Here are the answers to Questions 65 through 100 of the PGP-CET 2019 MPT paper:
Q65. A Faradic Galvanic Test is performed to assess
Answer: B - Nerve continuity
The Faradic-Galvanic test (also called the Reaction of Degeneration test) is performed to assess the integrity/continuity of peripheral nerve supply to a muscle. A normal nerve responds to both faradic and galvanic current; a denervated muscle responds only to galvanic (DC) current.
Q66. Movement restriction needed post Total Hip Replacement (posterior lateral approach)
Answer: B - Hip adduction and Internal Rotation
After a posterior lateral approach THR, the capsule and external rotators are cut posteriorly. The restrictions imposed are: no hip flexion beyond 90°, no adduction past midline, and no internal rotation - to prevent posterior dislocation. Option B (adduction + internal rotation) best captures the core restrictions.
Q67. Close chain exercises are helpful following ACL reconstruction surgery as they:
Answer: A - Offer compressive forces
Closed kinetic chain (CKC) exercises produce compressive joint forces that stabilize the knee, reduce anterior tibial shear (which stresses the ACL graft), and promote co-contraction. They do NOT increase shear stresses (B is wrong) or eliminate co-contraction (C is wrong).
Q68. Scoliotic curvature present in standing but NOT in sitting could be due to:
Answer: C - Limb length discrepancy
A postural/functional scoliosis caused by a leg length discrepancy disappears when the patient sits (because sitting equalizes the pelvis). Structural scoliosis (congenital bar, rib fusion) persists in sitting.
Q69. MET technique of Post Isometric Relaxation applied to triceps will help to increase:
Answer: A - Passive Elbow Flexion
Post Isometric Relaxation (PIR) uses a gentle isometric contraction of the target muscle (triceps) followed by relaxation. After the triceps relaxes, the antagonist direction - elbow flexion - can be gained passively. PIR of triceps increases passive elbow flexion range.
Q70. Mainstay of management of Phase III Periarthritis of the shoulder (frozen/thawing phase):
Answer: C - Strengthening of the Gleno Humeral Muscles
Phase III (thawing phase) of adhesive capsulitis is characterized by spontaneous resolution of pain with gradual return of motion. At this stage the focus shifts to strengthening the GH muscles and restoring full function.
Q71. Inability to perform active abduction at the shoulder in the absence of neurological involvement may indicate:
Answer: D - Muscular Tear
If a patient cannot actively abduct the shoulder but has no neurological deficit, the most likely cause is a complete rotator cuff (supraspinatus) tear. This is the classic presentation - passive ROM may be preserved but active motion is lost.
Q72. Most common long-term complication of a stress shielding device used to fix a long bone fracture:
Answer: B - Reduced weight bearing capacity of the bone
Stress shielding occurs when a rigid implant (e.g., a plate or nail) absorbs the mechanical load that would normally go through bone. This leads to disuse osteoporosis/osteopenia, reducing the bone's weight-bearing capacity over time.
Q73. Flexion biased exercises preferred in Spinal Canal Stenosis because:
Answer: D - They increase the neural canal diameters
Lumbar flexion opens the intervertebral foramina and increases the cross-sectional area of the spinal canal, relieving pressure on the neural elements. This is why Williams' flexion exercises are used in lumbar stenosis.
Q74. Initial phase physiotherapy post TKR focuses on preventing:
Answer: B - DVT
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) is the most immediate and serious early complication after TKR. Early physiotherapy (ankle pumps, bed exercises, early mobilization) primarily targets DVT prevention in the initial post-operative phase.
Q75. Type of exercises for a patient with Osteoporosis:
Answer: B - High impact weight bearing
Weight-bearing exercises, particularly higher impact activities (walking, jogging, dancing), stimulate osteoblast activity and improve bone mineral density. Low-impact non-weight-bearing exercises like swimming and cycling do not provide sufficient bone-loading stimulus.
Q76. EMG at rest in a normal subject shows:
Answer: B - Electrical silence
In a normal resting muscle, there is no spontaneous electrical activity. The EMG at rest is electrically silent. Abnormal spontaneous activity at rest (fibrillations, positive sharp waves) indicates denervation or myopathy.
