You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of progressive pain and stiffness of the fingers of her right hand. The stiffness is worse at the end of the day. She recently retired after working for 28 years as a typist at a data entry firm. Physical examination shows swelling, joint-line tenderness, and decreased range of motion of the first metacarpophalangeal joint and the distal interphalangeal joints of the right hand. Discrete, hard, mildly tender nodules are palpated over the 2nd and 4th distal interphalangeal joints of the right hand. An x-ray of her right hand shows narrowing of the interphalangeal joint spaces with subchondral sclerosis and osteophytes. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's condition? Options: A) Bacterial infection of the joint space B) Autoimmune-mediated cartilage erosion C) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal precipitation in the joints D) Degenerative disease of the joints Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.