You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 59-year-old man is evaluated for progressive joint pain. There is swelling and tenderness over the first, second, and third metacarpophalangeal joints of both hands. His hand radiograph is shown. He has had diabetes mellitus for 2 years which is not well controlled with medications. Lab studies show a transferrin saturation of 88% and serum ferritin of 1,200 ng/mL. Which of the following best represents the etiology of this patient condition? Options: A) Deposition of urate crystals B) Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate (CPP) crystals C) Inflammatory rheumatological syndrome D) Pathogenic inoculation of microbes Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.