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FMGE June 2026 memory based questions medicine subject answers

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Here is a summary of what is available for FMGE June 2026 (held June 28, 2026) - Medicine subject memory-based questions:

FMGE June 2026 - Medicine: What's Known

Exam Overview

  • Overall difficulty: Moderate to Difficult
  • Paper 1: Tougher, more conceptual and lengthy
  • Paper 2: More balanced and manageable
  • 20+ video-based questions across both papers (a new prominent feature)
  • Strong shift toward clinical reasoning over rote recall

Medicine Subject Highlights (June 2026)

Medicine was one of the highest-weightage subjects. Questions focused on:
  • Clinical diagnosis (case-based scenarios)
  • Interpretation of investigations (ECG strips, chest X-rays)
  • Patient management decisions
  • Applied pharmacological reasoning
  • Multi-system integrated clinical scenarios
Specific recalled topics from Medicine (per the DocTutorials recall video at timestamp 3:09:58):
  • Altitude sickness - Acetazolamide for prophylaxis; immediate descent for treatment
  • ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis) - probable question on presentation
  • ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) - anion gap calculation questions (2 questions: one for diagnosis, one for anion gap calculation)
  • Endocrinology - at least one question
  • Questions on otic noises / tinnitus (likely integrated ENT-Medicine)
  • Cardiac presentations (tamponade was discussed but not confirmed)

Where to Find the Full Memory-Based Questions

The most comprehensive recall sessions are available as videos. The Medicine section starts at these timestamps:
In the DocTutorials FMGE 2026 recall video (Medicine starts at 3:09:58):
In the PW MedEd FMGE June 2026 recall video (Medicine starts at 1:57:31):
The FMGE June 2026 paper analysis (difficulty, subject-wise breakdown):

Important Note

NBEMS never releases the official FMGE question paper. All available questions are memory-based, compiled from student recalls after the exam. The most complete and verified collections are in the YouTube recall videos above. The careers360 article was still being updated with subject-wise questions at the time of writing - it's worth checking again as more recalls get verified.
For a structured subject-wise list with expert answers, the YouTube recall videos from DocTutorials and PW MedEd are your best resource for Medicine questions from this exam.

Give 20 question with explaintation

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Here are 20 FMGE June 2026 style Medicine questions with detailed explanations, based on recalled topics and standard high-yield content:

FMGE June 2026 - Medicine: 20 Questions with Explanations


Q1. Altitude Sickness / Prophylaxis

A 28-year-old trekker is planning an expedition to 4500 m altitude. Which drug is most appropriate for prophylaxis of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS)?
A) Aspirin B) Acetazolamide C) Nifedipine D) Ibuprofen
Answer: B) Acetazolamide
Explanation: Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of AMS. It works by inducing a metabolic acidosis, which stimulates ventilation and helps acclimatization. The usual prophylactic dose is 125-250 mg BD, started 1-2 days before ascent. For treatment of established AMS - immediate descent is the definitive intervention. Nifedipine is used for High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) specifically. (Source: Goodman & Gilman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics; Lippincott Pharmacology)

Q2. Anion Gap Calculation

A patient presents with vomiting and altered sensorium. ABG shows: pH 7.22, HCO3 8 mEq/L. Serum Na+ = 140, Cl- = 100, HCO3 = 8. What is the Anion Gap and what type of acidosis is this?
A) AG = 12, Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis B) AG = 32, High anion gap metabolic acidosis C) AG = 20, Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis D) AG = 8, Respiratory acidosis
Answer: B) AG = 32, High anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Anion Gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-) = 140 - (100 + 8) = 32 mEq/L (normal = 8-12 mEq/L). High AG metabolic acidosis - mnemonic MUDPILES: Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Propylene glycol, Isoniazid/Iron, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates. Normal AG (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis causes: Diarrhea, RTA, ureteral diversion. (Source: Swanson's Family Medicine Review; Rosen's Emergency Medicine)

Q3. ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)

A 55-year-old male presents with progressive weakness of both upper and lower limbs, muscle wasting, fasciculations, hyperreflexia, and spasticity. Sensory examination is NORMAL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Multiple sclerosis B) Myasthenia gravis C) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) D) Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Answer: C) ALS
Explanation: ALS (Lou Gehrig's disease) is the most common motor neuron disease. It involves both upper AND lower motor neurons simultaneously:
  • UMN signs: spasticity, hyperreflexia, Babinski positive
  • LMN signs: wasting, fasciculations, hypotonia
Key hallmark: Sensory system is COMPLETELY SPARED. Cognition is also typically preserved. Riluzole (glutamate antagonist) is the only approved drug that modestly prolongs survival. Edaravone (free radical scavenger) is also approved. Prognosis is poor - median survival 3-5 years. (Source: Bradley and Daroff's Neurology; Robbins & Kumar Pathology)

Q4. DKA Management

A 22-year-old known T1DM patient presents with polyuria, vomiting, and deep sighing respirations (Kussmaul breathing). Blood glucose = 450 mg/dL, pH = 7.12, HCO3 = 10. Serum K+ = 5.8 mEq/L. What is the first step in management?
A) IV insulin bolus immediately B) IV 0.9% Normal Saline C) IV Potassium replacement D) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: B) IV 0.9% Normal Saline
Explanation: In DKA management, the priority order is:
  1. IV fluids first (0.9% NS at 1 L/hr for the first hour) - corrects dehydration and hypoperfusion
  2. Insulin - start only after K+ > 3.5 mEq/L (to avoid fatal hypokalemia). Begin at 0.1 units/kg/hr
  3. Potassium - though K+ appears high initially, total body K+ is depleted. Once insulin is started, K+ shifts intracellularly - replace when < 5.5
  4. Bicarbonate - only if pH < 6.9
Never start insulin before fluid resuscitation! (Source: Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics; Comprehensive Clinical Nephrology)

Q5. Thyroid Storm

A 35-year-old female with known hyperthyroidism presents post-surgery with fever (40°C), tachycardia (HR 160), agitation, and confusion. What is the drug of choice for controlling heart rate in Thyroid Storm?
A) Metoprolol B) Propranolol C) Atenolol D) Digoxin
Answer: B) Propranolol
Explanation: Propranolol is the beta-blocker of choice in thyroid storm because:
  1. It controls tachycardia (sympathetic blockade)
  2. It inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (the active form) - unique property of non-selective beta-blockers
  3. It has a rapid onset
Full thyroid storm management (Burch-Wartofsky criteria):
  • PTU (preferred over methimazole - also blocks T4→T3 conversion)
  • Propranolol (control HR)
  • Lugol's iodine (given 1 hour after PTU - blocks hormone release)
  • Hydrocortisone (prevents adrenal insufficiency + blocks T4→T3)
  • Supportive care, treat precipitating cause
(Source: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine; Sabiston Surgery Textbook)

