Here is a 20-question MCQ test based on the CVS Examination content from Harrison's 22E. Answer all questions, then scroll down for the answer key.
CVS Examination — Harrison's 22E
Self-Assessment Test (20 MCQs)
1. The single most important bedside measurement to estimate volume status is:
- A) Blood pressure
- B) Jugular venous pressure
- C) Capillary refill time
- D) Peripheral pulse volume
2. JVP >4.5 cm above the sternal angle is measured at which patient position?
- A) 45° elevation
- B) 60° elevation
- C) 30° elevation
- D) Supine (0°)
3. A patient in sinus rhythm has a prominent a wave in the JVP. The most likely cause is:
- A) Tricuspid regurgitation
- B) Atrial fibrillation
- C) Reduced right ventricular compliance
- D) Constrictive pericarditis
4. Cannon a waves in the jugular venous waveform during a wide complex tachycardia indicate:
- A) SVT with aberrant conduction
- B) Ventricular tachycardia (AV dissociation)
- C) Atrial flutter with 2:1 block
- D) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
5. Which of the following conditions causes fixed splitting of S2?
- A) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
- B) Left bundle branch block
- C) Secundum atrial septal defect
- D) Severe aortic stenosis
6. Paradoxical (reversed) splitting of S2 is characterised by:
- A) Components audible at inspiration, narrow at expiration
- B) Components audible at expiration, narrowing with inspiration
- C) Fixed wide split unaffected by respiration
- D) Single S2 with loud P2
7. A 35-year-old woman has a mid-systolic click that moves closer to S1 on standing. The diagnosis is:
- A) Aortic stenosis
- B) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
- C) Mitral valve prolapse
- D) Pulmonary stenosis
8. The A2–OS interval in mitral stenosis is inversely proportional to:
- A) Mitral valve area
- B) Right atrial pressure
- C) The LA–LV diastolic pressure gradient
- D) Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
9. A pericardial knock is best associated with:
- A) Cardiac tamponade
- B) Constrictive pericarditis
- C) Atrial myxoma
- D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
10. Kussmaul's sign (paradoxical rise of JVP with inspiration) is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Constrictive pericarditis
- B) Right ventricular infarction
- C) Cardiac tamponade
- D) Severe right ventricular failure
11. An S4 gallop is absent in which rhythm?
- A) Sinus tachycardia
- B) Atrial fibrillation
- C) First-degree AV block
- D) Right bundle branch block
12. Which maneuver increases the murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?
- A) Squatting
- B) Passive leg raise
- C) Valsalva (strain phase)
- D) Isometric handgrip
13. A pathologic S3 in an adult >40 years is most consistent with:
- A) Athlete's heart
- B) Pregnancy
- C) Dilated cardiomyopathy with reduced EF
- D) Left ventricular hypertrophy
14. The pulmonic ejection sound is unique among right-sided events in that it:
- A) Increases in intensity with inspiration
- B) Decreases in intensity with inspiration
- C) Is unaffected by the respiratory cycle
- D) Disappears with squatting
15. In tricuspid regurgitation, which JVP waveform change is most characteristic?
- A) Prominent a wave and slow y descent
- B) Absent a wave and rapid y descent
- C) Prominent v wave and rapid y descent
- D) Cannon a wave with fixed JVP
16. A loud P2 that can be palpated at the second left intercostal space indicates:
- A) Aortic stenosis
- B) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
- C) Pulmonary stenosis
- D) Atrial septal defect
17. A systolic murmur that decreases with squatting is most likely due to:
- A) Mitral regurgitation
- B) Tricuspid regurgitation
- C) Aortic stenosis
- D) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
18. Which pulse abnormality is classically associated with cardiac tamponade?
- A) Pulsus bisferiens
- B) Pulsus alternans
- C) Pulsus paradoxus
- D) Pulsus parvus et tardus
19. A grade 4/6 murmur differs from a grade 3/6 murmur by the presence of:
- A) Radiation to the neck
- B) A palpable thrill
- C) Audibility without a stethoscope
- D) A diastolic component
20. The opening snap of mitral stenosis becomes absent when:
- A) The LA-LV gradient increases
- B) The anterior mitral leaflet becomes heavily calcified and immobile
- C) The heart rate increases
- D) Pulmonary hypertension develops
✅ Answer Key
| Q | Answer | Key Teaching Point |
|---|
| 1 | B | JVP = single most important bedside volume status marker |
| 2 | C | >4.5 cm above sternal angle at 30° elevation = abnormal |
| 3 | C | Prominent a wave → ↓ RV compliance (e.g., PS, pulmonary HTN) |
| 4 | B | Cannon a waves = AV dissociation → VT |
| 5 | C | Fixed S2 split = secundum ASD (hallmark) |
| 6 | B | Reversed split: audible at expiration, narrows with inspiration |
| 7 | C | MVP click moves toward S1 on standing (↓ preload) |
| 8 | C | Shorter A2-OS = higher LA-LV gradient = more severe MS |
| 9 | B | Pericardial knock = constrictive pericarditis |
| 10 | C | Tamponade causes Kussmaul's sign rarely; classic for constriction/RV infarct |
| 11 | B | S4 requires atrial contraction — absent in AF |
| 12 | C | Valsalva ↓ preload → ↑ HOCM obstruction → louder murmur |
| 13 | C | Pathologic S3 in adults = dilated LV, ↓ EF, severe MR/AR |
| 14 | B | Pulmonic ejection sound = only right-sided event that ↓ with inspiration |
| 15 | C | TR → prominent v wave + rapid y descent |
| 16 | B | Palpable P2 at 2nd LICS = pulmonary arterial hypertension |
| 17 | D | HOCM ↓ with squatting (↑ preload → ↓ obstruction) |
| 18 | C | Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mmHg SBP drop with inspiration) = tamponade |
| 19 | B | Grade 4 = thrill present; Grade 6 = audible without stethoscope |
| 20 | B | Calcified, immobile leaflets → OS (and loud S1) disappear |
Scoring:
- 18–20 correct → Excellent
- 14–17 → Good, review missed topics
- <14 → Revisit the CVS examination notes before proceeding