I can see your curriculum schedule - Week 6 covers congenital heart diseases, heart failure, and Week 7 covers valvular heart diseases, infective endocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, and ischemic heart disease. I'll create exam-ready questions precisely aligned to your syllabus.
CARDIOVASCULAR PATHOLOGY — EXAM QUESTION BANK
MCQs + SAQs + LAQs with Full Answers
Aligned to Weeks 6 & 7 of your KMT/QP-07/COL curriculum
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
Each question has one best answer. Explanation follows each answer.
BLOCK 1 — CONGENITAL HEART DISEASES
MCQ 1.
A 3-day-old male infant is noted to be cyanotic at birth. Echocardiography reveals four abnormalities: a large VSD, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Which statement BEST explains why this infant is cyanotic?
- A) Too much blood is flowing to the lungs
- B) The left ventricle cannot pump efficiently
- C) Deoxygenated blood bypasses the lungs and enters the aorta
- D) The aorta and pulmonary artery are transposed
- E) The foramen ovale has failed to close
Answer: C
Explanation: This is Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease. The pulmonary stenosis obstructs RV outflow and creates a right-to-left shunt through the VSD - deoxygenated (blue) blood skips the lungs and goes directly into the overriding aorta and out to the body. The baby is blue from birth because blood is never fully oxygenated.
MCQ 2.
A 6-month-old child with a known large ventricular septal defect develops increasing breathlessness and failure to thrive. What is the initial hemodynamic direction of the shunt through the VSD?
- A) Right-to-left (deoxygenated blood to body)
- B) Left-to-right (oxygenated blood to lungs)
- C) Bidirectional with equal pressures
- D) No shunting; just turbulence
- E) Left-to-right in systole, right-to-left in diastole
Answer: B
Explanation: Initially, left ventricular pressure exceeds right ventricular pressure, so blood shunts LEFT to RIGHT through the VSD. This sends extra blood to the lungs (pulmonary overcirculation), causing pulmonary hypertension, breathlessness, and failure to thrive. Over years, if uncorrected, pulmonary pressure eventually exceeds systemic pressure → Eisenmenger syndrome (shunt reverses → R→L → late cyanosis).
MCQ 3.
A 25-year-old woman develops progressive exertional dyspnea. On examination she has loud P2, upper extremity blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, and weak femoral pulses. Chest X-ray shows notching of ribs 3-8 bilaterally. Which congenital lesion is most likely?
- A) Atrial septal defect
- B) Patent ductus arteriosus
- C) Coarctation of the aorta
- D) Pulmonary stenosis
- E) Tetralogy of Fallot
Answer: C
Explanation: Rib notching (erosion of inferior rib margins by enlarged intercostal collateral arteries) + upper limb hypertension + weak/delayed femoral pulses = classic coarctation of the aorta (post-ductal/adult type). The collateral arteries develop because blood must find alternative routes past the narrowed aortic segment.
MCQ 4.
Which congenital cardiac defect is MOST commonly associated with a bicuspid aortic valve?
- A) Ventricular septal defect
- B) Tetralogy of Fallot
- C) Coarctation of the aorta
- D) Atrial septal defect
- E) Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: C
Explanation: Bicuspid aortic valve is found in 50-70% of patients with coarctation of the aorta. This is a well-tested association. Bicuspid aortic valve (1-2% of births) also accelerates calcific aortic stenosis by 1-2 decades earlier than normal valves.
MCQ 5.
An infant with Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is most likely to have which congenital cardiac defect?
- A) Tetralogy of Fallot
- B) Transposition of great arteries
- C) Atrioventricular septal defect (AV canal defect)
- D) Tricuspid atresia
- E) Coarctation of the aorta
Answer: C
Explanation: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) has the strongest association with AV canal (endocardial cushion) defects, particularly atrioventricular septal defect. About 40-50% of Down syndrome patients have congenital heart disease, and the AV canal defect is the most characteristic.
BLOCK 2 — HEART FAILURE
MCQ 6.
A 65-year-old man with chronic congestive heart failure is found dead. At autopsy, the lungs contain numerous macrophages with brown granular cytoplasm in the alveolar spaces. Prussian blue staining of these cells would be POSITIVE. What are these cells?
- A) Type II pneumocytes undergoing hyperplasia
- B) Alveolar macrophages containing hemosiderin (heart failure cells)
- C) Lipid-laden macrophages from pulmonary edema
- D) Neutrophils from secondary bacterial pneumonia
- E) Silica-laden macrophages from dust exposure
Answer: B
Explanation: Heart failure cells = alveolar macrophages stuffed with hemosiderin (broken-down iron from red blood cells that leaked out of congested capillaries). They are found in chronic LEFT heart failure because elevated pulmonary venous pressure causes RBCs to leak into alveoli. Prussian blue stain confirms iron content. These are a hallmark of chronic pulmonary congestion.
MCQ 7.
A 70-year-old woman with long-standing right-sided heart failure has a liver biopsy showing alternating areas of dark red centrilobular necrosis and pale periportal areas. What is this pattern called?
