Here is your complete Ophthalmology Viva preparation guide:
👁️ OPHTHALMOLOGY VIVA - Complete Q&A Guide
SECTION 1: ANATOMY Q&A
Q1. Name the 7 bones forming the orbit.
A: Frontal, Maxilla, Zygomatic, Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Sphenoid, Palatine.
Mnemonic: "My ZEaLouS Friend Pursues"
Q2. Which wall of the orbit is the thinnest and why is it clinically important?
A: The medial wall (lamina papyracea of ethmoid) is thinnest. It is most prone to blowout fractures from blunt trauma, and ethmoidal sinusitis can spread to the orbit through it.
Q3. What is the average volume of the orbit?
A: ~30 mL in an adult.
Q4. Name the layers of the cornea from outer to inner.
A:
- Epithelium (stratified squamous non-keratinized)
- Bowman's layer
- Stroma (~90% of thickness)
- Descemet's membrane
- Endothelium
Mnemonic: "Every Body Sweats During Exercise"
Q5. What is the nerve supply of the cornea?
A: Ophthalmic division of trigeminal (CN V1) via the nasociliary branch → long ciliary nerves. The cornea is the most densely innervated tissue in the body (basis of the corneal reflex).
Q6. What is the blood supply of the cornea?
A: The cornea is avascular. It gets nutrition from:
- Aqueous humor (main - glucose, amino acids)
- Tear film (oxygen from atmosphere)
- Limbal capillaries (peripheral cornea only)
Q7. What maintains corneal transparency? (Factors affecting transparency)
A:
- Avascularity
- Regular collagen arrangement in stroma - uniform fibril diameter and spacing (destructive interference of scattered light)
- Relative dehydration - endothelial pump keeps cornea at ~78% hydration
- Smooth anterior surface - maintained by tear film
- No myelinated nerve fibers within cornea
Q8. What are the dimensions of the cornea?
A:
- Horizontal diameter: ~12 mm
- Vertical diameter: ~11 mm
- Central thickness: ~0.5 mm
- Peripheral thickness: ~0.7 mm
Q9. Which layer of the cornea does NOT regenerate?
A: Bowman's layer - damaged Bowman's layer heals with scar (opacity), not regeneration. The endothelium also has very limited regeneration (cells enlarge to cover gaps rather than divide).
Q10. Name the 10 layers of the retina (outer to inner).
A:
- Retinal Pigment Epithelium (RPE)
- Photoreceptor layer (rods & cones - outer segments)
- External Limiting Membrane (ELM)
- Outer Nuclear Layer (ONL) - photoreceptor nuclei
- Outer Plexiform Layer (OPL) - photoreceptor-bipolar synapses
- Inner Nuclear Layer (INL) - bipolar, horizontal, amacrine, Müller cells
- Inner Plexiform Layer (IPL) - bipolar-ganglion synapses
- Ganglion Cell Layer (GCL)
- Nerve Fiber Layer (NFL)
- Internal Limiting Membrane (ILM)
Mnemonic: "Resting People Enjoy Our Pretty Inner Paradise, Neatly Illuminated"
Q11. What is the fovea? What is special about it?
A: The fovea is a small central pit (~1.5 mm temporal to optic disc) within the macula. Features:
- Contains only cones (no rods)
- Highest visual acuity
- Avascular (foveal avascular zone - FAZ)
- Thinnest part of retina (inner layers displaced peripherally - Henle's layer)
- No blood vessels, so relies on choroidal circulation for nutrition
Q12. What is the difference between macula and fovea?
A:
- Macula lutea: Area ~5.5 mm diameter temporal to optic disc; contains yellow pigment (xanthophyll); contains the fovea; has 2+ layers of ganglion cells
- Fovea: Central pit within the macula; ~0.35 mm depression (foveola); only cones; highest acuity
Q13. What is the optic disc? What is its significance?
A: The optic disc (blind spot) is where ganglion cell axons exit the eye to form the optic nerve. It is:
- ~1.5 mm in diameter
- Has no photoreceptors (hence physiological blind spot)
- Cup-to-disc ratio normally ≤0.5
- Raised disc = papilloedema (raised ICP); Pale disc = optic atrophy; Increased cup = glaucoma
Q14. Describe the basic anatomy of the eyeball.
