Orris

Frame a question of these topics like neet pg pattern

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cd /tmp/workspace/attachments/d7aba3cb-d223-42d4-af7b-cd4c9a95c4cc/ && python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('DOC-20260817-WA0056.pdf') as pdf: print('pages', len(pdf.pages)) for p in pdf.pages: t = p.extract_text() print(t) print('---') "

Running Command

cd /tmp/workspace/attachments/d7aba3cb-d223-42d4-af7b-cd4c9a95c4cc/ && mkdir -p /tmp/workspace/neetpg && python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('DOC-20260817-WA0056.pdf') as pdf: for i,p in enumerate(pdf.pages): im = p.to_image(resolution=200) im.save(f'/tmp/workspace/neetpg/page_{i+1}.png') print('done') " ls -la /tmp/workspace/neetpg/

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Asking for Preferences
Browsing Directory

/tmp/workspace

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I extracted the full 180-topic list from your PDF ("AI Predicted Questions for NEET PG 2026"). Since you asked to "frame a question on these topics," I've built 25 NEET-PG-pattern single-best-answer MCQs — one for each topic marked NEAR-CERTAIN (red tier), since those carry the highest predicted yield. Each follows the standard NEET PG format: clinical stem → 4 options → answer → one-line rationale.

General Medicine

Q1. A 60-year-old man with ESRD on dialysis misses two sessions and develops weakness. ECG shows a narrow-based, tall tented T wave. What is this the earliest ECG sign of? A) Hypokalaemia B) Hyperkalaemia C) Hypercalcaemia D) Digoxin toxicity Answer: B — Tall tented T waves are the earliest hyperkalaemia change, followed by P-wave flattening, QRS widening, and sine-wave pattern.
Q2. A diabetic in DKA has pH 7.10, HCO3- 8 mEq/L, PCO2 22 mmHg, Na+ 140, Cl- 100 mEq/L. Is the respiratory compensation appropriate (Winter's formula)? A) AG 12; compensation inadequate B) AG 32; compensation appropriate C) AG 20; compensation excessive D) AG 32; compensation inadequate Answer: B — Anion gap = 140-(100+8) = 32 (high). Winter's formula: expected PCO2 = 1.5(8)+8±2 = 18-22; actual PCO2 of 22 shows adequate compensation.
Q3. A patient in atrial fibrillation has a JVP tracing with an absent 'a' wave. What best explains this? A) Tricuspid stenosis B) Loss of coordinated atrial contraction C) Complete heart block D) Constrictive pericarditis Answer: B — The 'a' wave reflects atrial contraction; AF abolishes it.
Q25. A patient has ipsilateral CN III palsy with contralateral hemiplegia. Which syndrome and level? A) Weber syndrome - midbrain B) Foville syndrome - pons C) Wallenberg syndrome - medulla D) Millard-Gubler syndrome - pons Answer: A — Weber syndrome involves the crus cerebri and exiting CN III fibers in the midbrain.

PSM / Community Medicine

Q4. A district records 60 maternal deaths against 50,000 live births in a year. How is MMR expressed? A) Per 1,000 women aged 15-49 B) Per 1,00,000 live births C) Per 1,000 live births D) Per 100 pregnancies Answer: B — MMR (ratio) uses live births as denominator; Maternal Mortality Rate uses women 15-49 as denominator — a classic NEET PG confusion pair.

Pathology

Q5. A CML patient's cytogenetics confirms the Philadelphia chromosome. Which translocation? A) t(15;17) B) t(9;22) C) t(8;14) D) t(11;22) Answer: B — t(9;22) BCR-ABL. (t(15;17)=APML, t(8;14)=Burkitt, t(11;22)=Ewing sarcoma)

Pharmacology / Toxicology

Q6. A young man is agitated with dry, flushed skin, mydriasis, and urinary retention after a party. Which toxidrome? A) Sympathomimetic B) Anticholinergic C) Cholinergic D) Opioid Answer: B — "Dry as a bone, red as a beet" = anticholinergic (e.g., Datura); sympathomimetic (cocaine) causes sweaty skin instead.