- A) Bridging fibrosis
- B) Geographic necrosis
- C) Nutmeg liver
- D) Balloon cell change
- E) Steatohepatitis
Answer: C
Explanation: "Nutmeg liver" - chronic right heart failure causes blood to back up through the inferior vena cava into the hepatic veins. This congests the centrilobular (zone 3) hepatocytes first (they are furthest from the portal blood supply). The alternating dark congested centers + pale uncongested periportal areas look like a cut nutmeg. Long-standing congestion leads to cardiac cirrhosis.
MCQ 8.
A patient with acute left ventricular failure wakes at 3 AM gasping for air, sits bolt upright, and improves after 20 minutes. What term describes this symptom?
- A) Orthopnea
- B) Platypnea
- C) Trepopnea
- D) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
- E) Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Answer: D
Explanation: Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND) - when lying flat for hours, fluid redistributes from dependent areas into the pulmonary circulation. The overloaded left ventricle cannot handle this extra blood. The patient wakes acutely breathless. Orthopnea = breathlessness immediately on lying flat, relieved by propping up with pillows.
MCQ 9.
Which ONE mechanism BEST explains why the kidneys worsen heart failure by retaining salt and water?
- A) Reduced aldosterone secretion
- B) Low cardiac output → reduced renal perfusion → RAAS activation → Na+ and water retention
- C) Elevated BNP suppresses tubular reabsorption
- D) Increased atrial stretch → decreased ADH release
- E) Diuretic-induced hyponatremia
Answer: B
Explanation: Low cardiac output → kidneys sense decreased perfusion pressure → activate the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) → aldosterone causes sodium + water retention → worsens fluid overload → worsens congestion. This is a vicious cycle. BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) actually opposes this (released from stretched ventricles to promote natriuresis), but the RAAS effect dominates in severe failure.
BLOCK 3 — VALVULAR HEART DISEASES
MCQ 10.
A 72-year-old man presents with exertional syncope, angina, and progressive dyspnea over 2 years. On auscultation there is a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the neck. Echocardiography shows a heavily calcified aortic valve. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Mitral valve prolapse
- B) Aortic regurgitation
- C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- D) Calcific aortic stenosis
- E) Pulmonary stenosis
Answer: D
Explanation: The clinical triad of syncope + angina + dyspnea/CHF = aortic stenosis. The harsh systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border (aortic area) radiating to the neck is classic for aortic stenosis. Age 72 + heavily calcified = calcific/degenerative aortic stenosis. The order of symptom appearance matters: angina appears first (5-year survival), then syncope (3 years), then CHF/dyspnea (2 years) - without intervention.
MCQ 11.
A 35-year-old woman has a "fish mouth" appearance of her mitral valve on echocardiography. She has a history of recurrent sore throats in childhood and now has an irregular pulse. Which pathological process BEST explains her mitral stenosis?
- A) Calcific degeneration from aging
- B) Myxomatous degeneration of valve leaflets
- C) Rheumatic fever - immune-mediated leaflet scarring and commissural fusion
- D) Infective endocarditis with vegetation obstructing the valve
- E) Carcinoid syndrome with right-sided fibrosis
Answer: C
Explanation: "Fish mouth" / "buttonhole" mitral valve = rheumatic mitral stenosis. Rheumatic fever (from Group A Strep throat) causes immune-mediated damage to valve leaflets + commissural fusion + chordal shortening. Mitral stenosis is the most common sequel of RHD. Left atrial enlargement from the obstruction leads to atrial fibrillation (the irregular pulse). Most common valvular disease from RHD.
MCQ 12.
On routine auscultation of a 28-year-old woman, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Echocardiography shows posterior leaflet ballooning into the left atrium during systole. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A) Rheumatic mitral stenosis
- B) Mitral valve prolapse (myxomatous degeneration)
- C) Infective endocarditis
- D) Calcific mitral annular ring
- E) Papillary muscle rupture post-MI
Answer: B
Explanation: Mid-systolic CLICK + late systolic murmur = Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP). The click is from the sudden tensing of the prolapsing leaflet. Affects 2-3% of adults; more common in women. Most are benign. The leaflets show myxomatous degeneration - increased spongiosa layer with proteoglycan accumulation, attenuated fibrosa layer, making them floppy and billowing.
MCQ 13.
A pathologist examining a surgically removed mitral valve finds small, warty, 1-2 mm vegetations arranged along the LINE OF CLOSURE of the leaflet. The underlying leaflet architecture is preserved. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
- A) Infective endocarditis
- B) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE)
- C) Rheumatic endocarditis
- D) Libman-Sacks endocarditis
- E) Carcinoid syndrome
Answer: C
Explanation: Small warty vegetations along the LINE OF CLOSURE (the zone where leaflets meet when closed) with preserved underlying architecture = Rheumatic endocarditis (active rheumatic fever). Contrast: IE = large, bulky, destructive, anywhere on leaflet; NBTE = small, sterile, along line of closure but in debilitated/cancer patients; Libman-Sacks (lupus) = vegetations on BOTH surfaces of leaflet.
MCQ 14.
Libman-Sacks endocarditis is MOST strongly associated with which systemic condition?
- A) Rheumatoid arthritis
- B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- C) Infective endocarditis from IV drug use
- D) Marfan syndrome
- E) Carcinoid tumor
Answer: B
Explanation: Libman-Sacks endocarditis = sterile vegetations on BOTH sides of the valve leaflet (unique characteristic) - pathognomonic of SLE. The antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (often in SLE) predisposes to sterile thrombotic vegetations. Key distinguisher from all other endocarditides: involvement of BOTH surfaces of the leaflet.
