You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A mother brings her 18-year-old daughter to your office because she has not menstruated yet. They recently immigrated from another country, and do not have any previous medical records. The adolescent girl looks relatively short, but otherwise looks healthy. She has no complaints except for mild intermittent lower abdominal pain for the past year. On physical examination, vitals are within normal limits. There is the presence of axillary hair, breast development, and pubic hair at Tanner stage 5. You explain to the mother and the patient that you need to perform a complete vaginal examination, however, both of them declined the procedure and would prefer that lab test be performed. Her labs are significant for the following: FSH 7 mIU/mL Normal values: Follicular phase 3.1 – 7.9 mIU/mL Ovulation peak 2.3 – 18.5 mIU/mL Luteal phase 1.4 – 5.5 mIU/mL Postmenopausal 30.6 – 106.3 mIU/mL Estradiol 28 pg/mL Normal values: Mid-follicular phase 27 – 123 pg/mL Periovulatory 96 – 436 pg/mL Mid-luteal phase 49 – 294 pg/mL Postmenopausal 0 – 40 pg/mL Testosterone 52 ng/dL, 40 – 60 ng/dL What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient? Options: A) Muellerian agenesis B) Hyperprolactinemia C) Turner syndrome D) Androgen insensitivity Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.