histidine to histamine. MAO and diamine oxidase (DAO) are involved in its metabolism, not synthesis.
2. A patient develops severe bronchoconstriction, urticaria, and hypotension after a penicillin injection. Which autocoid is the PRIMARY mediator of this reaction?
- A) Bradykinin
- B) Serotonin
- C) Histamine ✅
- D) Leukotriene C4
Explanation: IgE-mediated (Type I hypersensitivity) anaphylaxis is primarily driven by histamine released from mast cells and basophils. LTC4 contributes to bronchoconstriction but is secondary.
3. The H3 receptor for histamine is predominantly located:
- A) On gastric parietal cells
- B) On presynaptic neurons in the CNS ✅
- C) On circulating eosinophils
- D) On vascular endothelium
Explanation: H3 receptors are presynaptic autoreceptors (and heteroreceptors) in the CNS and peripheral nerves. They inhibit release of histamine and other neurotransmitters (ACh, amines, peptides) via Gi → ↓cAMP.
4. Which of the following H1-antihistamines is LEAST likely to cause sedation?
- A) Diphenhydramine
- B) Promethazine
- C) Chlorpheniramine
- D) Fexofenadine ✅
Explanation: Fexofenadine is a second-generation H1 blocker that does not cross the blood-brain barrier significantly, hence minimal sedation. First-generation agents readily enter the CNS.
5. Serotonin is metabolized primarily to:
- A) N-methylserotonin
- B) 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) ✅
- C) Indoleacetic acid
- D) Homovanillic acid
Explanation: 5-HT is oxidized by MAO-A to 5-HIAA, which is excreted in urine. Elevated urinary 5-HIAA is a diagnostic marker for carcinoid tumors.
6. Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan) act as agonists at which serotonin receptor subtype?
- A) 5-HT2A
- B) 5-HT3
- C) 5-HT1B/1D ✅
- D) 5-HT4
Explanation: Triptans are selective 5-HT1B/1D agonists. 5-HT1B receptors on cranial blood vessels cause vasoconstriction; 5-HT1D receptors on trigeminal nerve terminals inhibit neuropeptide release - both actions abort migraines.
7. Which enzyme is identical to Kininase II?
- A) Renin
- B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) ✅
- C) Chymase
- D) Tryptase
Explanation: Kininase II = ACE. It cleaves the C-terminal dipeptide from bradykinin, inactivating it. ACE inhibitors block this, prolonging bradykinin's action - contributing to their antihypertensive effect and causing the dry cough side effect.
8. A 58-year-old hypertensive patient on enalapril develops a persistent dry cough. The cough is MOST likely due to accumulation of:
- A) Angiotensin II
- B) Aldosterone
- C) Bradykinin ✅
- D) Substance P (direct)
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block kininase II, preventing bradykinin degradation. Accumulated bradykinin stimulates airway sensory C-fibres (which also release substance P and CGRP), causing cough. Switching to an ARB (which does not affect bradykinin) resolves the cough.
9. The "slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis" (SRS-A) is now known to consist of:
- A) Histamine and serotonin
- B) LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 ✅
- C) PGD2 and TxA2
- D) PAF and bradykinin
Explanation: SRS-A, described before the individual components were identified, is the mixture of cysteinyl leukotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, LTE4). They cause sustained bronchoconstriction 100-1000x more potent than histamine.
10. Montelukast treats asthma by blocking which receptor?
- A) BLT1 (LTB4 receptor)
- B) DP2 (CRTH2)
- C) CysLT1 ✅
- D) EP4
Explanation: Montelukast and zafirlukast are CysLT1 receptor antagonists, blocking the action of LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 on bronchial smooth muscle, reducing bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion.
11. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking:
- A) COX-2 only
- B) Phospholipase A2
- C) COX-1, preventing TxA2 synthesis ✅
- D) The thromboxane TP receptor
Explanation: Aspirin acetylates and irreversibly inhibits COX-1 in platelets (which lack nuclei and cannot synthesize new COX). This blocks TxA2 synthesis for the platelet's lifetime (~10 days). Vascular endothelial cells can regenerate COX-2 to produce PGI2.
12. Prostacyclin (PGI2) and TxA2 have OPPOSING effects on:
- A) Leukocyte chemotaxis
- B) Platelet aggregation and vascular tone ✅
- C) Fever generation
- D) Uterine contractility
Explanation: PGI2 (from endothelium): vasodilation + inhibits platelets. TxA2 (from platelets): vasoconstriction + promotes platelet aggregation. The balance between these maintains vascular homeostasis.
13. Which prostaglandin analog is used in the treatment of glaucoma?
- A) Misoprostol (PGE1)
- B) Latanoprost (PGF2α) ✅
- C) Epoprostenol (PGI2)
- D) Alprostadil (PGE1)
Explanation: Latanoprost is a PGF2α analog that reduces intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor. It is a first-line topical treatment for open-angle glaucoma.