BLOCK 4 — INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
MCQ 15.
A 22-year-old intravenous heroin user presents with high fever, rigors, and a new holosystolic murmur. Blood cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus. Echocardiography shows large vegetations on the tricuspid valve. Which statement is CORRECT?
- A) This is subacute endocarditis with a low virulence organism
- B) Right-sided IE in IV drug users typically affects the mitral valve
- C) S. aureus is the most common organism in IV drug user endocarditis and typically affects the tricuspid valve
- D) Culture-negative IE is common in IV drug users
- E) Osler nodes are always present
Answer: C
Explanation: IV drug use → skin flora introduced directly into the venous system → first valve encountered = tricuspid. S. aureus (skin/needle contamination) is the leading organism. This is ACUTE IE (S. aureus = highly virulent, rapidly destructive). Septic emboli from the right side go to the LUNGS (not brain/kidney as in left-sided IE).
MCQ 16.
A patient with a known damaged mitral valve develops fever, new murmur, and microscopic hematuria. Three blood cultures are all NEGATIVE. Which organism is LEAST likely to be responsible?
- A) Streptococcus viridans
- B) HACEK group organisms
- C) Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
- D) Staphylococcus aureus
- E) Bartonella species
Answer: D
Explanation: S. aureus is highly virulent, grows readily in standard blood cultures, and is very rarely culture-negative. Culture-negative IE is typically caused by: prior antibiotic use, HACEK group (fastidious slow-growers), Coxiella burnetii (Q fever), Bartonella, and Tropheryma whipplei. S. viridans can also occasionally be difficult to grow.
MCQ 17.
A patient with infective endocarditis develops painful, tender nodules on the pads of the fingers. These are caused by:
- A) Septic emboli depositing bacteria in fingertip arteries
- B) Immune complex deposition causing small vessel vasculitis
- C) Calcium deposits from valve calcification
- D) Microthrombi from antiphospholipid syndrome
- E) Direct skin invasion by bacteria
Answer: B
Explanation: Osler nodes (painful tender nodules on finger/toe pads) = immune complex-mediated vasculitis. They are NOT direct emboli. Contrast with Janeway lesions (painless hemorrhagic macules on palms/soles) which ARE from septic emboli. Memory trick: Osler nodes = "Ouch" (painful) = immune; Janeway = "Just there" (painless) = embolic.
BLOCK 5 — ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE
MCQ 18.
A 55-year-old man with crushing central chest pain for 3 hours is taken to the mortuary after collapsing at home. At autopsy, the heart appears grossly NORMAL. Histology shows wavy fiber change and early coagulation necrosis without inflammatory infiltrate. What do these findings confirm?
- A) The patient had no cardiac pathology
- B) Acute MI less than 6 hours old
- C) Chronic IHD with old scar
- D) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- E) Myocarditis
Answer: B
Explanation: Gross appearance is NORMAL in the first 6 hours of MI (the classic exam trap). Histologically, wavy fiber change (heart cells buckle from being pulled by adjacent contracting muscle) and early coagulation necrosis are the FIRST microscopic changes. Neutrophils have not yet arrived (they start at 6-12 hours). TTC staining would show a pale (unstained) infarct zone.
MCQ 19.
During autopsy of an MI patient who died 5 days after the acute event, the pathologist notes the infarcted zone is yellow-tan, soft, and mushy. Which complication is MAXIMALLY at risk at this time?
- A) Arrhythmia
- B) Cardiogenic shock
- C) Myocardial rupture
- D) Ventricular aneurysm
- E) Pericarditis
Answer: C
Explanation: Days 3-7 = PEAK RUPTURE RISK. At this time, macrophages have maximally digested (lyzed) the necrotic myocardium, converting it into soft, friable granulation tissue. The wall is at its weakest. Free wall rupture → hemopericardium + tamponade. Septal rupture → VSD. Papillary muscle rupture → acute severe mitral regurgitation. The yellow-tan soft appearance describes this exact stage.
MCQ 20.
A patient in the coronary care unit develops sudden hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and markedly distended neck veins on day 5 post-STEMI. ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
- A) Acute mitral regurgitation from papillary muscle rupture
- B) Right ventricular infarction
- C) Cardiac tamponade from free wall rupture
- D) Ventricular tachycardia
- E) New VSD from septal rupture
Answer: C
Explanation: Beck's triad (hypotension + muffled heart sounds + raised JVP) + day 5 post-MI + electrical alternans on ECG = cardiac tamponade from free wall rupture. The free wall rupture releases blood into the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart. Electrical alternans (QRS alternates in axis) is a specific ECG sign of pericardial effusion/tamponade. This is rapidly fatal.
MCQ 21.
Which type of angina occurs WITHOUT exertion, is associated with ST ELEVATION during episodes, and is caused by coronary artery spasm rather than fixed stenosis?
