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Maxillo Questions - Part 1 (Correct Answers)

1. What is the Latin name of the sharp demarcation zone between the lip and adjacent normal skin? Answer: Limbus labialis / Limbus vermilii / Margo labialis
2. What is the normal overjet between upper and lower incisors? Answer: b) 1-3 mm
3. How many classes of malocclusions exist according to Angle's classification? Answer: b) 3
4. What fills the chamber and canal of the tooth? Answer: Dental pulp (pulpa dentis)
5. With dental bridges, what is the type of load on supporting structures? Answer: b) on the teeth AND c) combined dento-gingival load (both marked correct)
6. What is the main symptom of pulp hyperemia? Answer: Sharp, acute pain triggered by external stimuli (usually cold, sweet, or hot food/drinks) that disappears immediately or within a few seconds after the stimulus is removed.
7. Apicotomy is a surgical procedure that: Answer: c) Removes the tip of the tooth root together with the pathological process in it, with previous or simultaneous obturation of the canal with non-resorbable material
8. What is the most important function of periodontal fibers? Answer: b) Fixation of the teeth in the alveolus AND c) Transmission of occlusal pressure through the teeth to the alveolar bone (both marked correct)
9. Herpetic gingivo-stomatitis is a disease of: Answer: a) Children
10. How is the first lower right premolar designated in the binary (FDI) number system? Answer: 44
11. Which X-rays are used to detect the (periapical) focus? Answer: Orthopantomogram and Retroalveolar Radiography
12. Transverse fractures of the upper jaw are classified by? Answer: Le Fort classification system
13. Sure signs of a fracture of the lower jaw are (2 correct): Answer: b) Crepitations AND d) Sensitivity disorder of the mandibular nerve (Note: e) Deformity of the lower third of the face was also marked with a question mark in the document)
14. Adequate therapeutic procedures in the treatment of dentogenic abscesses include: Answer: c) Incision and drainage with immediate treatment of the tooth causing the infection AND antibiotic therapy
15. What epithelium are pseudocysts lined with? Answer: Pseudocysts are not lined by any epithelium at all (this distinguishes them from true cysts)
16. Rubber bands are used for fractures: Answer: a) For short-term intermaxillary fixation
17. Epulis represents: Answer: e) Connective tissue hyperplasia of the gingiva
18. The most common localisation of a fracture of the lower jaw: Answer: c) Paramental region AND e) Condylar process (both marked correct)
19. The most commonly used operative method of plastic oroantral communication is? Answer: Rehrmann buccal advancement flap
20. A favorable fracture line extends from the alveolar process: Answer: b) Backward
21. The anti-mongoloid position of the eye-slit is a sign of fracture of: Answer: c) Zygoma bone
22. Which cutaneous precancers affect the development of squamous cell carcinoma? Answer: a) Actinic keratosis
23. Which type of melanoma is characterized by verticalization (vertical growth phase)? Answer: Nodular melanoma
24. Warthin's tumor: Answer: c) Extremely rarely malignantly alters
25. What is the largest lymph node in the neck? Answer: Jugulodigastric lymph node (Kuttner's lymph node)
26. Which type of leukoplakia most often changes malignantly? Answer: a) Erosive (leukoplakia)
27. What is the purpose of elective neck dissection? Answer: c) Removal of hidden (occult) metastases
28. Definitive immobilization of mandibular fractures is done using: Answer: c) Mini-plates
29. What is the sign of good wound debridement? Answer: A clean, bleeding wound bed with visible, healthy red granulation tissue and capillary bleeding
30. Dal Pont's operation is used in: Answer: c) Progenia (mandibular prognathism)

Maxillo Questions - Part 2 (Correct Answers)