Q6. Nephrotic Syndrome

A 6-year-old child presents with periorbital puffiness and pedal edema. Urine shows 4+ protein. Serum albumin = 1.8 g/dL, cholesterol = 340 mg/dL, BP is normal. Kidney biopsy shows no abnormality on light microscopy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) IgA Nephropathy B) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis C) Minimal Change Disease D) Membranous Nephropathy
Answer: C) Minimal Change Disease (MCD)
Explanation: Classic features of Nephrotic Syndrome: Proteinuria > 3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia/lipiduria. MCD is the most common cause in children (80% of cases). Biopsy shows:
  • Light microscopy: Normal
  • Electron microscopy: Fusion/effacement of podocyte foot processes (hallmark)
  • Immunofluorescence: Negative
Treatment: Corticosteroids (prednisolone) - 90% respond. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. (Source: Symptom to Diagnosis; Brenner & Rector's The Kidney)

Q7. Infective Endocarditis

A 30-year-old IV drug user presents with fever, new murmur, and multiple peripheral emboli. Blood cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus. Which valve is most commonly affected in IV drug users?
A) Mitral valve B) Aortic valve C) Tricuspid valve D) Pulmonary valve
Answer: C) Tricuspid valve
Explanation: In IV drug users, the right-sided heart is affected, particularly the tricuspid valve, because injected bacteria enter venous circulation directly. Features of Right-sided IE:
  • Septic pulmonary emboli (cavitating lung lesions on CXR)
  • Less peripheral embolic phenomena than left-sided IE
  • S. aureus is the most common organism overall in IVDU-IE
Left-sided IE (mitral/aortic) causes systemic emboli: splenic infarcts, renal infarcts, stroke, Osler nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth spots. Duke Criteria: 2 major OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minor = definite IE.

Q8. Hypertensive Emergency

A 55-year-old hypertensive patient presents to the ER with BP 220/130 mmHg, papilledema, and hematuria. What is the drug of choice for immediate management?
A) Oral nifedipine B) IV Labetalol or IV Nicardipine C) Oral amlodipine D) IM furosemide
Answer: B) IV Labetalol or IV Nicardipine
Explanation: This is a hypertensive emergency (elevated BP + acute target organ damage: eyes, kidneys). Management:
  • Admit to ICU
  • IV antihypertensives (IV labetalol, IV nicardipine, IV sodium nitroprusside)
  • Reduce MAP by no more than 25% in the first hour, then gradually to 160/100 over 2-6 hours
  • Avoid rapid drops (can cause stroke, MI, renal failure)
Oral nifedipine is CONTRAINDICATED - causes unpredictable rapid drops. Hypertensive urgency (no organ damage) = oral antihypertensives, outpatient management.

Q9. Pulmonary Embolism

A 45-year-old post-operative patient develops sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and oxygen saturation drop to 88%. ECG shows S1Q3T3 pattern. What is the most definitive diagnostic test?
A) Chest X-ray B) D-dimer C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA) D) V/Q scan
Answer: C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
Explanation: CTPA is the gold standard for diagnosing PE.
  • ECG S1Q3T3 pattern (S wave in I, Q wave and T wave inversion in III) - classic but not sensitive
  • D-dimer: High sensitivity, LOW specificity (useful to rule OUT PE in low-probability cases - negative predictive value)
  • CXR: Often normal or shows Hampton's hump (wedge opacity), Westermark sign (oligemia)
  • V/Q scan: Used when CTPA is contraindicated (renal failure, dye allergy, pregnancy)
Treatment: Anticoagulation (heparin initially, then warfarin/DOAC). Thrombolytics for massive PE with hemodynamic instability. (Source: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Q10. Heart Failure

A 60-year-old patient with heart failure (EF = 30%) is on optimal medical therapy. Which drug has been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
A) Amlodipine B) Digoxin C) Carvedilol (beta-blocker) D) Furosemide
Answer: C) Carvedilol
Explanation: Drugs proven to reduce mortality in HFrEF:
  1. ACE inhibitors / ARBs (or ARNi - Sacubitril/Valsartan)
  2. Beta-blockers: Carvedilol, Metoprolol succinate, Bisoprolol (only these 3 are proven)
  3. Aldosterone antagonists: Spironolactone, Eplerenone
  4. SGLT2 inhibitors: Dapagliflozin, Empagliflozin (newer addition)
Furosemide: Relieves symptoms (edema, dyspnea) but does NOT reduce mortality. Digoxin: Reduces hospitalizations, does NOT reduce mortality. Amlodipine: No mortality benefit in HFrEF (may be used for coexisting hypertension).

Q11. Atrial Fibrillation

A 65-year-old patient with AF is being considered for anticoagulation. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3. What is the most appropriate management?
A) Aspirin alone B) Warfarin or DOAC (e.g., Apixaban) C) Heparin infusion D) No anticoagulation needed
Answer: B) Warfarin or DOAC
Explanation: CHA2DS2-VASc scoring for stroke risk in non-valvular AF:
  • C = CHF (1), H = Hypertension (1), A2 = Age ≥75 (2), D = Diabetes (1), S2 = Stroke/TIA (2), V = Vascular disease (1), A = Age 65-74 (1), Sc = Sex (female = 1)
  • Score 0 (male) / 1 (female) = No anticoagulation
  • Score ≥ 2 (male) / ≥ 3 (female) = Oral anticoagulation recommended
DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran) are preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF (no need for INR monitoring, fewer drug interactions). Warfarin is used in valvular AF (mechanical valves, mitral stenosis).