- A) Stable angina
- B) Unstable angina
- C) Prinzmetal (vasospastic) angina
- D) Microvascular angina
- E) Decubitus angina
Answer: C
Explanation: Prinzmetal/vasospastic angina = episodes at REST, often at night or early morning; caused by coronary artery SPASM (not fixed plaque); shows transient ST ELEVATION during pain (not depression as in demand ischemia). Often responds to calcium channel blockers. Triggered by cocaine, smoking, cold. The vessel is not fixed-blocked - it intermittently clamps shut.
MCQ 22.
Troponin I and Troponin T are the preferred biomarkers for diagnosing acute MI because:
- A) They rise within 30 minutes of symptom onset
- B) They are specific to cardiac myocytes and remain elevated for 7-10 days (troponin I) to 14 days (troponin T)
- C) They are elevated in all types of angina
- D) They are the first cardiac enzymes to normalize after MI
- E) They replace the need for ECG in diagnosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Cardiac troponins (cTnI and cTnT) are cardiac-specific structural proteins released from damaged/dead myocytes. They rise at 3-6 hours after MI, peak at 24-48 hours, and REMAIN ELEVATED for 7-14 days - making them useful for detecting recent (even missed) MI. Their cardiac-specificity distinguishes MI from skeletal muscle injury. They do NOT rise in angina alone (no cell death).
PART B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs)
Each worth 5-10 marks. Write in structured, precise paragraphs.
SAQ 1 — Congenital Heart Disease
"Describe the pathology and hemodynamic consequences of Tetralogy of Fallot."
(5 marks)
Model Answer:
Definition and Components (2 marks):
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart defect, characterized by four anatomical abnormalities that occur together due to anterior malalignment of the infundibular septum:
- Pulmonary stenosis (infundibular or valvular - the most critical component)
- Large perimembranous ventricular septal defect (VSD)
- Overriding aorta (aorta sits above the VSD, straddling both ventricles)
- Right ventricular hypertrophy (compensatory response to outflow obstruction)
Hemodynamic Consequence (2 marks):
Pulmonary stenosis creates resistance to right ventricular outflow. Because pulmonary resistance exceeds systemic resistance, blood shunts RIGHT-TO-LEFT through the VSD. Deoxygenated blood enters the overriding aorta and is distributed to the body without being oxygenated - producing cyanosis from birth. The degree of cyanosis is directly proportional to the severity of pulmonary stenosis.
Hypercyanotic Spells (1 mark):
"Tet spells" occur when infundibular muscle spasm acutely worsens obstruction. The child becomes profoundly cyanotic, restless, and may lose consciousness. Squatting is a compensatory mechanism - it increases systemic vascular resistance by compressing femoral arteries, reduces the right-to-left shunt, and forces more blood through the pulmonary circulation, temporarily improving oxygenation.
SAQ 2 — Heart Failure
"List the morphological changes found in chronic congestive heart failure, specifying changes in the heart, lungs, and liver."
(6 marks)
Model Answer:
Heart (2 marks):
- Dilation of all four chambers (especially left heart in left-sided failure)
- Ventricular hypertrophy (concentric in early hypertension; eccentric/dilated in end-stage)
- Mural thrombi on endocardial surface of hypokinetic walls
- Microscopically: myocyte hypertrophy with large "boxcar" nuclei, vacuolar degeneration, interstitial fibrosis, and brown atrophy (accumulation of lipofuscin wear-and-tear pigment)
Lungs (2 marks):
- Pulmonary edema - fluid in alveoli and interstitium (from raised pulmonary venous pressure in left heart failure)
- "Heart failure cells" - hemosiderin-laden alveolar macrophages (pathognomonic); formed when RBCs leak from congested capillaries into alveoli and are phagocytosed; stain blue with Prussian blue stain
- Interstitial fibrosis in chronic cases
Liver (2 marks):
- "Nutmeg liver" (grossly): alternating dark red centrilobular congestion/necrosis surrounded by pale periportal zones, resembling a cross-section of nutmeg
- Centrilobular hepatocyte necrosis (zone 3 most vulnerable - furthest from portal blood)
- Long-standing congestion → fibrosis → "cardiac cirrhosis"
- Splenomegaly and ascites from portal hypertension
SAQ 3 — Rheumatic Heart Disease
"Describe the pathogenesis and pathological features of rheumatic heart disease."
(6 marks)
Model Answer:
Pathogenesis (2 marks):
Rheumatic fever follows pharyngeal infection with Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes). The M-proteins of the organism share structural similarity with cardiac antigens (particularly myosin, tropomyosin, and valve proteins). This molecular mimicry triggers cross-reactive antibodies and T-lymphocytes that attack cardiac tissues. It is NOT direct bacterial infection of the heart.
Acute Rheumatic Carditis (2 marks):
Pancarditis affects all three layers:
- Pericarditis: fibrinous "bread and butter" pericarditis
- Myocarditis: Aschoff bodies (pathognomonic) - foci of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by macrophages (Anitschkow cells / caterpillar cells), lymphocytes, and plasma cells. Anitschkow cells have a central ribbon-like nucleus resembling a caterpillar
- Endocarditis: small, warty 1-2 mm vegetations along the LINE OF CLOSURE of valve leaflets (McCallum's patch on posterior left atrial wall)
Chronic RHD (2 marks):
Repeated attacks lead to progressive valvular scarring:
- Leaflet fibrosis and thickening
- Commissural fusion (leaflet edges scar together)
- Chordal shortening and fusion
- Calcification in chronic cases
- Mitral valve most affected (100% in severe disease) followed by aortic (65%), tricuspid, and rarely pulmonary. The characteristic deformed mitral valve has a "fish mouth" or "buttonhole" appearance on gross inspection. Chronic mitral stenosis → left atrial dilation → atrial fibrillation → mural thrombus → stroke risk.