1. How are Sharpey fibers gathered? Answer: c) In bundles
2. What is the name of the space between the teeth and the bone? Answer: Periodontal space (or periodontal cleft)
3. Why does the dental cavity reduce its space in the elderly? Answer: Continuous, lifelong deposition of secondary dentin, along with the formation of tertiary (reparative) dentin
4. What is tooth 45? Answer: Permanent mandibular right second premolar
5. Milk (primary) dentition has the following morphological forms of teeth (more correct answers): Answer: a) Incisors, b) Canines, e) 8 molars (no premolars in primary dentition)
6. In which order does the upper permanent canine erupt? Answer: c) Third in line OR d) Fourth in line (both marked)
7. Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder in the structure of: Answer: e) Enamel
8. In which earliest stage of periodontitis do gingival pockets appear? Answer: b) Initial stage AND c) Stage of developed clinical signs (both marked)
9. During prosthetic rehabilitation, what needs to be made as compensation for a missing crown part (stump)? Answer: Core buildup, or for extensive loss, a post and core
10. What two parts does a standard cylindrical dental implant consist of? Answer: a) Body (post) AND b) Neck - with abutment (c) noted as a possible third component
11. Which muscle attaches from outside and which from inside of the ramus of the mandible? Answer:
  • Outside (lateral surface): Masseter muscle
  • Inside (medial surface): Medial pterygoid muscle
12. In a single condyle mandibular fracture, a patient cannot move the jaw to which side? Answer: a) On the healthy side AND c) On the sick side - both marked; clinically the jaw deviates toward the fractured side, meaning the patient cannot laterally move toward the healthy side effectively.
13. Where is the most frequent localisation of mandible fracture by indirect mechanism? Answer: c) Condylar process
14. A jaw fracture is open when: Answer: a) Fracture gap includes the periodontal space AND b) The fracture line reaches the gingival mucosa
15. Which salivary tumor is formed by inclusion of glandular tissue in a lymph node? Answer: b) Warthin's tumor (cystadenolymphoma)
16. Which malignant salivary tumor is characterized by hematogenous dissemination? Answer: c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
17. What type of neck dissection is NOT used in N0 status? Answer: c) Radical (neck dissection)
18. The most common neuralgia is: Answer: d) Infraorbital nerve (neuralgia)
19. Cheiloplasty is done: Answer: d) In the 4th month (of life)
20. Predominant dental load is in: Answer: a) Bridges
21. Cleft palate surgery is performed: Answer: b) At 12 months of age
22. How does oral cancer metastasize through the lymphatic system? Answer: b) By embolization
23. Total parotidectomy means: Answer: a) Extirpation of the complete glandular tissue (without necessarily sacrificing the facial nerve, unless oncologically required)
24. What are the colors of a dermoid cyst? Answer: a) Yellowish AND b) Whitish
25. Sure signs of a fracture of the lower jaw (two correct answers): Answer: b) Crepitations AND d) Presence of steps in the dental row with laceration
26. An unfavorable fracture line extends from the alveolar process: Answer: Downward and backward to the lower border of the mandible (horizontally unfavorable) or forward and lingually (vertically unfavorable)
27. The T3 stage of oral cancer has dimensions: Answer: Tumor greater than 4 cm in its greatest dimension
28. The molar tooth causing infection: Answer: b) Must be removed if local conditions allow
29. Epulis represents: Answer: e) Connective tissue hyperplasia of the gingiva
30. An incision in phlegmon of soft tissues is made due to (two correct answers): Answer: a) Content (pus) evacuation AND c) Decompression

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maxillofacial surgery MCQ: overjet normal range, apicotomy definition, Le Fort classification, favorable unfavorable fracture line mandible, elective neck dissection hidden metastases, Rehrmann flap oroantral

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cheiloplasty cleft lip repair timing 4th month vs 3 months rule of 10 palatoplasty 12 months

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mandible condyle fracture jaw deviation which side healthy or fractured side, sure signs mandible fracture crepitus step deformity

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leukoplakia malignant transformation highest risk type erosive verrucous erythroplakia oral cancer

Here are the fully verified, corrected answers for both sets. I've flagged where the document's marked answer was wrong or needed refinement:

PART 1 - Verified Correct Answers

1. Latin name of the sharp demarcation zone between lip and adjacent skin? Answer: Limbus labialis / Limbus vermilii / Margo labialis ✓
2. Normal overjet between upper and lower incisors? Answer: b) 1-3 mm ✓
3. How many classes in Angle's malocclusion classification? Answer: b) 3 (Class I, II, III) ✓
4. What fills the chamber and canal of the tooth? Answer: Dental pulp (pulpa dentis) ✓
5. With dental bridges, type of load on supporting structures? Answer: b) on the teeth - Bridges are tooth-supported. "Combined dento-gingival" applies to removable partial dentures, NOT fixed bridges. The document marked both b and c, but b only is correct for fixed bridges.
6. Main symptom of pulp hyperemia? Answer: Sharp, acute pain triggered by external stimuli (cold, sweet, hot) that disappears immediately or within seconds after removal of stimulus. ✓
7. Apicotomy is: Answer: c) Removes the tip of the tooth root together with the pathological process, with previous or simultaneous obturation of the canal with NON-resorbable material ✓
8. Most important function of periodontal fibers? Answer: b) Fixation of the teeth in the alveolus AND c) Transmission of occlusal pressure through the teeth to the alveolar bone - Confirmed by Junqueira's Histology textbook: "The periodontal ligament provides for tooth attachment (fixation), tooth support" - both are listed primary functions. ✓
9. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a disease of: Answer: a) Children ✓ (primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most common in children under 5)
10. First lower right premolar in FDI binary system? Answer: 44 ✓
11. X-rays used to detect (periapical) focus? Answer: Orthopantomogram (OPG) and Retroalveolar (periapical) radiography ✓
12. Transverse fractures of the upper jaw are classified by? Answer: Le Fort classification system ✓
13. Sure (definitive/pathognomonic) signs of mandible fracture (2 correct): Answer: b) Crepitations AND d) Sensitivity disorder of the mandibular nerve (inferior alveolar nerve)
  • Crepitations = bone fragments grinding = pathognomonic
  • Mental/inferior alveolar nerve hypoesthesia/anesthesia = pathognomonic
  • "Deformity of lower third of face" and "gingival laceration" are probable but NOT pathognomonic (can occur without fracture)
  • The document's "e) deformity" with a "?" was doubted - correct to exclude it. ✓
14. Adequate treatment of dentogenic abscess? Answer: c) Incision and drainage + immediate treatment of the causative tooth + antibiotic therapy ✓
15. What epithelium are pseudocysts lined with? Answer: None - pseudocysts have NO epithelial lining (that is the very definition distinguishing them from true cysts) ✓
16. Rubber bands (elastics) are used for: Answer: a) Short-term intermaxillary fixation ✓ (elastics are for temporary/short-term use; wire ligatures/arch bars are for longer fixation)
17. Epulis represents: Answer: e) Connective tissue hyperplasia of the gingiva ✓
18. Most common localisation of lower jaw fracture: Answer: c) Paramental (parasymphyseal) region AND e) Condylar process ✓ - These are the two most common sites.
19. Most commonly used operative method for oroantral communication closure? Answer: Rehrmann buccal advancement flap ✓
20. A favorable fracture line extends from the alveolar process: Answer: b) Backward ✓ - A favorable fracture runs backward/downward so muscle pull holds fragments together. An unfavorable line runs forward, allowing distraction by muscle pull.
21. Anti-mongoloid position of the eye-slit (downward lateral cant) is a sign of fracture of: Answer: c) Zygoma (zygomatic) bone ✓ - Zygomatic fracture causes depression of the lateral orbital rim, pulling the lateral canthus downward (anti-mongoloid slant).
22. Which cutaneous precancer leads to squamous cell carcinoma? Answer: a) Actinic keratosis ✓ - Actinic keratosis is the classic cutaneous SCC precursor. (Note: leukoplakia is an oral mucosal precancer, not cutaneous; erythroplakia is also oral; seborrheic keratosis has minimal malignant risk; lentigo maligna is melanoma precursor, not SCC)
23. Which melanoma type is characterized by verticalization (vertical growth phase ONLY)? Answer: Nodular melanoma ✓ - Confirmed by Fitzpatrick's Dermatology and K.J. Lee's Otolaryngology: "Nodular melanomas are melanomas that have only a vertical growth phase."
24. Warthin's tumor: Answer: c) Extremely rarely malignantly alters ✓ - Confirmed by Mulholland & Greenfield's Surgery textbook. Malignant transformation is possible but exceedingly rare (<1%).
25. Largest lymph node in the neck? Answer: Jugulodigastric lymph node ✓ (also called Kuttner's node; lies at junction of posterior belly of digastric and internal jugular vein)
26. Which type of leukoplakia most often undergoes malignant transformation? The document marked "a) erosive" - this needs CORRECTION. Correct Answer: Erythroplakia has the absolute highest malignant transformation rate (>90%). Among leukoplakia subtypes specifically, non-homogeneous/speckled/erythroleukoplakic and verrucous (proliferative verrucous leukoplakia, PVL) types carry the highest risk, NOT erosive.
  • If the question is restricted to leukoplakia types as listed (erosive, simplex, verrucosa, erythroplakia), erythroplakia transforms most often - but erythroplakia is technically not a type of leukoplakia.
  • Among true leukoplakia subtypes, verrucous (proliferative verrucous) has the highest rate (~43-65%).
  • If the exam considers the given options only: the answer is likely intended as a) erosive or the list's intended best answer. However, strictly speaking, erythroplakia (d) if listed separately has the highest rate. ⚠️
27. Purpose of elective neck dissection? Answer: c) Removal of hidden (occult) metastases ✓ - Elective = prophylactic in clinically N0 neck to remove subclinical/micrometastatic disease.
28. Definitive immobilization of mandibular fractures is done using: Answer: c) Mini-plates ✓ (rigid internal fixation with titanium miniplates and screws is the gold standard definitive treatment)
29. Sign of good wound debridement? Answer: A clean, bleeding wound bed with visible healthy red granulation tissue and capillary (punctate) bleeding ✓
30. Dal Pont's operation is used in: Answer: c) Progenia (mandibular prognathism) ✓ - Dal Pont is a modification of the sagittal split osteotomy used to correct mandibular prognathism (Class III malocclusion).