Q12. Wilson's Disease

A 20-year-old presents with liver cirrhosis, neuropsychiatric symptoms, and Kayser-Fleischer (KF) rings on slit-lamp examination. Serum ceruloplasmin is low. What is the treatment of choice?
A) Penicillamine B) Deferoxamine C) Succimer D) Activated charcoal
Answer: A) Penicillamine
Explanation: Wilson's disease = Autosomal recessive disorder of copper metabolism (ATP7B gene mutation on chromosome 13). Copper accumulates in liver, brain, eyes, kidneys.
  • KF rings (golden-brown rings at corneal periphery) = pathognomonic
  • Low serum ceruloplasmin (< 20 mg/dL)
  • Elevated 24-hour urine copper
  • Liver biopsy: Elevated hepatic copper
Treatment:
  • Penicillamine (copper chelator) = first-line
  • Trientine = if penicillamine intolerance
  • Zinc = maintenance / asymptomatic patients (blocks copper absorption)
  • Liver transplant for fulminant hepatic failure

Q13. Addison's Disease

A 35-year-old presents with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of skin and buccal mucosa, and hypotension. Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cushing's syndrome B) Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) C) Secondary hypothyroidism D) SIADH
Answer: B) Addison's Disease
Explanation: Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) features:
  • Hyperpigmentation (due to high ACTH/MSH - only in PRIMARY, not secondary)
  • Weakness, fatigue, weight loss, nausea, anorexia
  • Hyponatremia + Hyperkalemia (mineralocorticoid deficiency)
  • Hypotension, hypoglycemia
  • Most common cause in developed countries: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Diagnosis: Short Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test - failure to rise cortisol > 18-20 mcg/dL confirms diagnosis. Treatment: Hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid) + Fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid). Adrenal crisis = IV hydrocortisone 100 mg stat.

Q14. Rheumatoid Arthritis

A 40-year-old female presents with morning stiffness lasting > 1 hour, symmetrical small joint arthritis (MCPs and PIPs), subcutaneous nodules, and positive Rheumatoid Factor. What is the drug of choice for long-term disease modification?
A) Aspirin B) Prednisolone C) Methotrexate (MTX) D) Indomethacin
Answer: C) Methotrexate
Explanation: Methotrexate is the anchor DMARD (Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drug) of choice in RA:
  • Folic acid antagonist (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase)
  • Given weekly (oral/SC)
  • Folic acid supplementation given on non-MTX days (reduces toxicity)
  • Side effects: Hepatotoxicity, pulmonary fibrosis, bone marrow suppression, mucositis, teratogenic
RA diagnosis (ACR/EULAR 2010 criteria): Joint involvement + serology (RF/anti-CCP) + acute phase reactants + duration ≥ 6 weeks. Anti-CCP (anti-citrullinated protein antibody) is MORE specific for RA than RF.

Q15. Meningitis

A 20-year-old college student presents with fever, severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching petechial rash. What is the most likely causative organism?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Haemophilus influenzae
Answer: B) Neisseria meningitidis (Meningococcal meningitis)
Explanation: Non-blanching petechial/purpuric rash = hallmark of meningococcemia. N. meningitidis is a gram-negative diplococcus.
  • Most common in young adults, college students (close contact, dormitory living)
  • Can cause Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (bilateral adrenal hemorrhage, shock)
  • Treatment: IV Benzylpenicillin / IV Ceftriaxone - start immediately even before LP if rash present
  • Chemoprophylaxis for contacts: Rifampicin or single-dose Ciprofloxacin
S. pneumoniae: Most common overall cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, associated with CSF glucose < 40%. Listeria: Elderly, immunocompromised, neonates - treatment includes ampicillin.

Q16. COPD Exacerbation

A 65-year-old chronic smoker with COPD presents with increased breathlessness, purulent sputum, and worsening wheeze. ABG shows pH 7.30, pCO2 65 mmHg, pO2 52 mmHg. What is the first-line management?
A) High-flow oxygen at 15 L/min B) Controlled low-flow oxygen (28%, 1-2 L/min) + bronchodilators + antibiotics C) IV methylprednisolone alone D) Immediate intubation
Answer: B) Controlled low-flow oxygen + bronchodilators + antibiotics
Explanation: COPD patients are chronic CO2 retainers with hypoxic drive - giving HIGH-flow O2 removes this drive and causes respiratory depression (worsening hypercapnia). AECOPD management:
  • Controlled O2 targeting SpO2 88-92% (not 95-98%)
  • Short-acting bronchodilators: Salbutamol + Ipratropium nebulized
  • Oral/IV prednisolone (5-7 days)
  • Antibiotics (Amoxicillin/Doxycycline/Azithromycin) if purulent sputum or signs of infection
  • NIV (BiPAP) if pH < 7.35 and pCO2 elevated after initial therapy
  • Intubation only if NIV fails

Q17. Peptic Ulcer Disease

A 45-year-old presents with epigastric pain relieved by food. Endoscopy shows a duodenal ulcer. H. pylori is positive. What is the standard triple therapy?
A) Omeprazole + Metronidazole + Tinidazole B) Omeprazole + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin (for 14 days) C) Ranitidine + Ciprofloxacin + Doxycycline D) Lansoprazole + Tetracycline alone
Answer: B) OCA Triple Therapy (PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin)
Explanation: Standard H. pylori eradication therapy:
  • PPI (Omeprazole/Lansoprazole/Pantoprazole) + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin for 14 days
  • If penicillin allergy: Replace amoxicillin with Metronidazole
  • Confirm eradication 4 weeks after treatment: Urea breath test (preferred) or stool antigen test
H. pylori facts:
  • Gram-negative, urease-positive, spiral rod
  • Causes Type B (antral) gastritis
  • Most common cause of duodenal ulcer worldwide
  • NSAID use is the other major cause (prostaglandin inhibition)
  • Eradication reduces ulcer recurrence from 80% to < 10%

Q18. Liver Cirrhosis - Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)

A 55-year-old alcoholic with liver cirrhosis and ascites develops fever and abdominal pain. Ascitic fluid analysis shows WBC = 450 cells/mm3, PMN = 300 cells/mm3 (>250). What is the treatment?
A) IV Ampicillin + Cloxacillin B) IV Cefotaxime (3rd generation cephalosporin) C) Oral Ciprofloxacin D) Paracentesis alone
Answer: B) IV Cefotaxime
Explanation: SBP diagnosis: Ascitic fluid PMN (neutrophils) ≥ 250 cells/mm3 (even without positive culture = culture-negative SBP). Most common organisms: E. coli, Klebsiella, S. pneumoniae (gut flora translocation). Treatment: IV Cefotaxime 2g q8h for 5 days (or IV Ceftriaxone).
  • Add IV Albumin (1.5 g/kg on day 1, 1 g/kg on day 3) to prevent hepatorenal syndrome
  • Long-term prophylaxis after SBP episode: Norfloxacin 400 mg OD (or Ciprofloxacin)
  • Primary prophylaxis in high-risk patients (ascitic protein < 1.5 g/dL): Norfloxacin

Q19. Stroke

A 60-year-old hypertensive presents within 2 hours with sudden-onset left hemiplegia. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. What is the definitive treatment if eligible?
A) Aspirin 300 mg immediately B) IV Alteplase (tPA) thrombolysis C) IV Heparin infusion D) Warfarin loading
Answer: B) IV Alteplase (tPA)
Explanation: Ischemic stroke: IV tPA (Alteplase) is indicated within 4.5 hours of symptom onset (window period). Eligibility requirements: No hemorrhage on CT, BP < 185/110 mmHg, no recent surgery/bleeding, no prior stroke within 3 months. Dose: 0.9 mg/kg IV (max 90 mg), 10% as bolus, 90% over 60 minutes.
Contraindications to thrombolysis: Hemorrhagic stroke, recent major surgery, BP uncontrolled, platelets < 100,000, INR > 1.7.
Mechanical thrombectomy (MERCI/stent-retriever): For large vessel occlusion, can extend up to 24 hours in selected patients. Aspirin: Given 24 hours AFTER tPA, or immediately if tPA not given.