SAQ 4 — Infective Endocarditis
"Compare and contrast acute and subacute infective endocarditis under the headings: causative organism, valve affected, pathological features, and complications."
(8 marks)
Model Answer:
| Feature | Acute IE | Subacute IE |
|---|
| Organism | S. aureus (most common); highly virulent | S. viridans (50-60% of native valve IE); low virulence |
| Valve affected | Normal or previously damaged valves | Almost always previously damaged or abnormal valve |
| Vegetation character | Large (>2 cm), bulky, irregular, friable, destructive; may extend onto chordae tendineae | Smaller, less destructive; do not typically extend to chordae |
| Underlying tissue | Marked leaflet destruction, abscess formation (ring abscess), perforation | Less destruction; scarring and fibrosis |
| Course | Rapid (days to weeks); life-threatening | Indolent (weeks to months); more amenable to antibiotics alone |
| Complications | Perforation, abscess, septic emboli to brain/kidney/spleen, paravalvular abscess, fistula | Embolic phenomena (less common); immune complex glomerulonephritis; CHF from valve destruction |
Peripheral Signs of IE (applicable to both, more common in subacute):
- Osler nodes: painful fingertip nodules (immune complex vasculitis - "immune")
- Janeway lesions: painless hemorrhagic palmar/plantar macules (septic emboli - "embolic")
- Roth spots: retinal hemorrhages with white center
- Splinter hemorrhages: linear subungual hemorrhages
- Microscopic hematuria: immune complex glomerulonephritis
SAQ 5 — Ischemic Heart Disease
"Describe the sequence of morphological changes in the myocardium following acute MI over a 2-month period."
(6 marks)
Model Answer:
0-6 Hours (1 mark):
- Gross: No visible change (normal appearing heart)
- Microscopy: Wavy fiber change (the earliest sign - myofibers buckle due to being pulled by adjacent contracting muscle); early coagulation necrosis begins; intracellular enzyme and troponin leak begins
6-24 Hours (1 mark):
- Gross: Subtle pale/dark mottling
- Microscopy: Coagulation necrosis established; pyknotic (dark, condensed) nuclei; cytoplasmic eosinophilia increases; neutrophil margination begins at 12 hours
1-3 Days (1 mark):
- Gross: Well-defined pale/tan-yellow area
- Microscopy: Dense neutrophil infiltration (peak neutrophil response); loss of nuclear detail
3-7 Days - CRITICAL PERIOD (1 mark):
- Gross: Soft, yellow-tan, mushy infarct center with hyperemic (red) border
- Microscopy: Macrophage infiltration begins; macrophages phagocytose necrotic debris (granuloma-like digestion); maximum tissue softening - PEAK RUPTURE RISK
- Complications: Free wall rupture → tamponade; papillary muscle rupture → mitral regurgitation; septal rupture → VSD
1-2 Weeks (1 mark):
- Gross: Depressed center with red/gray vascular border
- Microscopy: Granulation tissue (macrophages + fibroblasts + neovascularization) grows in from border; collagen deposition begins
2+ Months (1 mark):
- Gross: White, fibrous, depressed scar
- Microscopy: Dense fibrous scar replaces necrotic myocardium; no residual inflammation
- Consequence: Permanent loss of contractile function in scarred region; aneurysm formation if large area affected
PART C: LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (LAQs)
Each worth 15-20 marks. Structured headings required.
LAQ 1 — Ischemic Heart Disease
"Write a comprehensive account of ischemic heart disease (IHD) under the following headings: definition, epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical syndromes, pathological changes in MI, complications of MI, and morphological changes of healing."
(20 marks)
Model Answer:
1. Definition (1 mark)
IHD is a group of clinically related syndromes resulting from an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply (perfusion) and demand. In >90% of cases, this is caused by obstructive coronary atherosclerosis - hence IHD is largely synonymous with coronary artery disease (CAD). Unlike simple hypoxemia, ischemia is particularly damaging because it simultaneously reduces oxygen delivery, depletes nutrients, AND prevents removal of toxic metabolic wastes.
2. Epidemiology (1 mark)
IHD is the single largest cause of death worldwide - responsible for >15% of all global mortality (~9 million deaths/year in developed countries). In the USA, ~800,000 MIs occur annually. Mortality has fallen >50% since the 1960s due to modifiable risk factor control (smoking, hypertension, dyslipidemia) and therapeutic advances (statins, aspirin, PCI, CABG, thrombolysis).
3. Pathogenesis (4 marks)
Chronic Fixed Occlusion:
Atherosclerotic plaques develop over decades in epicardial coronary arteries. The lumen must be reduced by 70-75% before exertional symptoms appear; >90% stenosis may cause resting ischemia.
