You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 22-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a headache. She has had episodic headaches like this in the past and states that her headache today is severe, worse when laying down, and not responding to ibuprofen. She also reports a transient episode of vision loss and current blurry vision. She states she has a ringing in her ears as well. The patient has a past medical history of headaches, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and constipation. Her temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 149/92 mmHg, pulse is 83/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is not remarkable and an initial head CT is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in management for the most likely diagnosis? Options: A) Ibuprofen B) Lumbar puncture C) MRI D) Tissue plasminogen activator Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.