Q77. Vertigo is seen in a lesion of:
Answer: D - VIIIth cranial nerve
The VIIIth cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve) has a vestibular division that is responsible for balance and spatial orientation. Lesions of the vestibular portion of CN VIII cause vertigo (e.g., in vestibular neuritis, acoustic neuroma).
Q78. Ability to integrate information from environment to produce movement is:
Answer: B - Sensory integration
Sensory integration (concept developed by Dr. A. Jean Ayres) refers to the neurological process of organizing sensory information from the body and environment to produce adaptive responses and purposeful movement.
Q79. All are seen in Horner's syndrome EXCEPT:
Answer: A - Mutism
Horner's syndrome consists of: ptosis (B), miosis (C), anhidrosis (ipsilateral - decreased sweating, D). Mutism (inability to speak) is NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome. The classic triad is ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis.
Q80. Decreased arm swing in Parkinson's Disease is due to:
Answer: C - Truncal rigidity
In Parkinson's Disease, the characteristic decreased arm swing during gait is primarily due to rigidity of the trunk and limb muscles (lead-pipe/cogwheel rigidity), which restricts the natural pendulum-like motion of the arms.
Q81. Primitive grasp reflex disappears by the age of:
Answer: C - 4-5 months
The palmar grasp reflex (primitive reflex) is present from birth and normally disappears by 4-5 months of age as cortical inhibition develops. Persistence beyond this age may indicate neurological pathology.
Q82. In Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy, EMG picture shows:
Answer: C - Short durations
DMD is a myopathic disorder. The EMG pattern in myopathies shows small amplitude, short duration, polyphasic motor unit action potentials (MUAPs). Large MUPs with long duration are seen in neurogenic disorders. "Polyphsia" (A) is partially correct but "short durations" is the more specific defining feature of myopathy.
Q83. Ability of the brain to change and adapt is called:
Answer: C - Neuroplasticity
Neuroplasticity refers to the brain's ability to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections throughout life in response to learning, experience, or injury. This is the foundational concept behind neurological rehabilitation.
Q84. Scanning speech is characteristic of:
Answer: B - Cerebellar disorder
Scanning (ataxic) speech is a classic feature of cerebellar disease - words are broken into separate syllables with equal stress and uneven timing. It is one of the hallmark signs of cerebellar dysfunction along with dysmetria, ataxia, and intention tremor.
Q85. Approach that gives emphasis on environment and musculoskeletal components:
Answer: A - Motor re-learning programme (MRP)
The Motor Re-learning Programme (Carr & Shepherd) emphasizes task-specific practice in a functional environment, with attention to eliminating unnecessary muscle activity and relearning tasks using biomechanical (musculoskeletal) and environmental principles.
Q86. Unstick phase of autogenic drainage involves which lung volume:
Answer: A - Low lung volume
Autogenic Drainage has 3 phases:
- Phase 1 (Unstick): Low lung volume - loosens peripheral secretions
- Phase 2 (Collect): Mid lung volume - collects secretions in middle airways
- Phase 3 (Evacuate): High lung volume - clears secretions from central airways
Q87. Pump handle movement of thorax is a feature of:
Answer: B - Upper ribs
The upper ribs move in a "pump handle" motion - rotating around a transverse axis, increasing the anteroposterior diameter of the chest. The lower ribs move in a "bucket handle" motion, increasing the transverse diameter.
Q88. Mediastinal shift towards the affected side is seen in:
Answer: A - Lung collapse (Atelectasis)
Mediastinal shift:
- Towards the affected side: Lung collapse/atelectasis (lung collapses, pulls mediastinum toward it)
- Away from the affected side: Pleural effusion, tension pneumothorax, large tumors
Q89. PEP device that is position-dependent (cannot be used in any position):
Answer: C - Flutter
The Flutter VRP1 is position-dependent - it must be held horizontally (at a specific angle) for the steel ball to create the oscillatory PEP effect. Acapella, Thera-PEP, and Cornet can be used in any position regardless of orientation.
Q90. Acts as pacemaker in the human heart:
Answer: A - SA node
The Sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the right atrium near the SVC, is the natural pacemaker of the heart with an intrinsic rate of 60-100 bpm. It initiates each cardiac cycle by generating an electrical impulse.