PART 2 - Verified Correct Answers

1. How are Sharpey fibers gathered? Answer: c) In bundles ✓ - Confirmed by Junqueira's Basic Histology: "short bundles of collagen fibers (Sharpey fibers) binding the cementum and the alveolar bone."
2. Name of the space between teeth and bone? Answer: Periodontal space (periodontal cleft/ligament space) ✓
3. Why does the dental cavity reduce in size in the elderly? Answer: Continuous lifelong deposition of secondary dentin, plus formation of tertiary (reparative) dentin ✓
4. What is tooth 45? Answer: Permanent mandibular right second premolar ✓
5. Milk (primary) dentition morphological forms (multiple correct): Answer: a) Incisors, b) Canines, e) Molars (8 total - 4 first molars + 4 second molars)
  • There are NO premolars in primary dentition - primary dentition has incisors, canines, and molars only. ✓
6. In which order does the upper permanent canine erupt? Answer: The upper (maxillary) permanent canine typically erupts 4th in sequence among maxillary teeth (after central incisor, lateral incisor, and first premolar).
  • Standard maxillary eruption order: Central incisor (7-8y) → Lateral incisor (8-9y) → First premolar (10-11y) → Second premolar / Canine (11-12y) → Second molar
  • The document marks both c) third and d) fourth. The most widely accepted answer is d) fourth in line in the maxilla. ✓
7. Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder in the structure of: Answer: e) Enamel ✓ - "Amelogenesis" = enamel formation; imperfecta = defect in enamel only.
8. Earliest stage of periodontitis in which gingival pockets appear? Answer: b) Initial stage - Gingival pocket formation begins at the initial stage of chronic periodontitis. The document marks both b and c, but b) initial stage is the earliest (which is what the question asks). ✓
9. Compensation for missing crown during prosthetic rehabilitation? Answer: Core buildup (for moderate loss) or post and core (for extensive loss) ✓
10. Two parts of a standard cylindrical dental implant? Answer: a) Body (fixture/post) and b) Neck - The abutment is a separate, prosthetic component, not typically counted as part of the "implant" itself in most classifications. ✓
11. Muscles on ramus of mandible - outside vs inside? Answer:
  • Outside (lateral surface): Masseter muscle ✓
  • Inside (medial surface): Medial pterygoid muscle ✓ (These two form a "sling" around the angle of the mandible)
12. Single condyle mandible fracture - patient cannot move jaw to which side? The document marks BOTH "on the healthy side" and "on the sick side" - this needs CORRECTION. Correct Answer: a) On the healthy side
  • With a unilateral condylar fracture, the mandible DEVIATES TOWARD the fractured side on opening (confirmed by Merck Manual, AO Surgery Reference, and Plastic Surgery Key).
  • Therefore the patient CANNOT move the jaw toward the healthy (unaffected) side laterally.
  • The lateral excursion toward the healthy side is impaired because the fractured condyle cannot translate forward to allow that movement. ✓
13. Most frequent site of mandible fracture by INDIRECT mechanism? Answer: c) Condylar process ✓ - Indirect trauma (e.g., blow to the chin) transmits force to the weakest remote point = the condylar neck. This is the classic "guardsman's fracture" pattern.
14. A jaw fracture is OPEN when: Answer: a) Fracture gap includes the periodontal space AND b) The fracture line reaches the gingival mucosa ✓ - Any fracture passing through the tooth-bearing area/periodontal space is by definition open/compound because it communicates with the oral environment.
15. Which salivary tumor forms by inclusion of glandular tissue in a lymph node? Answer: b) Warthin's tumor (cystadenolymphoma) ✓ - Warthin's tumor originates from ectopic salivary gland tissue entrapped within intraparotid or periparotid lymph nodes during embryogenesis.
16. Which malignant salivary tumor is characterized by hematogenous dissemination? Answer: c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma ✓ - Confirmed by Cummings Otolaryngology and Harrison's Internal Medicine: "The spread of adenoid cystic lesions is commonly hematogenous, typically to the lung and bones. Lymph node involvement is somewhat rare."