A: The eyeball has 3 coats:
- Fibrous coat: Sclera (posterior 5/6, white, opaque) + Cornea (anterior 1/6, transparent)
- Vascular coat (Uvea): Choroid (posterior) + Ciliary body + Iris (anterior)
- Neural coat: Retina
Chambers:
- Anterior chamber: Between cornea and iris; filled with aqueous humor
- Posterior chamber: Between iris and lens; filled with aqueous humor
- Vitreous chamber: Behind lens; filled with vitreous humor
Length of eyeball: ~24 mm (AP diameter)
Q15. What are the functions of vitreous humor?
A:
- Maintains shape of posterior segment of eyeball
- Optical clarity for light transmission to retina
- Metabolic support for lens and retina
- Shock absorption (protective cushion)
- Helps keep retina in apposition with RPE
- Supports the lens anteriorly
Composition: 99% water + type II collagen + hyaluronic acid
Q16. Describe the tear film and its layers.
A: Three layers (outer to inner):
| Layer | Thickness | Source | Function |
|---|
| Lipid | 0.1 µm | Meibomian glands (tarsal glands) | Prevents evaporation |
| Aqueous | 7 µm (thickest) | Lacrimal gland + Krause & Wolfring glands | Antibacterial (IgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin); oxygen supply |
| Mucin | 0.02-0.05 µm | Goblet cells of conjunctiva | Allows spread over hydrophobic epithelium; traps debris |
Q17. Where is the lacrimal gland located? What is its nerve supply?
A:
- Location: Superolateral angle of orbit in lacrimal fossa (frontal bone)
- Divided by levator aponeurosis into orbital (larger) and palpebral (smaller) lobes
- Nerve supply:
- Sensory: CN V1 (lacrimal nerve)
- Sympathetic: from superior cervical ganglion
- Parasympathetic (secretomotor): CN VII → greater petrosal nerve → pterygopalatine ganglion → zygomatic nerve (CN V2) → lacrimal nerve → lacrimal gland
Q18. Describe the lacrimal drainage pathway.
A:
Tear film → Lacrimal lake (medial canthus) → Puncta (upper & lower lid margins, medially) → Canaliculi → Common canaliculus → Lacrimal sac (medial orbital wall, lacrimal groove) → Nasolacrimal duct (runs in bony canal) → Inferior meatus of nose
- Lacrimal sac: lies between anterior and posterior lacrimal crests
- Nasolacrimal duct opens at inferior meatus (valve of Hasner)
Q19. Describe the anterior chamber.
A:
- Boundaries: Anteriorly - posterior surface of cornea; Posteriorly - anterior surface of iris and pupil/lens
- Contents: Aqueous humor
- Depth: ~3 mm centrally
- Angle (iridocorneal angle): Contains trabecular meshwork → Canal of Schlemm → aqueous drainage
- Aqueous humor production: Ciliary processes (active secretion + diffusion + ultrafiltration), ~2 µL/min
- Drainage: 90% via trabecular meshwork/Canal of Schlemm; 10% uveoscleral route
SECTION 2: PHYSIOLOGY Q&A
Q20. What is the total power of the eye? What contributes to it?
A:
- Total power = ~60 Dioptres
| Structure | Power |
|---|
| Cornea | ~43 D (~70% of total) |
| Lens | ~15-17 D at rest; ~33 D with max accommodation (~30%) |
| Aqueous + Vitreous | Minor |
The cornea has more power because of the large refractive index difference at the air-tear film interface.
Q21. Why does the lens contribute less power than the cornea despite being biconvex?
A: The lens is surrounded by aqueous humor (RI ~1.336) on both sides, which reduces the refractive index difference at each lens surface. The cornea benefits from the large RI difference between air (RI ~1.0) and cornea (RI ~1.376), giving it more refracting power despite being thinner.
Q22. What is the shape and power of the lens?
A: The lens is biconvex. At rest (unaccommodated): ~15-17 D. With maximum accommodation: ~33 D. Anterior surface is less curved; posterior surface is more curved.
Q23. Describe the visual pathway step by step. Name the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order neurons.
A:
Path:
Retina (photoreceptors) → Bipolar cells → Ganglion cells → Optic nerve → Optic chiasm → Optic tract → Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) of thalamus → Optic radiations → Primary visual cortex (V1, area 17, occipital lobe)
At optic chiasm: Nasal (medial) retinal fibers from each eye decussate (cross); temporal (lateral) fibers remain ipsilateral.
Neurons:
- 1st order: Photoreceptor → Bipolar cell
- 2nd order: Bipolar cell → Ganglion cell (axons form optic nerve)
- 3rd order: LGN → Visual cortex (via optic radiations)
Q24. What is the significance of the optic chiasm in clinical diagnosis?
