I have fully read all 50 slides. Here is your complete study session:
📚 Antidepressants - Active Recall Study Session
1. HIGH-YIELD SUMMARY
Neurobiology
Depression is caused by a functional deficiency of NE and 5-HT at central synapses (Biogenic Amine Hypothesis). The modern Neurotrophic Hypothesis extends this: chronic stress reduces BDNF, causing hippocampal atrophy and impaired neuroplasticity. Antidepressants restore monoamine signaling → upregulate BDNF/CREB → synaptogenesis. This is why mood improvement lags 2+ weeks despite immediate synaptic changes.
Drug Classes - Rapid-Fire Reference
| Class | Mechanism | Key Agents | Key Fact |
|---|
| SSRIs | Block SERT (serotonin reuptake transporter) | Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Citalopram, Escitalopram, Fluvoxamine | First-line; safe in overdose |
| SNRIs | Block SERT + NET | Venlafaxine, Duloxetine, Levomilnacipran | Add NE = pain indications |
| Bupropion | DA + NE reuptake inhibitor | - | Smoking cessation; seizure risk |
| Mirtazapine | α₂ antagonist + H₁ blocker | - | Sedating, weight gain, no sexual dysfunction |
| Trazodone / Nefazodone | 5-HT2A blocker + weak SERT | - | Trazodone = sleep aid; Nefazodone = fatal hepatotoxicity (BBW) |
| TCAs | Block NE + 5-HT reuptake + M/α₁/H₁/Na⁺ | Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Doxepin | Narrow therapeutic index; fatal OD |
| MAOIs | Irreversibly inhibit MAO | Phenelzine, Tranylcypromine | Tyramine crisis; serotonin syndrome; 2nd-line |
First-Line Management
- MDD, Anxiety disorders, OCD, PTSD, PMDD, Panic disorder → SSRIs first
- Neuropathic pain, Fibromyalgia → SNRIs (duloxetine, milnacipran)
- Smoking cessation → Bupropion
- Insomnia adjunct → Mirtazapine or Trazodone (off-label)
- MAOIs → reserved as second-line (atypical depression, refractory cases)
2. THE "WHY" - Understanding the Mechanisms
Why do ALL antidepressants take 2+ weeks to work?
Blocking the reuptake transporter raises synaptic 5-HT within hours, but mood improvement requires downstream receptor desensitization, BDNF upregulation, and actual synaptogenesis/neurogenesis in the hippocampus. You're not just filling a neurotransmitter deficit - you're rebuilding circuitry. This also explains why ~30-40% respond to a single trial; the others need dose adjustments or a different agent.
Why do TCAs cause so many side effects?
They are pharmacologically "dirty" - they block not only SERT/NET but also muscarinic (M) receptors (→ dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, constipation, tachycardia), α₁ receptors (→ orthostatic hypotension), H₁ receptors (→ sedation), and sodium channels (→ the lethal one - quinidine-like QT prolongation and fatal arrhythmias in OD).
Why is the tyramine reaction specific to MAOIs?
Normally, tyramine (found in aged cheeses, cured meats, red wine) is metabolized by hepatic MAO-A before it reaches systemic circulation. When hepatic MAO is irreversibly blocked, tyramine floods into the bloodstream, triggers massive NE release from sympathetic terminals → hypertensive crisis (severe HTN, occipital headache, tachycardia, arrhythmias, stroke risk). Treatment = phentolamine or prazosin (α-blockers).
Why does fluoxetine need a 6-week washout before starting an MAOI?
Fluoxetine's active metabolite, S-norfluoxetine, has a half-life of ~10 days. Combining a serotonergic drug with an MAOI (which blocks 5-HT breakdown) causes massive serotonin accumulation → life-threatening serotonin syndrome. It takes ~5 half-lives of norfluoxetine (~50 days) to clear it - hence ≥6 weeks.
Why does bupropion cause seizures but not sexual dysfunction?
Bupropion's dopamine/NE mechanism is entirely different from serotonergic drugs - sexual dysfunction is primarily a 5-HT₂ effect, so bupropion largely spares it. The DA/NE excess, however, can lower seizure threshold, especially at high doses, which is why it's absolutely contraindicated in bulimia (electrolyte disturbances already lower the threshold) and seizure disorders.
3. USMLE-STYLE CLINICAL VIGNETTES
Vignette 1
A 34-year-old woman with a 6-month history of major depressive disorder is started on sertraline. Three weeks later she begins dating again and reports her mood has improved "maybe 40%." However, she is now unable to achieve orgasm and is considering stopping the medication. On review, she has no other medical conditions and takes no other drugs.
Question: What is the best next step in management, and if she ultimately refuses to tolerate the sexual side effects, which antidepressant class offers equivalent antidepressant efficacy with the lowest rate of sexual dysfunction?
Vignette 2
A 52-year-old man with treatment-resistant depression, chronic low back pain, and type 2 diabetes with painful diabetic neuropathy is referred for pharmacologic management. He has tried two adequate SSRI trials without success. He has no history of seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, or liver disease. BMI is 31.
Question: Which single antidepressant agent would best address both his depression and his neuropathic pain, and what is the mechanism that makes this possible? What major drug interaction concern exists with this agent?
Vignette 3
A 27-year-old man is brought to the ED agitated and diaphoretic. His partner reports he started phenelzine 3 weeks ago for atypical depression and "took some extra sertraline he found at home" because he felt it wasn't working fast enough. On exam: temperature 40.1°C, HR 128, BP 162/94, generalized muscle rigidity, bilateral clonus, and mydriasis.
Question: What is the diagnosis? What is the underlying mechanism? What is the acute management priority, and what would the management be if his BP were 195/118 instead?
4. MICRO-QUIZ - Active Recall (Do NOT scroll down for answers yet!)
Answer these in your own words. I will grade and explain after you respond.
Q1. A patient on phenelzine eats a large plate of aged cheddar and red wine at a dinner party. Two hours later he develops a thunderclap occipital headache, neck stiffness, nausea, and BP of 210/130. Explain the precise pharmacological mechanism behind this reaction and name the two drug classes used to treat it acutely.
Q2. You want to switch a patient from fluoxetine to a MAOI. How long must you wait, and why is the washout longer than for other SSRIs? Name the specific pharmacokinetic property responsible.
Q3. A patient with MDD, insomnia, poor appetite, and weight loss (BMI 17.5) asks for an antidepressant that will help them sleep and gain weight without causing sexual dysfunction. Name the single best agent, its mechanism of action (be specific), and explain why each of the three desired properties (sleep, weight gain, no sexual dysfunction) follows directly from that mechanism.
When you're ready, type your answers and I'll give you detailed feedback and fill in any gaps!