Here are high-yield viva questions a professor is likely to ask, organized from basic to tricky:
Viva Questions: Pathophysiology of Fever
BASIC / OPENING QUESTIONS
Q1. What is the normal body temperature and how is it regulated?
A: Normal oral temperature is 36.0°C - 37.8°C (96.8°F - 100.0°F). It follows a circadian rhythm - lowest in early morning (6 AM), highest in late afternoon (4-6 PM). It is regulated by the preoptic anterior hypothalamus, which acts as the body's thermostat. Temperature sensors throughout the body provide feedback via neural pathways. The hypothalamus then coordinates heat gain/loss through vasomotor changes, shivering, metabolic heat production, and behavioral changes.
Q2. What temperature defines fever?
A: There is no universal consensus. The CDC defines fever as a core temperature >38.0°C (100.4°F) in the absence of fever-reducing medication. Most clinicians consider >38.3°C (100.9°F) a significant fever. Temperatures >41°C (105.8°F) are usually due to hyperthermia rather than true fever.
Q3. What is a pyrogen? Give one exogenous and one endogenous example.
A: A pyrogen is any substance that causes fever. The classic exogenous pyrogen is LPS (lipopolysaccharide/endotoxin) from the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. The classic endogenous pyrogen is IL-1β (Interleukin-1 beta), a cytokine released by activated macrophages.
MECHANISM-BASED QUESTIONS
Q4. What is the single most important mediator in the final pathway of fever generation?
A: Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). All pyrogenic signals - whether exogenous (LPS via TLR-4) or endogenous (IL-1β, TNF-α, IL-6) - ultimately converge on the hypothalamus through PGE2. PGE2 acts on EP1 and EP3 receptors in the preoptic area, raising the thermoregulatory set point. This is why blocking PGE2 synthesis (via NSAIDs) effectively reduces fever regardless of the cause.
Q5. Which enzyme is the key target of NSAIDs in fever reduction? What is the difference between COX-1 and COX-2 in this context?
A: The key enzyme is Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). It is inducible - upregulated in the hypothalamus in response to IL-1β and TNF-α during fever. COX-1 is the constitutive ("housekeeping") isoform found in most tissues - it protects the gastric mucosa and helps in platelet aggregation. COX-2 is the inducible isoform responsible for pathological PGE2 production in fever and inflammation. Traditional NSAIDs (ibuprofen, aspirin) inhibit both. Selective COX-2 inhibitors (celecoxib) spare COX-1, reducing GI side effects.
Q6. If a patient is given aspirin vs. ibuprofen for fever, what is the mechanistic difference?
A:
- Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid): Causes irreversible acetylation of the serine residue in the active site of both COX-1 and COX-2. New enzyme must be synthesized to restore function. In platelets (which lack nuclei), COX-1 inhibition is permanent for the platelet's lifetime (~10 days).
- Ibuprofen: Causes reversible, competitive inhibition of both COX isoforms. Effect wears off as the drug is cleared.
- Both reduce fever by the same endpoint: ↓ PGE2 → set point normalizes.
Q7. Why does paracetamol (acetaminophen) reduce fever but has no significant anti-inflammatory action?
A: Paracetamol inhibits COX enzymes centrally (in the CNS) but has very weak peripheral inhibition. In a lipid-rich, low-peroxide environment (like the CNS), it can inhibit COX. In inflamed peripheral tissues with high peroxide concentrations (from neutrophil activity), paracetamol is oxidized and rendered inactive. So it reduces hypothalamic PGE2 (→ antipyretic) but does not suppress peripheral prostaglandin synthesis significantly (→ no anti-inflammatory effect).
Q8. A patient presents with a temperature of 42°C after working in a hot environment. You give IV paracetamol but the temperature does not come down. Why?
A: This is hyperthermia, not fever. In hyperthermia, the hypothalamic set point is normal - the problem is the body's inability to dissipate excess heat. No PGE2-mediated set point elevation is occurring, so antipyretics (which work by lowering PGE2) have no effect. Management requires physical cooling methods - ice packs, cooling blankets, cool IV fluids, and moving the patient to a cool environment.
TRICKY / APPLIED QUESTIONS
Q9. If both fever and hyperthermia elevate body temperature, why is hyperthermia more dangerous?
A: Two reasons:
- No ceiling mechanism: In fever, the body's own anti-pyretic mechanisms (endogenous antipyretics like arginine vasopressin, α-MSH, IL-10) and the fixed dose of pyrogen limit how high the temperature rises - usually not beyond 41°C in true fever. In hyperthermia, there is no such regulatory ceiling; temperatures can exceed 42-43°C.
- No adaptive response: Fever is a coordinated response where the body "wants" the higher temperature. In hyperthermia, the hypothalamus is desperately trying to cool down but cannot. Temperatures above 41-42°C cause direct protein denaturation, enzyme dysfunction, and multi-organ failure.
Q10. What are endogenous antipyretics? Why don't we get fever indefinitely?
A: The body has built-in mechanisms that limit the febrile response:
- Arginine vasopressin (AVP) - released from hypothalamus; acts centrally to limit fever
- α-Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (α-MSH) - potent antipyretic and anti-inflammatory peptide
- IL-10 - anti-inflammatory cytokine; inhibits macrophage activation and cytokine production
- Glucocorticoids - cortisol suppresses cytokine production and PGE2 synthesis
These constitute a negative feedback system - as fever rises, anti-inflammatory signals also rise to keep the response proportionate.