A: Partial decussation at the chiasm means lesions at different levels produce characteristic field defects:
- Before chiasm (optic nerve): Monocular blindness (ipsilateral eye)
- At chiasm (central): Bitemporal hemianopia (pituitary tumor - most common cause)
- Optic tract: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
- Optic radiation (temporal): Contralateral superior quadrantanopia (Meyer's loop)
- Occipital cortex: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Q25. Describe the pupillary light reflex pathway.
A:
Afferent: Retina → Optic nerve → Optic chiasm → BOTH optic tracts → Pretectal nucleus (midbrain) - fibers leave before LGN
Efferent: Pretectal nucleus → BOTH Edinger-Westphal (EW) nuclei bilaterally → Ciliary ganglion (via CN III) → Short ciliary nerves → Sphincter pupillae (constriction)
Clinical point: Because each pretectal nucleus connects bilaterally to both EW nuclei:
- Light in one eye → both pupils constrict
- Direct reflex = same eye constricts
- Consensual reflex = other eye constricts
Q26. What is Marcus Gunn Pupil (RAPD)?
A: RAPD = Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (Pupil of Marcus Gunn)
- Tested with swinging flashlight test
- Indicates unilateral/asymmetric optic nerve or severe retinal disease
- When light swings TO the affected eye, both pupils paradoxically dilate (because the afferent signal is weaker on that side)
- Efferent pathway is intact (both eyes still respond to light in the normal eye)
Q27. What is the near reflex triad (accommodation reflex)?
A: When looking at a near object:
- Accommodation - ciliary muscle contracts → zonules relax → lens becomes more convex → increased power
- Convergence - both eyes converge (medial recti contract)
- Pupillary constriction - miosis
Q28. What is Argyll Robertson pupil?
A: Pupil that accommodates but does not react to light.
- Small, irregular, bilateral pupils
- Light reflex absent; near reflex intact
- Classic cause: Neurosyphilis
- Lesion: Pretectal area (destroys light reflex fibers but spares near reflex fibers)
Q29. What is normal visual acuity?
A: 6/6 (metric) = 20/20 (feet). On Snellen chart tested at 6 metres. The top number = testing distance; bottom number = distance at which a normal eye reads the same letter.
Q30. What is the regurgitation test?
A: Pressure applied over the lacrimal sac area (medial canthus). If mucopurulent discharge regurgitates from the punctum, it indicates nasolacrimal duct obstruction (dacryocystitis/mucocele). Also called the sac syringing/pressure test.
SECTION 3: INSTRUMENTS
Q31. What is a direct ophthalmoscope? What does it visualize?
A:
- A hand-held instrument to examine the fundus (optic disc, retina, vessels, macula)
- Light illuminates the fundus; reflected light returns through the pupil to the examiner's eye
- Magnification: ~15x (erect, virtual image)
- Field of view: Small (~5°)
- Examines: optic disc, retinal vessels, macula, vitreous, red reflex
- Used in undilated or dilated pupil (better view when dilated)
Q32. Difference between direct and indirect ophthalmoscope?
| Feature | Direct | Indirect |
|---|
| Magnification | ~15x | ~3-5x |
| Field of view | ~5° (small) | ~40-60° (wide) |
| Image | Erect, virtual, monocular | Inverted, real, stereoscopic |
| Distance | Very close to patient | Arm's length |
| Use | Central fundus, optic disc | Peripheral retina, surgical |
Q33. What is a slit lamp (biomicroscope)?
A: A binocular microscope with an adjustable slit beam of light. Allows:
- Examination of anterior segment: cornea, anterior chamber (cells/flare), iris, lens
- With special lenses (+78D, +90D): posterior segment/fundus
- Uses: diagnose corneal disease, cataracts, anterior uveitis, foreign bodies, glaucoma angle (with goniolens)
Q34. What is a tonometer? Name types.
A: Instrument to measure intraocular pressure (IOP). Normal IOP = 10-21 mmHg.
Types:
- Goldmann applanation tonometer - gold standard; measures force needed to flatten 3.14 mm² of cornea; requires slit lamp
- Schiotz tonometer - indentation tonometer; portable; measures depth of indentation
- Tono-Pen - electronic, portable applanation tonometer
- Non-contact tonometer (NCT/air-puff) - uses puff of air; no contact; screening tool
Q35. What is a retinoscope? What is its use?
A: Used for objective refraction (retinoscopy). A light is shone into the eye and the reflex movement of the light through the pupil is observed. Used to determine refractive error (myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism), especially in children who can't cooperate for subjective tests. Examiner is usually 67 cm from patient (working distance).
Q36. What is a Snellen chart?