Biochemistry

Q7. A malnourished man on a maize-based diet has photosensitive dermatitis, diarrhoea, and dementia. Deficiency and mnemonic? A) Thiamine — wet beriberi B) Niacin — 4 D's C) Riboflavin — angular stomatitis D) Pyridoxine — neuropathy Answer: B — Pellagra: Dermatitis, Diarrhoea, Dementia, Death.
Q8. A chronic alcoholic is confused with ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. Before IV dextrose, give: A) Folic acid B) Thiamine C) Pyridoxine D) Cobalamin Answer: B — Glucose alone can precipitate/worsen Wernicke encephalopathy in thiamine-deficient patients.
Q9. Urine turns black on standing; bluish-black cartilage pigmentation. Enzyme deficiency? A) Homogentisate oxidase B) Tyrosinase C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase D) Cystathionine beta synthase Answer: A — Alkaptonuria (ochronosis).
Q10. Bone marrow macrophages show "crumpled tissue paper" cytoplasm in a child with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Enzyme deficient? A) Sphingomyelinase B) Glucocerebrosidase C) Hexosaminidase A D) Alpha-galactosidase A Answer: B — Gaucher disease.
Q11. A cyanide-poisoned patient shows tissue hypoxia despite normal PaO2. Which ETC complex is inhibited? A) Complex I B) Complex II C) Complex III D) Complex IV Answer: D — Cyanide blocks cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV); rotenone blocks I, oligomycin blocks ATP synthase (V).
Q12. A neonate has severe hypertriglyceridaemia, eruptive xanthomas, and creamy supernatant plasma. Likely deficiency? A) LDL receptor B) Lipoprotein lipase/ApoC-II C) ApoB-100 D) HMG-CoA reductase Answer: B — Type I hyperlipoproteinaemia (chylomicronaemia), distinct from LDL-receptor-defective familial hypercholesterolaemia.

Microbiology

Q13. A farmer has fever, calf tenderness, conjunctival suffusion, and jaundice after wading through floodwater. Gold-standard test? A) IgM ELISA B) Microscopic agglutination test C) Dark-field microscopy D) PCR Answer: B — MAT for leptospirosis.
Q14. Gram stain of urethral discharge shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. Culture medium of choice? A) Thayer-Martin medium B) Sabouraud's agar C) Lowenstein-Jensen medium D) Loeffler's medium Answer: A
Q15. Which disease-ulcer pairing is correct? A) Syphilis — painful ulcer B) Chancroid — painless ulcer C) Herpes genitalis — painful multiple vesicular ulcers D) LGV — large painful ulcer Answer: C — Syphilis chancre is painless; chancroid is painful; LGV primary lesion is a small painless ulcer with painful bubo.
Q16. Nocturnal blood smear shows sheathed microfilariae with no tail-tip nuclei. Organism? A) Wuchereria bancrofti B) Brugia malayi C) Loa loa D) Onchocerca volvulus Answer: A — Brugia malayi characteristically shows two distinct tail nuclei; W. bancrofti has none.

Pediatrics

Q17. A 3-year-old has weight-for-age <-3SD but normal height-for-age. This is: A) Wasting B) Stunting C) Underweight D) Both wasting and stunting Answer: C — Underweight = low weight-for-age; wasting = low weight-for-height; stunting = low height-for-age.
Q18. A microcephalic neonate's CT shows periventricular calcifications. Diagnosis, and how does it differ from toxoplasmosis? A) CMV — periventricular; Toxoplasma — scattered B) CMV — scattered; Toxoplasma — periventricular C) Both periventricular D) Only rubella calcifies Answer: A

Forensic Medicine

Q19. A forensic pathologist confirms seminal staining on cloth by demonstrating spermine picrate crystals. Test used? A) Florence test B) Barberio's test C) Acid phosphatase test D) Precipitin test Answer: B — Florence test detects choline (haemin) crystals instead.
Q20. Two poisoned patients have dilated pupils; one has hot dry skin, the other profuse sweating. Likely agents respectively? A) Datura (dry), cocaine (sweaty) B) Cocaine (dry), datura (sweaty) C) Both dry D) Both sweaty Answer: A

ENT

Q21. Severe ear pain 5 days after tonsillectomy with a normal tympanic membrane. Responsible nerve? A) Facial (VII) B) Glossopharyngeal (IX) C) Vagus (X) D) Auriculotemporal (V) Answer: B — Classic referred otalgia via CN IX.

Radiology

Q22. A 60-year-old with progressive dysphagia to solids has a barium swallow showing an irregular "apple-core"/"rat-tail" narrowing of the lower oesophagus. Diagnosis? A) Achalasia cardia B) Carcinoma oesophagus C) Oesophageal varices D) Peptic stricture Answer: B

Dermatology

Q23. A child has a boggy, pus-discharging scalp swelling with patchy alopecia. Organism, and risk if untreated? A) Trichophyton — no scarring B) Microsporum — scarring alopecia C) Malassezia — no scarring D) Candida — scarring alopecia Answer: B — Kerion caused by Microsporum can scar.

Anaesthesia

Q24. During a non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade, which nerve is used for peripheral nerve stimulator monitoring? A) Median B) Ulnar C) Radial D) Facial Answer: B
These 24 questions (numbered 1-25, skipping none) cover every RED/near-certain topic from your list. I can continue in the same format for the HIGH-tier (orange) or PROBABLE-tier (yellow) topics too — the sheet has about 60 orange and 90 yellow topics remaining across OBG, Surgery, Ortho, Radiology, and the rest. Just tell me which subject or tier to tackle next.
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