Q20. Malaria

A 25-year-old returns from Assam with high-grade fever with chills and rigor every 48 hours, jaundice, and black urine (hemoglobinuria). Blood film shows ring forms and banana-shaped gametocytes. What is the diagnosis and treatment?
A) P. vivax - Chloroquine B) P. falciparum - Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT) C) P. malariae - Primaquine D) P. ovale - Quinine
Answer: B) P. falciparum - ACT
Explanation:
  • Banana/crescent-shaped gametocytes = pathognomonic for P. falciparum
  • Black water fever (hemoglobinuria) = complication of falciparum malaria
  • P. falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria (most dangerous)
  • Treatment: Artemether-Lumefantrine (Coartem) or Artesunate-based ACT - first-line for uncomplicated falciparum
  • Severe/cerebral malaria: IV Artesunate (preferred over IV quinine)
  • P. vivax/ovale: Chloroquine + Primaquine (to eliminate liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse)
  • Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum is now widespread; ACT is standard worldwide

Summary Table

QTopicKey Answer
1Altitude sicknessAcetazolamide (prophylaxis)
2Anion gapAG = Na-(Cl+HCO3); normal = 12
3ALSUMN + LMN, NO sensory loss
4DKAIV fluids FIRST, then insulin
5Thyroid stormPropranolol (blocks T4→T3)
6Nephrotic syndromeMCD (normal LM, foot process effacement on EM)
7Endocarditis (IVDU)Tricuspid valve, S. aureus
8Hypertensive emergencyIV antihypertensives, reduce MAP 25% in 1 hr
9PECTPA gold standard; D-dimer rules out
10HFrEFCarvedilol, ACEi, spironolactone, SGLT2i reduce mortality
11AF anticoagulationCHA2DS2-VASc ≥2 → DOAC
12Wilson's diseasePenicillamine (chelator); KF rings
13Addison's diseaseHyperpigmentation + hypoNa + hyperK
14RAMethotrexate (anchor DMARD)
15Meningococcal meningitisN. meningitidis; petechial rash
16COPD exacerbationControlled O2 (88-92%), NOT high-flow
17H. pylori triple therapyOCA x 14 days
18SBPPMN ≥250; IV Cefotaxime
19Ischemic stroketPA within 4.5 hours
20Falciparum malariaBanana gametocytes; ACT (Artemether-Lumefantrine)

These 20 questions cover the high-yield Medicine topics that frequently appear in FMGE. All topics (ALS, ABG/anion gap, altitude sickness) directly match recalled questions from June 2026. Good luck with your preparation!