Acute Plaque Change (Dynamic):
The precipitating event in most acute MIs is sudden disruption of a previously stable (often non-obstructive) plaque. Disruption exposes the lipid core and subendothelial collagen, triggering:
- Platelet adhesion and aggregation
- Activation of the coagulation cascade
- Formation of an occlusive fibrin-rich thrombus
- Vasospasm from platelet-released thromboxane A2 and serotonin
Other Mechanisms:
Coronary emboli; arteritis (Kawasaki disease); vasospasm (Prinzmetal); increased demand from tachycardia (simultaneously increases O2 need and reduces diastolic coronary filling time); hypotension; anemia.
4. Clinical Syndromes (3 marks)
| Syndrome | Mechanism | Features |
|---|
| Stable angina | Fixed stenosis; demand-supply mismatch with exertion | Predictable; relieved by rest/nitrates; no necrosis |
| Unstable angina | Plaque disruption + partial/dynamic thrombus | Increasing frequency; occurs at rest; troponin negative |
| Prinzmetal angina | Coronary vasospasm | Rest pain; ST elevation; calcium channel blocker responsive |
| STEMI | Complete coronary occlusion | Transmural infarct; ST elevation; troponin positive |
| NSTEMI | Partial/dynamic occlusion | Subendocardial infarct; no Q waves; troponin positive |
| Sudden cardiac death | VF from acute ischemia | Death within 1 hour; most die before reaching hospital |
| Chronic IHD + CHF | Cumulative ischemic/infarction damage | Progressive pump failure; multiple infarct scars |
5. Pathological Changes in MI (4 marks)
Gross Changes:
- 0-6 hrs: No gross change (TTC stain shows pale non-staining zone)
- 6-24 hrs: Dark mottling; pale/tan softening
- 1-3 days: Yellow-tan pale infarct, soft
- 3-7 days: Maximally soft, yellow, friable - PEAK RUPTURE RISK
- 1-2 weeks: Gray-white granulation tissue margin
-
2 months: Dense white fibrous scar
Microscopic Changes:
- First 6 hrs: Wavy fiber change (earliest); beginning coagulation necrosis; no inflammation
- 12-24 hrs: Neutrophil infiltration begins; pyknotic nuclei; eosinophilic cytoplasm
- Day 3-5: Heavy neutrophilic infiltrate; nuclear loss; macrophages appear
- Week 1-2: Macrophages digesting debris; granulation tissue (fibroblasts + new capillaries) growing in from viable edges
- Week 2+: Progressive collagen deposition; fibrous scar formation
-
2 months: Dense collagenous scar; complete healing
6. Complications of MI (5 marks)
Early (days 1-7):
- Arrhythmias (most common; VF = most common cause of pre-hospital death)
- Cardiogenic shock (>40% LV damage; 10% of transmural MI; high mortality)
- Papillary muscle dysfunction / rupture → acute mitral regurgitation
- Free wall rupture (day 3-7) → hemopericardium → cardiac tamponade (Beck's triad: hypotension + muffled sounds + elevated JVP)
- Ventricular septal rupture → acute VSD → left-to-right shunt
- Right ventricular infarction (RCA occlusion) → right heart failure
- Fibrinous pericarditis (day 2-3) → friction rub on auscultation
Late (weeks to months):
- Mural thrombus on akinetic endocardium → systemic emboli (stroke)
- Left ventricular aneurysm → wall bulges during systole; arrhythmias; CHF; thrombus
- Dressler syndrome (2-10 weeks): autoimmune fibrinous pericarditis
- Chronic ischemic heart disease → progressive CHF
7. Healing and Repair (2 marks)
After MI, necrotic myocardium cannot regenerate (adult cardiomyocytes are post-mitotic and have negligible regenerative capacity). Healing occurs exclusively by scar formation:
- Phase 1 (days 3-7): Macrophage-mediated phagocytosis of dead tissue
- Phase 2 (days 7-21): Granulation tissue - angiogenesis + fibroblast proliferation + collagen type III deposition
- Phase 3 (weeks to months): Maturation - collagen type I replaces type III → dense, tough, contracted white scar
- The scar is non-contractile and non-excitable → permanently impairs ventricular function proportional to size
LAQ 2 — Valvular Heart Disease
"Discuss the etiology, pathology, hemodynamic effects, and clinical features of the following valvular heart diseases: (a) calcific aortic stenosis, (b) mitral stenosis due to rheumatic heart disease, and (c) infective endocarditis."
(15 marks)
Model Answer:
A. Calcific Aortic Stenosis (5 marks)
Etiology:
Most common valvular abnormality overall. Results from age-related wear-and-tear calcification of:
- Anatomically normal valves (presents in 7th-9th decade; "degenerative aortic stenosis")
- Congenitally bicuspid aortic valve (1-2% of population; presents 1-2 decades earlier; 5th-6th decade)
Pathogenesis resembles atherosclerosis: repetitive mechanical injury + hyperlipidemia + hypertension + inflammation → deposition of hydroxyapatite calcium salt in leaflet tissue.