Q91. AV blocks considered as incomplete heart blocks:
Answer: C - First and Second degree
- First degree AV block - prolonged PR interval, all impulses conducted (incomplete)
- Second degree AV block - some impulses not conducted (incomplete)
- Third degree (complete) heart block - no impulses conducted at all (complete block)
Q92. In metabolic acidosis, which respiration is seen:
Answer: D - Kussmaul
Kussmaul breathing is the deep, rapid, labored breathing seen in metabolic acidosis (classically in diabetic ketoacidosis). It is a compensatory mechanism to blow off CO₂ and raise blood pH.
Q93. As respiratory rate increases, the I:E ratio:
Answer: B - Decreases
As respiratory rate increases, the expiratory time is shortened proportionally more than inspiratory time, causing the I:E ratio to decrease (expiration gets relatively shorter). Normally I:E is 1:2; with tachypnea it approaches 1:1 or the ratio decreases.
Q94. Characteristics (loud, high pitched, hollow quality, louder on expiration, distinct pause) describe which breath sounds:
Answer: A - Bronchial
Bronchial breath sounds are loud, high-pitched, tubular/hollow in quality, louder on expiration than inspiration, with a distinct pause between the two phases. They are normal over the trachea but abnormal over lung parenchyma (indicating consolidation).
Q95. JVP normally not visible how many cm above sternal angle at 45°:
Answer: B - 2 cms
Normally, the jugular venous pressure is not visible more than 3 cm above the sternal angle at 45°. The most accurate answer among the choices is B - 2 cms, representing the upper limit of the normal JVP column above the sternal angle.
Q96. Cystocoele involves prolapse of:
Answer: C - Bladder
A cystocoele is a herniation/prolapse of the urinary bladder through the anterior vaginal wall. Compare: rectocoele = rectum prolapse; enterocoele = small intestine prolapse; urethrocoele = urethra prolapse.
Q97. Age-related change in the respiratory system:
Answer: B - Increase in the pulmonary arterial pressure
With aging: lung compliance increases (loss of elastic recoil), FEV1 decreases, airway resistance increases, pulmonary arterial pressure increases slightly due to vascular stiffening. Pulmonary diffusion capacity decreases (not increases).
Q98. Factors contributing to work-related cumulative trauma disorders - EXCEPT:
Answer: A - Nature of work
(Note: This question is somewhat debated.) Work-related cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs/RSIs) are caused by: repetitive motions, force application (C), awkward work posture (B), and work duration (D). "Nature of work" is a broad category but is generally considered a contributing factor too. However, if one must choose what is LEAST directly a biomechanical risk factor among the options, A - Nature of work is the most general/vague descriptor compared to the specific biomechanical factors.
Q99. Energy system utilized in aerobic exercises:
Answer: C - Phosphorylation (specifically oxidative phosphorylation)
Aerobic exercises utilize the oxidative phosphorylation system (aerobic metabolism) - the Krebs cycle + electron transport chain in mitochondria. Phosphocreatine (A) and ATP (B) are used in very short bursts (anaerobic). Lactic acid (D) is produced in anaerobic glycolysis.
Q100. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment is a component of which rehabilitation domain:
Answer: C - Secondary
The levels of prevention/rehabilitation:
- Primary: Prevent disease occurrence (health promotion)
- Secondary: Early diagnosis and prompt treatment to halt disease progression
- Tertiary: Reduce disability, rehabilitation after disease is established
- Primordial: Prevent risk factors from developing
Summary Answer Key (Q65-Q100):
| Q | Answer | | Q | Answer |
|---|
| 65 | B | | 83 | C |
| 66 | B | | 84 | B |
| 67 | A | | 85 | A |
| 68 | C | | 86 | A |
| 69 | A | | 87 | B |
| 70 | C | | 88 | A |
| 71 | D | | 89 | C |
| 72 | B | | 90 | A |
| 73 | D | | 91 | C |
| 74 | B | | 92 | D |
| 75 | B | | 93 | B |
| 76 | B | | 94 | A |
| 77 | D | | 95 | B |
| 78 | B | | 96 | C |
| 79 | A | | 97 | B |
| 80 | C | | 98 | A |
| 81 | C | | 99 | C |
| 82 | C | | 100 | C |