14. Corticosteroids inhibit the production of ALL eicosanoids by:
- A) Directly blocking COX-2
- B) Inducing lipocortin (annexin A1) which inhibits phospholipase A2 ✅
- C) Inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase
- D) Blocking the thromboxane synthase enzyme
Explanation: Corticosteroids induce synthesis of lipocortin (annexin A1), which inhibits phospholipase A2 (PLA2). Since PLA2 liberates arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids - the common precursor for all eicosanoids - all pathways (COX + LOX + CYP) are suppressed.
15. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) exerts its natriuretic effect via:
- A) Stimulating aldosterone release
- B) Activating guanylyl cyclase receptors → ↑cGMP ✅
- C) Inhibiting renin via Gi-coupled receptors
- D) Directly blocking ENaC channels
Explanation: ANP binds to particulate (membrane-bound) guanylyl cyclase receptors (GC-A/NPR-A), generating cGMP as second messenger, which causes vasodilation and natriuresis. It also inhibits renin and aldosterone release.
SECTION B: Extended Matching Questions (EMQs)
For questions 16-22, match the drug/substance to the mechanism:
Options:
- A) Irreversible COX-1 inhibitor
- B) CysLT1 receptor antagonist
- C) 5-LOX inhibitor
- D) H2 receptor antagonist
- E) 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
- F) PGI2 analog
- G) H1 receptor antagonist (2nd generation)
- H) 5-HT1B/1D agonist
- I) Kallikrein inhibitor
- J) ETA/ETB receptor antagonist
| Q | Drug | Answer |
|---|
| 16 | Sumatriptan | H |
| 17 | Cetirizine | G |
| 18 | Aspirin (low dose antiplatelet) | A |
| 19 | Ondansetron | E |
| 20 | Zileuton | C |
| 21 | Bosentan | J |
| 22 | Ecallantide | I |
SECTION C: Short Answer / High-Yield Vivas
Q23. Explain why ACE inhibitors cause a dry cough but ARBs do not.
Answer: ACE (= Kininase II) normally degrades bradykinin by cleaving its C-terminal dipeptide. ACE inhibitors block this degradation → bradykinin accumulates in the airways. Excess bradykinin stimulates sensory C-fibre nerve endings (via B2 receptors) → releases substance P and CGRP → activates the cough reflex. ARBs (e.g. losartan) block the AT1 receptor downstream without affecting bradykinin metabolism, so no cough occurs.
Q24. What is the "triple response of Lewis"? Which autocoid mediates it?
Answer: The triple response is elicited by a firm stroke on the skin:
- Red line - local vasodilation (direct effect on capillaries)
- Flare - surrounding erythema (axon reflex - sensory nerve stimulation)
- Wheal - localized oedema (↑capillary permeability)
All three components are mediated primarily by histamine released from dermal mast cells, acting via H1 receptors.
Q25. Compare LTB4 and LTC4/D4/E4 in terms of source, receptor, and biological action.
Answer:
| Feature | LTB4 | LTC4/D4/E4 (Cysteinyl-LTs) |
|---|
| Source | Neutrophils, macrophages | Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils |
| Receptor | BLT1, BLT2 | CysLT1, CysLT2 |
| Action | Neutrophil chemotaxis and adhesion; promotes acute inflammation | Bronchoconstriction (1000× > histamine), ↑mucus, ↑vascular permeability |
| Role in disease | Psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease | Asthma, anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis |
Q26. A patient with hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents with recurrent episodes of non-pitting oedema of the face, larynx, and abdomen. What is the underlying biochemical defect and how are the episodes treated?
Answer:
- Defect: C1-esterase inhibitor (C1-INH) deficiency (Type I) or dysfunction (Type II) → uncontrolled activation of plasma kallikrein → excess bradykinin generation → B2 receptor activation → massive ↑vascular permeability
- Acute treatment:
- Icatibant - bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist
- Ecallantide - plasma kallikrein inhibitor
- C1-INH concentrate (Berinert, Cinryze) - replaces the deficient protein
- Prophylaxis: Lanadelumab (anti-kallikrein monoclonal antibody), C1-INH concentrate, tranexamic acid
Q27. Why does selective COX-2 inhibition (coxibs) increase cardiovascular risk?
Answer: COX-2 is the dominant isoform in vascular endothelium responsible for producing PGI2 (prostacyclin), which:
- Inhibits platelet aggregation
- Causes vasodilation
- Is cardioprotective
COX-1 in platelets produces TxA2 (prothrombotic, vasoconstrictive).
Aspirin and non-selective NSAIDs block both enzymes. Coxibs selectively suppress PGI2 production without affecting platelet TxA2, tipping the balance toward a prothrombotic state → ↑risk of MI and stroke. This was demonstrated by the rofecoxib (Vioxx) withdrawal in 2004.
Q28. What is PAF (Platelet-Activating Factor)? List its sources and three key pathological roles.