Pathology:
- Gross: Heavy calcium nodules within leaflet cusps, particularly at leaflet bases and along the cusp hinge points; restricted leaflet opening; preserved commissures (unlike RHD)
- Bicuspid valve: two unequal-sized cusps with a midline raphe (ridge from incomplete separation)
- Leaflet calcification progressively reduces orifice area from normal (3-4 cm²) to critical stenosis (<1 cm²)
Hemodynamic Effects:
- Pressure overload on left ventricle → compensatory CONCENTRIC hypertrophy
- Increased LV wall tension and oxygen demand → angina (even without CAD)
- Fixed outflow obstruction → reduced cardiac output → syncope with exertion
- Eventually LV failure → pulmonary congestion → dyspnea → CHF
- Post-stenotic aortic jet injury
Clinical Features:
- The SAD triad: Syncope, Angina, Dyspnea (CHF) - in order of increasing severity
- Harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur at right upper sternal border; radiates to carotids
- Pulsus parvus et tardus (weak, delayed carotid pulse)
- Narrow pulse pressure
- Natural history after symptoms: angina (5 yrs survival), syncope (3 yrs), CHF (2 yrs) → valve replacement is indicated
B. Rheumatic Mitral Stenosis (5 marks)
Etiology and Pathogenesis:
Complication of rheumatic fever - an immune-mediated reaction following Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcal pharyngitis. Molecular mimicry between streptococcal M-proteins and cardiac proteins (myosin, tropomyosin, valve glycoproteins) triggers cross-reactive T-cells and antibodies. The mitral valve is the most commonly and severely affected (100% in severe disease).
Pathology (Acute):
- Aschoff bodies in myocardium: central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by Anitschkow cells (macrophages with central ribbon-like "caterpillar" chromatin pattern) + lymphocytes + plasma cells
- Endocarditis: small warty vegetations along the line of closure
- McCallum's patch: area of endocardial thickening on posterior left atrial wall
Pathology (Chronic):
- Fibrous thickening and scarring of leaflets
- Commissural fusion (the two leaflet edges scar together → fused commisures)
- Chordal shortening, thickening and fusion
- Calcification in long-standing disease
- The "fish mouth" or "buttonhole" appearance of the mitral valve orifice on gross examination
Hemodynamic Effects:
- Obstruction to left atrial emptying → left atrial hypertension
- Left atrial enlargement → pulmonary venous hypertension
- Pulmonary edema and pulmonary hypertension
- Eventually right ventricular pressure overload and right heart failure
- Volume overload causes dilation, not hypertrophy (volume overload pattern)
Clinical Features:
- Dyspnea, orthopnea, pulmonary edema
- Atrial fibrillation (from left atrial dilation) → palpitations, stroke risk
- Malar flush (mitral facies) - pink-red cheeks from chronic low cardiac output
- Loud S1, opening snap (OS), low-pitched mid-diastolic rumble at apex
- Risk of left atrial mural thrombus → systemic embolism (stroke)
C. Infective Endocarditis (5 marks)
Etiology:
Microbial infection of heart valves or mural endocardium producing vegetations. Classification:
- Acute IE: virulent organisms (S. aureus) on normal OR abnormal valves; rapidly destructive
- Subacute IE: low-virulence organisms (S. viridans) almost always on pre-existing valve disease; indolent
Common Organisms:
- S. viridans: 50-60% of native valve IE (from oral flora; dental procedures)
- S. aureus: most overall; IV drug users (tricuspid); rapidly destructive
- HACEK group: slow-growing oral flora; often culture-negative initially
- Enterococcus: GI/GU procedures
- Fungi (Candida): immunocompromised, prolonged IV lines
Pathology:
- Vegetations: bulky, irregular, friable masses composed of fibrin + platelets + bacteria + inflammatory cells; on atrial surface of AV valves or ventricular surface of semilunar valves
- Underlying leaflet: ulceration, perforation, abscess formation (ring abscess = infection erodes into the valve annulus)
- Healing: fibrosis and calcification of affected cusps
Hemodynamic Effects:
- Destruction of leaflet → acute regurgitation → acute volume overload → sudden CHF
- Ring abscess → extension into conduction system → heart block
- Large vegetations → obstruction (stenosis)
Clinical Features:
- Systemic: fever (most constant finding), rigors, malaise, weight loss
- New or changing heart murmur
- Peripheral manifestations:
- Osler nodes (painful fingertip nodules - immune complex vasculitis)
- Janeway lesions (painless palmar/plantar macules - septic emboli)
- Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages with pale center)
- Splinter hemorrhages (subungual)
- Petechiae
- Embolic complications: stroke (left-sided); septic pulmonary emboli (right-sided in IVDU)
- Immune complex glomerulonephritis → hematuria, proteinuria
LAQ 3 — Cardiomyopathies & Congenital Heart Disease
"Classify the cardiomyopathies. Describe the pathogenesis, morphology, and clinical features of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) in detail. Additionally, briefly describe Eisenmenger syndrome and its significance."
(15 marks)
Model Answer:
Classification of Cardiomyopathies (2 marks)
Primary (heart muscle disease without other cause):
- Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) - dilation + systolic failure
- Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) - hypertrophy + diastolic failure
- Restrictive cardiomyopathy (RCM) - stiffness + diastolic failure
- Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC) - fibrofatty RV replacement
Secondary: Amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, radiation, drugs (doxorubicin), alcoholic, peripartum
HCM - Pathogenesis (3 marks)
HCM is caused by autosomal dominant mutations in genes encoding SARCOMERIC PROTEINS - the actual contraction machinery of the heart cell. The two most commonly mutated genes are:
- MYH7 (beta-myosin heavy chain) - most common
- MYBPC3 (myosin binding protein C) - most common in some populations
- Others: TNNT2 (troponin T), TNNI3 (troponin I), MYL2 (myosin light chain)
These mutations cause abnormal force generation, abnormal calcium handling, and trigger compensatory hypertrophy, but the hypertrophied cells are arranged chaotically (disarray) and cannot relax normally. The result is marked diastolic dysfunction (impaired relaxation and filling) with preserved or even hyperdynamic systolic function.