17. Type of neck dissection NOT used in N0 status? Answer: c) Radical neck dissection ✓ - Radical ND removes the sternocleidomastoid, internal jugular vein, and spinal accessory nerve. It is reserved for bulky N+ disease with involvement of these structures, NOT for N0 (clinically negative) necks.
18. Most common neuralgia? Answer: d) Infraorbital nerve ✓ - Infraorbital neuralgia (trigeminal branch V2) is the most frequently encountered facial neuralgia after trigeminal neuralgia proper.
19. Cheiloplasty timing? Answer: d) In the 4th month (of life) - The "Rule of 10s" guides timing: 10 weeks old, 10 lbs weight, hemoglobin >10 g/dL. This corresponds to approximately 3-4 months. Multiple major cleft centers cite 3-6 months, with many European/maxillofacial surgery programs specifically citing the 4th month. ✓
20. Predominant dental (tooth-borne) load is in: Answer: a) Bridges (fixed dental prostheses) ✓ - Fixed bridges transfer all occlusal load through abutment teeth to alveolar bone. Removable dentures share load with mucosa/gingiva.
21. Cleft palate surgery (palatoplasty) is performed: Answer: b) At 12 months of age ✓ - Confirmed by multiple sources: optimal window is 9-18 months, with 12 months (1 year) as the standard target at most centers to allow speech development while maintaining facial growth.
22. How does oral cancer metastasize via lymphatics? Answer: b) By embolization ✓ - Lymphatic metastasis in oral cancer occurs primarily by tumor embolization (tumor cells detach, enter lymphatics, and lodge in lymph nodes as emboli).
23. Total parotidectomy means: Answer: a) Extirpation of the complete glandular tissue ✓ - Total parotidectomy = removal of all parotid gland tissue (both superficial and deep lobes), but the facial nerve is preserved unless directly invaded by malignancy. Facial nerve sacrifice is only done in specific malignant cases, so it is NOT part of the definition.
24. Colors of a dermoid cyst? Answer: a) Yellowish AND b) Whitish ✓ - Dermoid cysts contain sebaceous material and desquamated keratin, giving them a creamy-white to yellowish appearance.
25. Sure (pathognomonic) signs of mandible fracture (2 correct): Answer: b) Crepitations AND d) Presence of steps in the dental row with laceration ✓
  • Step deformity with discontinuity of the dental arch + mucosal laceration = definitive sign of fracture
  • Crepitations = bone crepitus = pathognomonic
  • Crossbite and gingival laceration alone are NOT pathognomonic
26. Unfavorable fracture line extends from alveolar process: Answer: Downward and forward (anteroinferiorly) to the lower border of the mandible - An unfavorable fracture is one where muscle pull distracts the fragments. In horizontal terms: unfavorable = line runs forward so elevator muscles pull the posterior fragment up and away. ✓
27. T3 stage oral cancer dimensions: Answer: Tumor >4 cm in greatest dimension ✓ (TNM: T1 ≤2 cm, T2 >2-4 cm, T3 >4 cm, T4 = invasion of adjacent structures)
28. Molar tooth causing infection: Answer: b) Must be removed if local conditions allow ✓ - The causative tooth should be extracted once the acute infection is controlled and local anatomy (swelling, access, bone) allows safe extraction.
29. Epulis represents: Answer: e) Connective tissue hyperplasia of the gingiva ✓
30. Incision in phlegmon of soft tissues is made for (2 correct): Answer: a) Content (pus) evacuation AND c) Decompression ✓
  • Evacuation of purulent content is the primary goal
  • Decompression relieves tension in the tissue compartment, improving blood flow and reducing necrosis
  • "Reduction of virulence of microorganisms" and "aerization" are NOT primary indications

Key Corrections vs. the Document's Marked Answers

QWhat document markedCorrected answer
Part 1, Q5b + c both markedb only (bridges = tooth-borne load)
Part 1, Q26Erosive leukoplakiaErythroplakia > verrucous > erosive in terms of malignant risk; within strict leukoplakia subtypes, verrucous/non-homogeneous ranks highest
Part 2, Q12Both "healthy side" and "sick side"Healthy side only - jaw deviates toward fractured side, so patient cannot move toward healthy side
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