You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermittent painful retrosternal dullness for 4 weeks. The pain is recurrent and occurs when she exerts herself or when she is outside during cold weather. She also experiences shortness of breath and palpitations during these episodes. The symptoms resolve spontaneously when she stops or sits down for a while. Over the past few days, the episodes have increased in frequency. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and osteoarthritis. Her left leg was amputated below the knee after a motorcycle accident 25 years ago. She is currently waiting for a new prosthesis and walks with crutches. Current medications include captopril, glyburide, and ibuprofen. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her pulse is 88/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm without any signs of ischemia. Serum cardiac markers are within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis? Options: A) Myocardial perfusion scan under pharmacological stress B) Upper endoscopy C) Coronary angiography D) Echocardiography at rest Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.