In approximately 25% of patients, dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction (LVOTO) occurs due to:
- Asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum
- The Venturi effect during rapid systolic ejection draws the anterior mitral valve leaflet toward the hypertrophied septum - "Systolic Anterior Motion" (SAM)
- This worsens obstruction and mitral regurgitation
HCM - Morphology (4 marks)
Gross:
- Disproportionate (asymmetric) hypertrophy of the ventricular septum relative to the free wall - ratio >1.3:1 (asymmetric septal hypertrophy, ASH)
- Heart weight grossly increased (can reach 500-800 g)
- Left ventricular cavity is small (hypertrophied walls crowd the lumen)
- Left atrial dilation (from diastolic dysfunction and MR)
- Fibrous endocardial plaque on the anterior mitral leaflet (where it contacts the hypertrophied septum during SAM)
Microscopic (pathognomonic findings):
- MYOCYTE DISARRAY: myofibers arranged in a chaotic, haphazard pattern instead of the normal parallel rows - THIS IS PATHOGNOMONIC OF HCM
- Extreme cellular hypertrophy with enlarged, bizarre-shaped nuclei
- Interstitial fibrosis (especially around intramural coronary arteries)
- Intramural coronary artery narrowing (wall thickening without luminal plaque) - contributes to demand ischemia
HCM - Clinical Features (3 marks)
- Often asymptomatic; discovered on family screening or incidentally
- Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes (<35 years) - caused by ventricular fibrillation triggered by exertion-induced ischemia + arrhythmia
- Exertional dyspnea (diastolic dysfunction - ventricle can't fill; most common symptom)
- Angina (demand ischemia from hypertrophy)
- Syncope (LVOTO reduces cardiac output)
Murmur characteristics:
- Harsh systolic ejection murmur (LVOTO)
- Murmur increases with reduced preload (Valsalva maneuver, standing, dehydration) because less blood in the ventricle worsens the obstruction
- Murmur decreases with increased preload (squatting, lying down, leg raise) - more blood in the ventricle pushes the mitral leaflet away from the septum
- This is the OPPOSITE of aortic stenosis, which does not change with these maneuvers
ECG: Left ventricular hypertrophy pattern; deep Q waves in lateral leads (from septal hypertrophy); Wolf-Parkinson-White (WPW) pattern in some
Management: Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers (reduce heart rate → more diastolic filling time); avoid vigorous exercise; ICD implantation for high-risk patients; septal myectomy or alcohol septal ablation for severe LVOTO
Eisenmenger Syndrome (3 marks)
Definition: The reversal of a previously left-to-right cardiac shunt to a right-to-left shunt, secondary to pulmonary arterial hypertension that develops as a complication of the chronic increased pulmonary blood flow.
Mechanism:
- Large left-to-right shunt (VSD, ASD, PDA) → chronic pulmonary overcirculation
- Pulmonary vascular bed responds to increased flow and pressure → medial hypertrophy + intimal fibrosis of pulmonary arterioles → progressively elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
- When pulmonary artery pressure equals or exceeds systemic pressure → right ventricular pressure rises above left ventricular pressure
- Shunt reverses from LEFT-to-RIGHT → RIGHT-to-LEFT
- Deoxygenated blood now enters the systemic circulation → CYANOSIS, clubbing, polycythemia
Significance:
- Once Eisenmenger syndrome is established, surgical repair of the underlying defect is CONTRAINDICATED - the pulmonary vascular disease is irreversible and repair would eliminate the only available right-heart outlet
- The condition progresses to right heart failure and premature death
- Prevention requires early surgical correction of large shunts before pulmonary vascular disease develops
- Pregnancy is extremely high-risk (maternal mortality 30-50%) in Eisenmenger syndrome
RAPID EXAM SELF-CHECK
Before your exam, make sure you can answer these from memory:
- Four defects of Tetralogy of Fallot? (PS + VSD + Overriding aorta + RVH)
- Peak MI rupture risk - which day? (Day 3-7)
- Most common organism in IV drug user IE? (S. aureus - right sided, tricuspid)
- Hallmark cell of rheumatic heart disease? (Anitschkow/caterpillar cell in Aschoff body)
- Pathognomonic finding in HCM? (Myocyte disarray)
- What replaces RV muscle in ARVC? (Fibrofatty tissue)
- First microscopic change in MI? (Wavy fiber change at ~6 hours)
- Beck's triad? (Hypotension + muffled heart sounds + elevated JVP)
- What makes HCM murmur louder? (Valsalva/standing - less preload)
- Eisenmenger - can you still operate? (NO - irreversible pulmonary hypertension)
Based on Robbins & Kumar Basic Pathology and Robbins, Cotran & Kumar Pathologic Basis of Disease | Aligned to KMT/QP-07/COL Weeks 6-7 curriculum