Answer:
- Structure: 1-O-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (acetylated phospholipid - NOT a classic eicosanoid)
- Sources: Platelets, mast cells, neutrophils, monocytes/macrophages, vascular endothelium
- Pathological roles:
- Anaphylaxis - potent bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction
- Severe sepsis - hypotension via vasodilation at high concentrations, endothelial activation
- Asthma - bronchoconstriction + eosinophil recruitment; PAF-acetylhydrolase deficiency is linked to severe asthma in children
SECTION D: Fill in the Blanks (High-Yield Facts)
| # | Statement | Answer |
|---|
| 29 | The rate-limiting enzyme in serotonin synthesis is _____ | Tryptophan hydroxylase |
| 30 | ET-1 is the most potent endogenous _____ known | Vasoconstrictor |
| 31 | Cysteinyl leukotrienes are formerly called _____ | Slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) |
| 32 | ↑Urinary 5-HIAA is diagnostic of _____ | Carcinoid tumor/syndrome |
| 33 | The second messenger for ANP is _____ | cGMP |
| 34 | Nesiritide is a recombinant form of _____ used in acute heart failure | BNP |
| 35 | _____ inhibits PLA2 by inducing lipocortin synthesis | Corticosteroids |
| 36 | The half-life of TxA2 is approximately _____ | 30 seconds |
| 37 | Pitolisant is an inverse agonist/antagonist at _____ receptors used in narcolepsy | H3 |
| 38 | Bradykinin's half-life in circulation is less than _____ | 15 seconds |
SECTION E: Scenario-Based (Integrated Thinking)
Q39. A group of physicians at a restaurant all develop flushing, tachycardia, headache, and hypotension minutes after eating swordfish. What is the diagnosis and mechanism?
Answer: Scombroid fish poisoning (histamine fish poisoning). Bacterial contamination of improperly stored fish (tuna, mackerel, swordfish) causes bacterial decarboxylation of histidine → high levels of histamine in the fish. Ingestion leads to systemic histamine effects. Treatment: H1 + H2 antihistamines.
Q40. A patient with aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (Samter's triad) develops bronchospasm after taking ibuprofen. What is the mechanism?
Answer: In susceptible individuals, COX inhibition by NSAIDs blocks the conversion of arachidonic acid via the COX pathway. This shunts AA into the 5-LOX pathway, dramatically increasing production of cysteinyl leukotrienes (LTC4/D4/E4) → severe bronchoconstriction. These patients often have baseline eosinophilic inflammation and nasal polyps. Treatment: leukotriene receptor antagonists (montelukast), and avoidance of COX inhibitors.
Q41. Which autocoid would be elevated in a patient with a carcinoid tumour arising from the small intestine, and what clinical syndrome results?
Answer: Serotonin (5-HT) is secreted in excess by enterochromaffin cells of carcinoid tumours. Normally, 5-HT undergoes first-pass hepatic metabolism, but with liver metastases (or primary lung carcinoid), it reaches systemic circulation. Clinical syndrome: carcinoid syndrome - episodic flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, right-sided valvular heart disease (tricuspid regurgitation, pulmonary stenosis). Diagnosis: ↑urinary 5-HIAA. Treatment: octreotide (somatostatin analog).
QUICK RECALL CARD
AMINE AUTOCOIDS
Histamine: H1(Gq) H2(Gs) H3(Gi-presynaptic) H4(Gi-WBCs)
Serotonin: 5-HT1(Gi) 5-HT2(Gq) 5-HT3(ion channel) 5-HT4(Gs)
PEPTIDE AUTOCOIDS
Bradykinin: Kallikrein→Kininogens→BK; B1(inflam) B2(constitutive)
ACE = Kininase II → inhibitors ↑BK → cough
ANP/BNP: GC-A receptor → ↑cGMP → natriuresis
ET-1: most potent vasoconstrictor; ECE synthesis; ETA(constrict) ETB(dilate)
LIPID AUTOCOIDS (all from AA via PLA2)
COX → Prostanoids (NSAIDs/aspirin block)
PGE2: fever, pain, vasodilation
PGI2: vasodilation, ↓platelets (endothelium)
TxA2: vasoconstriction, ↑platelets (platelets)
LOX → Leukotrienes (zileuton blocks 5-LOX)
LTB4: neutrophil chemotaxis
LTC4/D4/E4: bronchoconstriction (montelukast blocks)
PAF: platelet + mast cell product; anaphylaxis, sepsis
KEY DRUG LINKS
Aspirin → irreversible COX-1 → antiplatelet
Coxibs → ↓PGI2 only → ↑CV risk
ACEi → ↑bradykinin → cough (not ARBs)
Corticosteroids → lipocortin → ↓PLA2 → block all eicosanoids
These 41 questions span MCQs, EMQs, short answers, viva scenarios, and rapid-recall formats - covering the full spectrum of what exams test on autocoids. Let me know if you want these exported as a PPTX or PDF quiz format.