You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 24 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding and mild pelvic pain for 2 hours. Her current pregnancy was achieved by means of in vitro fertilization due to azoospermia in her partner. Prenatal course has been uncomplicated with regular prenatal visits. After a period of having avoided sexual intercourse during her early pregnancy, she resumed sexual activity with her partner at week 22 of gestation. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate; her other child was delivered vaginally. She has had abnormal Pap smears due to HPV in the past. Her pulse is 82/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 134/76 mm Hg. The abdomen is nontender, the uterus is consistent with 24 weeks' gestation, and the fetus is in a cephalic presentation. There are traces of blood on the vulva and the introitus. Speculum examination shows a tender, bruised cervix, with a closed cervical os. Fetal heart rate is 166/min and CTG shows a reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. Ultrasound shows a uniformly echogenic placenta located at the fundal end of the posterior uterine wall. What is the most likely cause of this patient's antepartum bleeding? Options: A) Pedunculated cervical growth B) Inflammation of the cervix C) Cervical trauma D) Premature separation of the placenta Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.