Q11. Why is the temperature in fever rarely above 41°C in bacterial infections, but febrile seizures can occur even at 38-39°C?
A: These are independent variables:
- The upper limit of fever is controlled by endogenous antipyretics (AVP, α-MSH, IL-10) - these kick in as temperature rises, preventing runaway fever.
- Febrile seizures depend not so much on the absolute temperature but on the rate of temperature rise - a rapid rise from 37°C to 38.5°C can trigger a seizure just as readily as a higher temperature. The immature, incompletely myelinated brain of young children has a lower seizure threshold and is more sensitive to rapid temperature changes and their effects on ion channel kinetics.
Q12. A child has had 3 febrile seizures by age 4. What is the risk of epilepsy later in life? What factors worsen the prognosis?
A: The baseline risk of later epilepsy after febrile seizures is approximately 7% by age 25 (vs. ~1% in the general population). Risk increases significantly with complex features:
- 1 complex feature (prolonged >15 min, focal, or >1 in 24h): 6-8%
- 2 complex features: 17-22%
- All 3 complex features: ~49%
Additional poor prognostic factors:
- Pre-existing neurodevelopmental abnormalities
- Family history of epilepsy
- Febrile status epilepticus (can cause hippocampal injury → sclerosis → temporal lobe epilepsy)
- Recurrent febrile seizures
Q13. You are advising parents of a child who just had a first simple febrile seizure. They ask if you should start phenobarbital to prevent epilepsy. What do you say?
A: You advise against chronic prophylaxis. Evidence (Farwell et al., 1990) shows that while phenobarbital can reduce recurrence of febrile seizures, it does not reduce the risk of later epilepsy, and carries significant cognitive side effects in developing children (impaired IQ, behavioral problems). The benefits do not outweigh the risks. For high-risk children, intermittent rectal diazepam administered at the onset of fever is preferred - it prevents seizures without the toxicity of daily medication.
Q14. Which cytokines are called "endogenous pyrogens"? Which one is also responsible for leukocytosis during fever?
A: The endogenous pyrogens are IL-1β, TNF-α, IL-6, and IFN-γ. For leukocytosis:
- TNF-α and IL-1 drive accelerated release of granulocytes from the bone marrow (explaining the early neutrophilia with left shift)
- IL-6 is integral to the production of acute-phase reactants (CRP, fibrinogen, haptoglobin, serum amyloid A)
- Prolonged infection → colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) from macrophages → proliferation of precursors in bone marrow
Q15. What is "temperature-pulse dissociation" and in which fevers is it classically seen?
A: Normally, heart rate rises 2-5 beats per minute per 1°F increase in temperature (Liebermeister's rule). Temperature-pulse dissociation (relative bradycardia) is the absence of this expected tachycardia despite significant fever. It is classically seen in:
- Typhoid fever (Salmonella typhi)
- Leptospirosis
- Rickettsiosis
- Dengue fever
- Legionellosis
- Babesiosis
The mechanism involves direct autonomic effects of the pathogen or toxin on cardiac conduction.
Q16. How does iron sequestration during fever help fight infection? Is it always beneficial?
A: During the acute-phase response, hepcidin is released (stimulated by IL-6), which promotes sequestration of iron in macrophages and reduces serum iron. Since many pathogens (especially gram-negative bacteria) require iron for growth and virulence (siderophore production), reducing available serum iron is bacteriostatic. Additionally, lactoferrin and ferritin bind free iron.
However, it is not always beneficial - in anemia of chronic disease/inflammation, prolonged iron sequestration causes a hypochromic, normocytic/microcytic anemia that does not respond to iron supplementation because the problem is not deficiency but sequestration.
CLASSIC TRAP / EXAMINER FAVOURITE
Q17. A patient with severe sepsis does NOT develop fever. Is this a good or bad sign?
A: It is a bad sign. Studies show that patients with severe bacterial infection who fail to mount a fever have higher morbidity and mortality. This is because fever is a protective host response - it inhibits pathogen replication, enhances neutrophil mobilization, and improves immune function. The absence of fever in sepsis usually indicates:
- Overwhelming infection with immune exhaustion
- Elderly or immunocompromised patient (blunted cytokine response)
- Antipyretic medication masking fever
- Associated with development of septic shock and worse outcomes
Q18. Can you name the step at which LPS (endotoxin) first acts to generate fever?
A: LPS binds to CD14 (a co-receptor on macrophages) in complex with LPS-binding protein (LBP). This complex then signals through TLR-4 (Toll-Like Receptor 4) on the macrophage surface. TLR-4 signaling via MyD88 and TRIF adaptor proteins activates NF-κB, which drives transcription of pyrogenic cytokines (IL-1β, TNF-α, IL-6) and directly induces COX-2 expression - leading to PGE2 synthesis and fever.
These questions span the full breadth of the topic - from basic definitions a professor might open with, to mechanistic traps that distinguish a good answer from an excellent one. The questions marked "Tricky/Applied" are the ones most likely to be asked after your seminar presentation.