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mkdir -p /tmp/workspace/fmge-2026 && cat > /tmp/workspace/fmge-2026/generate_pdf.py << 'PYEOF' from reportlab.lib.pagesizes import A4 from reportlab.lib.styles import getSampleStyleSheet, ParagraphStyle from reportlab.lib.units import cm from reportlab.lib import colors from reportlab.platypus import SimpleDocTemplate, Paragraph, Spacer, Table, TableStyle, HRFlowable, PageBreak from reportlab.lib.enums import TA_CENTER, TA_LEFT, TA_JUSTIFY import os output_path = "/tmp/workspace/fmge-2026/FMGE_June2026_Medicine_20Questions.pdf" doc = SimpleDocTemplate( output_path, pagesize=A4, rightMargin=2*cm, leftMargin=2*cm, topMargin=2*cm, bottomMargin=2*cm ) styles = getSampleStyleSheet() # Custom styles title_style = ParagraphStyle( 'CustomTitle', parent=styles['Title'], fontSize=20, textColor=colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b'), spaceAfter=6, alignment=TA_CENTER, fontName='Helvetica-Bold' ) subtitle_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Subtitle', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=12, textColor=colors.HexColor('#2e6da4'), spaceAfter=4, alignment=TA_CENTER, fontName='Helvetica' ) q_num_style = ParagraphStyle( 'QNum', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=13, textColor=colors.white, fontName='Helvetica-Bold', alignment=TA_CENTER ) question_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Question', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=11, textColor=colors.HexColor('#1a1a1a'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold', spaceAfter=6, spaceBefore=4, leading=16 ) option_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Option', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=10.5, textColor=colors.HexColor('#333333'), fontName='Helvetica', spaceAfter=2, leftIndent=12, leading=14 ) answer_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Answer', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=11, textColor=colors.HexColor('#1a6b2e'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold', spaceAfter=4, spaceBefore=4 ) explanation_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Explanation', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=10, textColor=colors.HexColor('#222222'), fontName='Helvetica', spaceAfter=4, leading=15, alignment=TA_JUSTIFY ) source_style = ParagraphStyle( 'Source', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=9, textColor=colors.HexColor('#666666'), fontName='Helvetica-Oblique', spaceAfter=2 ) section_head_style = ParagraphStyle( 'SectionHead', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=10.5, textColor=colors.HexColor('#8B0000'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold', spaceAfter=3, spaceBefore=2 ) # ---- Content Data ---- questions = [ { "num": 1, "topic": "Altitude Sickness / Prophylaxis", "question": "A 28-year-old trekker is planning an expedition to 4500 m altitude. Which drug is most appropriate for PROPHYLAXIS of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS)?", "options": ["A) Aspirin", "B) Acetazolamide", "C) Nifedipine", "D) Ibuprofen"], "answer": "B) Acetazolamide", "explanation": ( "Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of AMS. " "It works by inducing a metabolic acidosis, which stimulates ventilation and aids acclimatization. " "Prophylactic dose: 125-250 mg BD, started 1-2 days before ascent. " "For TREATMENT of established AMS - immediate DESCENT is the definitive intervention. " "Nifedipine is used specifically for High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)." ), "source": "Goodman & Gilman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics; Lippincott Pharmacology" }, { "num": 2, "topic": "Anion Gap Calculation", "question": "ABG shows pH 7.22, HCO3 8 mEq/L. Serum Na+ = 140, Cl- = 100, HCO3 = 8. What is the Anion Gap and type of acidosis?", "options": ["A) AG = 12, Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis", "B) AG = 32, High anion gap metabolic acidosis", "C) AG = 20, Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis", "D) AG = 8, Respiratory acidosis"], "answer": "B) AG = 32, High anion gap metabolic acidosis", "explanation": ( "Anion Gap = Na+ - (Cl- + HCO3-) = 140 - (100 + 8) = 32 mEq/L (normal = 8-12 mEq/L). " "High AG metabolic acidosis - mnemonic MUDPILES: Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Propylene glycol, " "Isoniazid/Iron, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates. " "Normal AG (hyperchloremic) metabolic acidosis: Diarrhea, RTA, ureteral diversion." ), "source": "Swanson's Family Medicine Review; Rosen's Emergency Medicine" }, { "num": 3, "topic": "ALS (Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis)", "question": "A 55-year-old male presents with progressive weakness, muscle wasting, fasciculations, hyperreflexia, and spasticity. Sensory examination is NORMAL. What is the most likely diagnosis?", "options": ["A) Multiple sclerosis", "B) Myasthenia gravis", "C) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)", "D) Guillain-Barre Syndrome"], "answer": "C) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)", "explanation": ( "ALS (Lou Gehrig disease) involves BOTH upper AND lower motor neurons simultaneously. " "UMN signs: spasticity, hyperreflexia, Babinski positive. " "LMN signs: wasting, fasciculations, hypotonia. " "KEY HALLMARK: Sensory system is COMPLETELY SPARED. " "Treatment: Riluzole (glutamate antagonist) and Edaravone (free radical scavenger). " "Prognosis: Poor - median survival 3-5 years." ), "source": "Bradley and Daroff's Neurology; Robbins & Kumar Pathology" }, { "num": 4, "topic": "DKA Management", "question": "A 22-year-old T1DM patient presents with polyuria, Kussmaul breathing, glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.12, HCO3 10. Serum K+ = 5.8 mEq/L. What is the FIRST step in management?", "options": ["A) IV insulin bolus immediately", "B) IV 0.9% Normal Saline", "C) IV Potassium replacement", "D) Sodium bicarbonate"], "answer": "B) IV 0.9% Normal Saline", "explanation": ( "DKA management priority: 1) IV fluids FIRST (0.9% NS at 1 L/hr) - corrects dehydration. " "2) Insulin - start only after K+ > 3.5 mEq/L (to avoid fatal hypokalemia); 0.1 units/kg/hr. " "3) Potassium - replace when K+ < 5.5 (total body K+ is depleted even if serum appears high). " "4) Bicarbonate - ONLY if pH < 6.9. " "NEVER start insulin before fluid resuscitation!" ), "source": "Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics; Comprehensive Clinical Nephrology" }, { "num": 5, "topic": "Thyroid Storm", "question": "A 35-year-old female post-surgery develops fever 40°C, HR 160, agitation, and confusion. What is the drug of choice for controlling heart rate in Thyroid Storm?", "options": ["A) Metoprolol", "B) Propranolol", "C) Atenolol", "D) Digoxin"], "answer": "B) Propranolol", "explanation": ( "Propranolol is the beta-blocker of choice in thyroid storm because it: " "(1) Controls tachycardia via sympathetic blockade; " "(2) Inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (unique to non-selective beta-blockers). " "Full thyroid storm Rx: PTU (blocks synthesis + T4->T3) + Propranolol + " "Lugol's iodine (1 hr after PTU) + Hydrocortisone + Supportive care." ), "source": "Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine; Sabiston Surgery Textbook" }, { "num": 6, "topic": "Nephrotic Syndrome / Minimal Change Disease", "question": "A 6-year-old presents with periorbital puffiness, 4+ proteinuria, albumin 1.8 g/dL, cholesterol 340 mg/dL, normal BP. Kidney biopsy shows no abnormality on light microscopy. Diagnosis?", "options": ["A) IgA Nephropathy", "B) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis", "C) Minimal Change Disease", "D) Membranous Nephropathy"], "answer": "C) Minimal Change Disease (MCD)", "explanation": ( "Nephrotic syndrome: Proteinuria >3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia/lipiduria. " "MCD is the most common cause in CHILDREN (80% of cases). " "Biopsy: Light microscopy NORMAL; EM shows foot process effacement (hallmark); IF negative. " "Treatment: Corticosteroids (prednisolone) - 90% respond. " "Membranous nephropathy = most common cause in adults." ), "source": "Symptom to Diagnosis; Brenner & Rector's The Kidney" }, { "num": 7, "topic": "Infective Endocarditis (IVDU)", "question": "A 30-year-old IV drug user presents with fever, new murmur, and multiple peripheral emboli. Blood cultures grow S. aureus. Which valve is most commonly affected?", "options": ["A) Mitral valve", "B) Aortic valve", "C) Tricuspid valve", "D) Pulmonary valve"], "answer": "C) Tricuspid valve", "explanation": ( "In IV drug users, RIGHT-sided heart is affected - especially the TRICUSPID valve. " "Bacteria enter venous circulation and seed right-sided structures. " "Features: Septic pulmonary emboli (cavitating lesions on CXR). " "S. aureus is the most common organism in IVDU-IE. " "Left-sided IE: Causes systemic emboli - Osler nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth spots, splenic/renal infarcts. " "Duke Criteria: 2 major OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minor = definite IE." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 8, "topic": "Hypertensive Emergency", "question": "A 55-year-old presents with BP 220/130 mmHg, papilledema, and hematuria. What is the most appropriate management?", "options": ["A) Oral nifedipine", "B) IV Labetalol or IV Nicardipine", "C) Oral amlodipine", "D) IM furosemide"], "answer": "B) IV Labetalol or IV Nicardipine", "explanation": ( "Hypertensive emergency = elevated BP + acute target organ damage (eyes, kidneys, brain). " "Management: Admit to ICU; IV antihypertensives (IV labetalol, IV nicardipine, IV nitroprusside). " "Reduce MAP by NO MORE than 25% in the first hour, then gradually to 160/100 over 2-6 hours. " "AVOID rapid drops - can cause stroke, MI, renal failure. " "Oral nifedipine is CONTRAINDICATED - causes unpredictable rapid BP drop. " "Urgency (no organ damage) = oral agents, outpatient." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine" }, { "num": 9, "topic": "Pulmonary Embolism", "question": "A 45-year-old post-operative patient develops sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, SpO2 88%. ECG shows S1Q3T3. What is the GOLD STANDARD diagnostic test?", "options": ["A) Chest X-ray", "B) D-dimer", "C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)", "D) V/Q scan"], "answer": "C) CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)", "explanation": ( "CTPA is the gold standard for diagnosing PE. " "D-dimer: High sensitivity, LOW specificity - useful to RULE OUT PE in low-probability patients. " "ECG S1Q3T3: Classic but not sensitive (also seen in RV strain). " "CXR: Often normal; may show Hampton's hump (wedge opacity) or Westermark sign (oligemia). " "V/Q scan: Use when CTPA contraindicated (renal failure, dye allergy, pregnancy). " "Treatment: Anticoagulation (heparin initially). Thrombolytics for massive PE with hemodynamic instability." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, { "num": 10, "topic": "Heart Failure with Reduced EF (HFrEF)", "question": "A 60-year-old with HFrEF (EF=30%) on optimal therapy. Which drug is proven to REDUCE MORTALITY?", "options": ["A) Amlodipine", "B) Digoxin", "C) Carvedilol (beta-blocker)", "D) Furosemide"], "answer": "C) Carvedilol", "explanation": ( "Drugs proven to reduce MORTALITY in HFrEF: " "1) ACE inhibitors / ARBs (or ARNi - Sacubitril/Valsartan); " "2) Beta-blockers: Carvedilol, Metoprolol succinate, Bisoprolol (only these 3 proven); " "3) Aldosterone antagonists: Spironolactone, Eplerenone; " "4) SGLT2 inhibitors: Dapagliflozin, Empagliflozin. " "Furosemide = symptom relief only, NO mortality benefit. " "Digoxin = reduces hospitalizations, NO mortality benefit." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 11, "topic": "Atrial Fibrillation - Anticoagulation", "question": "A 65-year-old with AF has CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3. What is the most appropriate management?", "options": ["A) Aspirin alone", "B) Warfarin or DOAC (e.g. Apixaban)", "C) Heparin infusion", "D) No anticoagulation needed"], "answer": "B) Warfarin or DOAC (e.g. Apixaban)", "explanation": ( "CHA2DS2-VASc: C=CHF(1), H=HTN(1), A2=Age>=75(2), D=DM(1), S2=Stroke/TIA(2), V=Vascular disease(1), " "A=Age 65-74(1), Sc=Sex female(1). " "Score >= 2 (male) or >= 3 (female) = Oral anticoagulation RECOMMENDED. " "DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran) preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF " "(no INR monitoring needed). Warfarin used for valvular AF (mechanical valves, mitral stenosis)." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 12, "topic": "Wilson's Disease", "question": "A 20-year-old presents with liver cirrhosis, neuropsychiatric symptoms, and Kayser-Fleischer rings. Serum ceruloplasmin is low. What is the treatment of choice?", "options": ["A) Penicillamine", "B) Deferoxamine", "C) Succimer", "D) Activated charcoal"], "answer": "A) Penicillamine", "explanation": ( "Wilson's disease = AR disorder of copper metabolism (ATP7B gene, chromosome 13). " "Copper accumulates in liver, brain, eyes, kidneys. " "KF rings (golden-brown corneal rings) = pathognomonic. " "Lab: Low ceruloplasmin (<20 mg/dL), elevated 24h urine copper. " "Treatment: Penicillamine (copper chelator) = first-line. " "Trientine = if penicillamine intolerant. " "Zinc = maintenance / asymptomatic patients (blocks copper absorption). " "Liver transplant for fulminant hepatic failure." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 13, "topic": "Addison's Disease", "question": "A 35-year-old presents with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of skin and buccal mucosa, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. Most likely diagnosis?", "options": ["A) Cushing's syndrome", "B) Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)", "C) Secondary hypothyroidism", "D) SIADH"], "answer": "B) Addison's Disease", "explanation": ( "Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease): " "HYPERPIGMENTATION (high ACTH/MSH - ONLY in primary, NOT secondary insufficiency). " "Hyponatremia + Hyperkalemia = mineralocorticoid deficiency. " "Most common cause in developed world: Autoimmune adrenalitis. " "Diagnosis: Short Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test - failure of cortisol to rise >18-20 mcg/dL. " "Treatment: Hydrocortisone + Fludrocortisone. Adrenal crisis: IV Hydrocortisone 100 mg stat." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, { "num": 14, "topic": "Rheumatoid Arthritis", "question": "A 40-year-old female has morning stiffness >1 hour, symmetrical MCP/PIP arthritis, subcutaneous nodules, positive RF. Drug of choice for long-term disease modification?", "options": ["A) Aspirin", "B) Prednisolone", "C) Methotrexate (MTX)", "D) Indomethacin"], "answer": "C) Methotrexate (MTX)", "explanation": ( "Methotrexate is the ANCHOR DMARD (Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drug) for RA. " "Mechanism: Folic acid antagonist (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase). " "Given WEEKLY (oral/SC). Folic acid given on non-MTX days to reduce toxicity. " "Side effects: Hepatotoxicity, pulmonary fibrosis, bone marrow suppression, teratogenic. " "Anti-CCP antibody is MORE SPECIFIC for RA than RF. " "Biologic DMARDs (TNF inhibitors) added if MTX fails." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 15, "topic": "Meningococcal Meningitis", "question": "A 20-year-old college student has fever, severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, and a NON-BLANCHING petechial rash. Most likely causative organism?", "options": ["A) Streptococcus pneumoniae", "B) Neisseria meningitidis", "C) Listeria monocytogenes", "D) Haemophilus influenzae"], "answer": "B) Neisseria meningitidis", "explanation": ( "Non-blanching petechial/purpuric rash = HALLMARK of meningococcemia. " "N. meningitidis = gram-negative diplococcus. Common in college students (close contact). " "Can cause Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (bilateral adrenal hemorrhage, shock). " "Treatment: IV Benzylpenicillin / IV Ceftriaxone - start IMMEDIATELY even before LP if rash present. " "Chemoprophylaxis for contacts: Rifampicin or single-dose Ciprofloxacin. " "S. pneumoniae = most common overall cause of bacterial meningitis in adults." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, { "num": 16, "topic": "COPD Exacerbation", "question": "A 65-year-old chronic smoker with COPD has increased breathlessness, purulent sputum. ABG: pH 7.30, pCO2 65, pO2 52. First-line management?", "options": ["A) High-flow oxygen 15 L/min", "B) Controlled O2 (28%, 1-2 L/min) + bronchodilators + antibiotics", "C) IV methylprednisolone alone", "D) Immediate intubation"], "answer": "B) Controlled O2 + bronchodilators + antibiotics", "explanation": ( "COPD patients are chronic CO2 retainers with HYPOXIC DRIVE. " "High-flow O2 removes this drive causing respiratory depression (worsening hypercapnia). " "AECOPD management: Controlled O2 targeting SpO2 88-92%; " "Bronchodilators (Salbutamol + Ipratropium nebulized); " "Oral/IV prednisolone 5-7 days; " "Antibiotics (Amoxicillin/Doxycycline/Azithromycin) for purulent sputum; " "NIV (BiPAP) if pH <7.35 and pCO2 elevated after initial therapy. " "Intubation only if NIV fails." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 17, "topic": "H. pylori Triple Therapy", "question": "A 45-year-old has a duodenal ulcer on endoscopy. H. pylori is positive. What is the standard triple therapy?", "options": ["A) Omeprazole + Metronidazole + Tinidazole", "B) Omeprazole + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin for 14 days", "C) Ranitidine + Ciprofloxacin + Doxycycline", "D) Lansoprazole + Tetracycline alone"], "answer": "B) Omeprazole + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin (14 days)", "explanation": ( "Standard H. pylori eradication (OCA triple therapy): " "PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin for 14 days. " "If penicillin allergy: Replace amoxicillin with Metronidazole. " "Confirm eradication 4 weeks after: Urea breath test (preferred) or stool antigen test. " "H. pylori: Gram-negative, urease-positive, spiral rod. Type B (antral) gastritis. " "Eradication reduces ulcer recurrence from 80% to <10%." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, { "num": 18, "topic": "Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP)", "question": "A cirrhotic patient with ascites develops fever and abdominal pain. Ascitic fluid PMN = 300 cells/mm3. What is the treatment?", "options": ["A) IV Ampicillin + Cloxacillin", "B) IV Cefotaxime (3rd gen cephalosporin)", "C) Oral Ciprofloxacin", "D) Paracentesis alone"], "answer": "B) IV Cefotaxime", "explanation": ( "SBP diagnosis: Ascitic fluid PMN >= 250 cells/mm3 (even without positive culture = culture-negative SBP). " "Most common organisms: E. coli, Klebsiella, S. pneumoniae (gut flora translocation). " "Treatment: IV Cefotaxime 2g q8h for 5 days (or IV Ceftriaxone). " "Add IV Albumin (1.5 g/kg day 1, 1 g/kg day 3) to prevent hepatorenal syndrome. " "Long-term secondary prophylaxis: Norfloxacin 400 mg OD." ), "source": "Goldman-Cecil Medicine; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine" }, { "num": 19, "topic": "Ischemic Stroke - Thrombolysis", "question": "A 60-year-old hypertensive presents within 2 hours with sudden left hemiplegia. CT shows NO hemorrhage. Definitive treatment if eligible?", "options": ["A) Aspirin 300 mg immediately", "B) IV Alteplase (tPA) thrombolysis", "C) IV Heparin infusion", "D) Warfarin loading"], "answer": "B) IV Alteplase (tPA)", "explanation": ( "IV tPA (Alteplase) is indicated within 4.5 HOURS of symptom onset in ischemic stroke. " "Dose: 0.9 mg/kg IV (max 90 mg) - 10% as bolus, 90% over 60 minutes. " "Eligibility: No hemorrhage on CT, BP <185/110, no recent surgery/bleeding. " "Contraindications: Hemorrhagic stroke, uncontrolled BP, platelets <100,000, INR >1.7. " "Mechanical thrombectomy: For large vessel occlusion, up to 24 hours in selected patients. " "Aspirin: Given 24 hours AFTER tPA." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, { "num": 20, "topic": "Falciparum Malaria", "question": "A 25-year-old returns from Assam with fever every 48 hrs, jaundice, and black urine (hemoglobinuria). Blood film shows BANANA-SHAPED gametocytes. Diagnosis and treatment?", "options": ["A) P. vivax - Chloroquine", "B) P. falciparum - Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)", "C) P. malariae - Primaquine", "D) P. ovale - Quinine"], "answer": "B) P. falciparum - ACT (Artemether-Lumefantrine)", "explanation": ( "Banana/crescent-shaped gametocytes = PATHOGNOMONIC for P. falciparum. " "Blackwater fever (hemoglobinuria) = complication of falciparum malaria. " "Treatment: Artemether-Lumefantrine (Coartem) or Artesunate-based ACT for uncomplicated cases. " "Severe/cerebral malaria: IV Artesunate (preferred over IV quinine). " "P. vivax/ovale: Chloroquine + Primaquine (to eliminate liver hypnozoites, prevent relapse). " "Chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum is now widespread worldwide." ), "source": "Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine" }, ] # Summary table data summary_data = [ ["Q#", "Topic", "Key Answer"], ["1", "Altitude Sickness", "Acetazolamide (prophylaxis)"], ["2", "Anion Gap", "AG = Na-(Cl+HCO3); normal = 12"], ["3", "ALS", "UMN + LMN signs; NO sensory loss"], ["4", "DKA", "IV Fluids FIRST, then insulin"], ["5", "Thyroid Storm", "Propranolol (also blocks T4->T3)"], ["6", "Nephrotic