Question 1 — Incorrect ❌
Correct Answer: C (and elements of D)
Explanation:
Loss of signal on one side without visible transection is a warning sign, not a confirmation of permanent injury. The causes are often reversible: traction, thermal spread from energy devices, a clip placed near the nerve, or a positioning issue with the monitoring electrode.
The critical danger with your answer (B) is the risk of bilateral RLN injury. If you proceed with the contralateral side normally after an ipsilateral signal loss, and you injure the left RLN as well, the patient wakes up with bilateral vocal cord paralysis - a life-threatening emergency requiring emergency tracheostomy, and a devastating outcome for what may have been a benign or low-risk cancer.
The correct approach (per Current Surgical Therapy and Scott-Brown's):
- Pause and troubleshoot the signal loss (check electrode position, remove any offending clip, release traction)
- If signal does not return, proceed on the contralateral side with extreme caution, treating it as a "last nerve standing" situation
- Some surgeons stage the operation - completing the right side and delaying the left to a second sitting after vocal cord function is assessed
- Intraoperative nerve monitoring does not decrease injury rates per se, but loss of signal is a well-recognized indication to alter surgical strategy
"Routine use of intraoperative nerve monitoring has not been shown to decrease rates of recurrent laryngeal nerve injury" - Current Surgical Therapy 14e, p. 894
The lesson: bilateral RLN injury avoidance is the governing principle in total thyroidectomy when a signal event occurs.
Question 2
A non-recurrent laryngeal nerve (NRLN) is a rare but surgically important anatomical variant.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the NRLN?
A. It occurs equally on both left and right sides
B. On the right side, it is associated with an aberrant right subclavian artery (arteria lusoria)
C. It arises directly from the superior laryngeal nerve
D. It is more common on the left side due to the embryological position of the aortic arch
(Give your answer with reasoning if you like)