A: A standardized chart for measuring distance visual acuity. Letters decrease in size from top to bottom. Each letter subtends 5 arc minutes at the designated distance. Tested at 6 metres (or 20 feet). Normal = 6/6. The chart is used monocularly.
Q37. What is a perimeter? Name types.
A: Instrument for mapping the visual field.
Types:
- Goldmann perimeter - kinetic perimetry; manual; bowl-shaped; maps entire field using moving targets of varying size/intensity
- Humphrey automated perimeter - static perimetry; computer-controlled; most widely used; produces detailed field printout
- Confrontation test - bedside clinical test (not an instrument per se)
Q38. What is a keratometer (ophthalmometer)?
A: Measures the curvature of the anterior corneal surface (corneal power/radius of curvature). Used for:
- Contact lens fitting
- Pre-operative assessment for cataract/refractive surgery
- Diagnosing keratoconus (irregular astigmatism)
Q39. What is a gonioscope/goniolens?
A: A contact lens placed on the cornea with coupling gel/solution to view the iridocorneal angle (angle of the anterior chamber). The refractive index of the lens matches the cornea, eliminating total internal reflection which normally prevents angle visualization. Used to:
- Classify glaucoma (open vs. closed angle)
- Assess angle anatomy
- Laser treatment planning
Q40. What is an A-scan and B-scan ultrasonography?
A:
- A-scan (axial length): One-dimensional; measures axial length of the eyeball (used for IOL power calculation before cataract surgery; normal axial length = ~23-24 mm)
- B-scan (brightness scan): Two-dimensional cross-sectional image; used when fundus cannot be visualized (dense cataract, vitreous hemorrhage); can detect retinal detachment, vitreous opacities, tumors
Q41. What is a fundus camera?
A: A specialized camera for photographing the retina/fundus. Used for:
- Documentation of optic disc, retina, macula
- Monitoring diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, macular degeneration
- Fluorescein angiography (with fluorescein dye to study retinal vasculature)
Q42. What is an IOL Master?
A: A non-contact optical biometer using partial coherence interferometry (PCI) to measure:
- Axial length (more accurate than A-scan ultrasound)
- Corneal curvature
- Anterior chamber depth
Used to calculate intraocular lens (IOL) power before cataract surgery.
SECTION 4: DEMONSTRATIONS
Q43. How do you demonstrate and perform the confrontation test?
A:
Setup:
- Sit facing the patient at ~1 metre, at the same level
- Both at eye level
Procedure:
- Ask patient to cover their LEFT eye; you cover your own RIGHT eye (mirror image)
- Both fix on each other's uncovered eye (patient fixates on YOUR uncovered eye)
- Bring a finger/white-headed pin from outside (periphery) toward the center in all 4 quadrants (superior, inferior, temporal, nasal) and diagonally
- Ask patient to say when they first see the target; compare with when YOU see it (your field = reference normal)
- Repeat for the other eye
Disadvantages:
- Not quantitative - cannot precisely map or document field defects
- Depends on examiner having normal visual fields (inherent assumption error)
- Cannot detect subtle/early field losses (e.g., early glaucoma)
- Poor sensitivity for small central scotomas
- Relies on patient cooperation and understanding
- Inter-examiner variability
- Only rough estimate of peripheral field
Q44. How do you test visual acuity (demonstration)?
A:
Equipment: Snellen chart (at 6 m or mirror system), occluder, pinhole
Procedure:
- Position patient 6 metres from chart (well-illuminated)
- Test one eye at a time - cover the OTHER eye with an occluder (ask patient not to press on the eye)
- Ask patient to read the smallest line they can see clearly, from top to bottom
- Record as 6/X (6 = testing distance; X = smallest line read)
- If patient cannot read the top letter (6/60): test at closer distances (record as CF, HM, PL, NPL)
- Pinhole test: Place pinhole in front of eye - if acuity improves, refractive error is the cause; if no improvement, organic pathology is likely
- Repeat for second eye
Grading when below 6/60:
- CF (Counting Fingers) - count fingers at specified distance
- HM (Hand Movements) - can perceive hand movements
- PL (Perception of Light) - can detect light only
- NPL (No Perception of Light) - no light perception = total blindness
Q45. How do you test the pupillary reflex (demonstration)?