Syndrome", "MCD - normal LM, foot process effacement EM"], ["7", "IE in IVDU", "Tricuspid valve; S. aureus"], ["8", "Hypertensive Emergency", "IV antihypertensives; reduce MAP 25% in 1 hr"], ["9", "Pulmonary Embolism", "CTPA gold standard; D-dimer rules out"], ["10", "HFrEF", "Carvedilol, ACEi, Spironolactone, SGLT2i"], ["11", "AF Anticoagulation", "CHA2DS2-VASc >= 2 -> DOAC"], ["12", "Wilson's Disease", "Penicillamine; KF rings"], ["13", "Addison's Disease", "Hyperpigmentation + hypoNa + hyperK"], ["14", "Rheumatoid Arthritis", "Methotrexate (anchor DMARD)"], ["15", "Meningococcal Meningitis", "N. meningitidis; petechial rash"], ["16", "COPD Exacerbation", "Controlled O2 (88-92%); NOT high-flow"], ["17", "H. pylori Therapy", "OCA triple therapy x 14 days"], ["18", "SBP in Cirrhosis", "PMN >= 250; IV Cefotaxime"], ["19", "Ischemic Stroke", "tPA within 4.5 hours"], ["20", "Falciparum Malaria", "Banana gametocytes; ACT"], ] # ---- Build Story ---- story = [] # Cover / Header story.append(Spacer(1, 0.5*cm)) story.append(Paragraph("FMGE June 2026", title_style)) story.append(Paragraph("Medicine Subject - 20 Memory-Based Questions with Explanations", subtitle_style)) story.append(Paragraph("(Based on Recalled Topics from June 28, 2026 Examination)", subtitle_style)) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.3*cm)) # Info box info_data = [ ["Exam", "FMGE June 2026 (held June 28, 2026)"], ["Conducted by", "NBEMS (National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences)"], ["Subject", "Medicine (High-Yield Questions)"], ["Format", "MCQ with Explanation"], ["Difficulty", "Moderate to Difficult (Paper 1 tougher)"], ["Note", "NBEMS does not release official papers; questions are memory-based"], ] info_table = Table(info_data, colWidths=[4.5*cm, 12*cm]) info_table.setStyle(TableStyle([ ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (0,-1), colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b')), ('TEXTCOLOR', (0,0), (0,-1), colors.white), ('FONTNAME', (0,0), (0,-1), 'Helvetica-Bold'), ('FONTSIZE', (0,0), (-1,-1), 9.5), ('BACKGROUND', (1,0), (1,-1), colors.HexColor('#eef3fb')), ('ROWBACKGROUNDS', (1,0), (1,-1), [colors.HexColor('#eef3fb'), colors.HexColor('#f9fbff')]), ('GRID', (0,0), (-1,-1), 0.5, colors.HexColor('#b0c4de')), ('VALIGN', (0,0), (-1,-1), 'MIDDLE'), ('PADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 5), ])) story.append(info_table) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.5*cm)) story.append(HRFlowable(width="100%", thickness=2, color=colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b'))) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.4*cm)) # Questions for q in questions: # Question number header bar q_header_data = [[ Paragraph(f"Q{q['num']}", q_num_style), Paragraph(f"<b>{q['topic']}</b>", ParagraphStyle('th', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=12, textColor=colors.white, fontName='Helvetica-Bold', alignment=TA_LEFT)) ]] q_header_table = Table(q_header_data, colWidths=[1.5*cm, 15*cm]) q_header_table.setStyle(TableStyle([ ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,-1), colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b')), ('VALIGN', (0,0), (-1,-1), 'MIDDLE'), ('PADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 7), ('ROUNDEDCORNERS', [4,4,4,4]), ])) story.append(q_header_table) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.2*cm)) # Question text story.append(Paragraph(q['question'], question_style)) # Options for opt in q['options']: story.append(Paragraph(opt, option_style)) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.2*cm)) # Answer answer_data = [[Paragraph(f"✔ ANSWER: {q['answer']}", ParagraphStyle('ans', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=11, textColor=colors.HexColor('#1a6b2e'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold'))]] ans_table = Table(answer_data, colWidths=[16.5*cm]) ans_table.setStyle(TableStyle([ ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,-1), colors.HexColor('#e8f5e9')), ('BOX', (0,0), (-1,-1), 1.5, colors.HexColor('#2e7d32')), ('PADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8), ])) story.append(ans_table) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.2*cm)) # Explanation story.append(Paragraph("<b>Explanation:</b>", section_head_style)) story.append(Paragraph(q['explanation'], explanation_style)) # Source story.append(Paragraph(f"Source: {q['source']}", source_style)) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.4*cm)) story.append(HRFlowable(width="100%", thickness=0.5, color=colors.HexColor('#cccccc'))) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.3*cm)) # Summary table on new page story.append(PageBreak()) story.append(Paragraph("Quick Revision Summary", ParagraphStyle('sumtitle', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=16, textColor=colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold', alignment=TA_CENTER, spaceAfter=10))) story.append(HRFlowable(width="100%", thickness=2, color=colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b'))) story.append(Spacer(1, 0.3*cm)) sum_table = Table(summary_data, colWidths=[1.3*cm, 5.5*cm, 9.7*cm]) sum_table.setStyle(TableStyle([ ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,0), colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b')), ('TEXTCOLOR', (0,0), (-1,0), colors.white), ('FONTNAME', (0,0), (-1,0), 'Helvetica-Bold'), ('FONTSIZE', (0,0), (-1,-1), 9.5), ('ROWBACKGROUNDS', (0,1), (-1,-1), [colors.HexColor('#eef3fb'), colors.white]), ('GRID', (0,0), (-1,-1), 0.5, colors.HexColor('#b0c4de')), ('VALIGN', (0,0), (-1,-1), 'MIDDLE'), ('PADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 5), ('FONTNAME', (0,1), (0,-1), 'Helvetica-Bold'), ('TEXTCOLOR', (0,1), (0,-1), colors.HexColor('#1a3c6b')), ('ALIGN', (0,0), (0,-1), 'CENTER'), ])) story.append(sum_table) story.append(Spacer(1, 1*cm)) story.append(Paragraph("All the best for your FMGE preparation!", ParagraphStyle('footer', parent=styles['Normal'], fontSize=11, textColor=colors.HexColor('#2e6da4'), fontName='Helvetica-Bold', alignment=TA_CENTER))) # Build doc.build(story) print(f"PDF created: {output_path}") PYEOF echo "Script written"

Running Command

cd /tmp/workspace/fmge-2026 && python generate_pdf.py

Running Command

ls -lh /tmp/workspace/fmge-2026/FMGE_June2026_Medicine_20Questions.pdf

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FMGE June2026 Medicine 20Questions

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What's inside the PDF:
  • All 20 FMGE June 2026 style Medicine questions
  • Each question with 4 options (A/B/C/D)
  • Clearly highlighted correct answer (green box)
  • Detailed explanation for each question
  • Textbook source references
  • A Quick Revision Summary table at the end (all 20 topics + key answers on one page)
Topics covered: Altitude Sickness, Anion Gap, ALS, DKA, Thyroid Storm, Nephrotic Syndrome, Infective Endocarditis, Hypertensive Emergency, PE, HFrEF, AF Anticoagulation, Wilson's Disease, Addison's Disease, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Meningococcal Meningitis, COPD Exacerbation, H. pylori Therapy, SBP, Ischemic Stroke, and Falciparum Malaria.
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