A:
Equipment: Pen torch, dim room
Direct light reflex:
- Dim the room
- Ask patient to fix gaze on a distant object (prevents accommodation reflex)
- Shine pen torch from the side into one eye
- Observe SAME eye for pupillary constriction (direct reflex)
Consensual light reflex:
- Shine torch into one eye
- Observe the OTHER eye - it should also constrict (consensual reflex)
Swinging flashlight test (for RAPD):
- Swing light alternately from one eye to the other (2-3 seconds per eye)
- Normal: both pupils constrict as light enters each eye
- RAPD: affected eye shows paradoxical dilation when light swings to it
Accommodation reflex:
- Ask patient to look at a distant object (pupils dilate)
- Then look at a near object (finger ~33 cm)
- Observe: convergence, accommodation, and miosis (pupillary constriction)
Normal direct and consensual responses should be equal and brisk.
Q46. How do you perform the regurgitation test?
A:
- Ask patient to look up (and slightly lateral)
- Press firmly with index finger over the lacrimal sac area (just below the medial canthal tendon, medial to inner canthus)
- Observe the punctum (lower and/or upper)
- Positive test: Mucopurulent or mucoid material regurgitates from the punctum = nasolacrimal duct obstruction/dacryocystitis
Q47. How do you perform the cover-uncover test?
A: Used to detect manifest squint (tropia).
- Ask patient to fixate on a distant target
- Cover one eye with an occluder
- Observe the uncovered eye for any movement to take up fixation
- If uncovered eye moves → it had a manifest squint (tropia)
- Uncover the eye; observe for any refixation movement
- Repeat for other eye
Q48. What questions can be asked about the pupillary reflex demonstration?
A:
- "What is the afferent pathway?" - Retina → CN II → pretectal nucleus
- "What is the efferent pathway?" - EW nucleus → CN III → ciliary ganglion → short ciliary nerves → sphincter pupillae
- "Why does the other eye also constrict?" - Because each pretectal nucleus projects bilaterally to both EW nuclei
- "Where is the lesion if direct reflex is lost but consensual is preserved?" - Efferent limb (CN III or ciliary ganglion)
- "Where is the lesion if both direct and consensual are lost in one eye?" - Afferent limb (optic nerve of that eye) = RAPD/Marcus Gunn
- "What is Horner's syndrome?" - Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis due to sympathetic chain lesion
- "What dilates the pupil?" - Dilator pupillae (radial) - sympathetic (CN T1 sympathetic chain → superior cervical ganglion → long ciliary nerve)
- "What constricts the pupil?" - Sphincter pupillae (circular) - parasympathetic (CN III)
QUICK REVISION CHEAT SHEET
| Topic | Key Fact |
|---|
| Orbit bones | 7: Frontal, Maxilla, Zygomatic, Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Sphenoid, Palatine |
| Thinnest orbital wall | Medial (lamina papyracea of ethmoid) |
| Corneal layers | Epithelium, Bowman, Stroma, Descemet, Endothelium |
| Corneal nerve supply | CN V1 (nasociliary → long ciliary nerves) |
| Corneal power | 43 D |
| Total eye power | 60 D |
| Lens shape | Biconvex |
| Lens power | 15-17 D (rest) |
| Tear film (outer→inner) | Lipid (Meibomian) → Aqueous (Lacrimal) → Mucin (Goblet cells) |
| Lacrimal gland location | Superolateral orbit |
| Lacrimal nerve supply | CN VII → greater petrosal → pterygopalatine ganglion |
| Lacrimal drainage | Puncta → canaliculi → lacrimal sac → nasolacrimal duct → inferior meatus |
| Retinal layers | 10 layers; RPE is outermost; ILM is innermost |
| Fovea | Only cones; avascular; highest acuity |
| Visual pathway neurons | 1st: photoreceptor-bipolar; 2nd: bipolar-ganglion; 3rd: LGN-cortex |
| Pupil constriction | Sphincter pupillae; parasympathetic via CN III |
| Pupil dilation | Dilator pupillae; sympathetic via T1 |
| RAPD / Marcus Gunn | Swinging flashlight test; paradoxical dilation; afferent defect |
| Normal IOP | 10-21 mmHg |
| Direct ophthalmoscope | 15x magnification; erect virtual image; small field (~5°) |
| Goldmann tonometer | Gold standard for IOP measurement |
| Snellen chart | 6 metres; normal 6/6 |
| Confrontation test disadvantage | Not quantitative; depends on examiner's normal fields |
| Aqueous humor production | Ciliary body; 2 µL/min; drains via trabecular meshwork |
| Vitreous humor | 99% water + collagen + hyaluronic acid |
| Axial length of eyeball | ~24 mm |
Good luck with your viva! Focus especially on the pupillary reflex pathway, layers of cornea + retina, and the confrontation + acuity test demonstrations - those came up most frequently in the previous viva messages.