You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 39-year-old woman with poorly controlled systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents to her rheumatologist for a follow-up visit. She has had intermittent myalgias, arthralgias, fatigue, and skin rashes over the past 10 years that have acutely worsened over the past year. She works as a school teacher but reports that she has had to miss several days of work due to her symptoms. She has been on hydroxychloroquine for several years but does not feel that it is adequately controlling her symptoms. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she is well-appearing and in no acute distress. She has erythematous, raised plaques with keratotic scaling and follicular plugging on her hands. The physician decides to trial the patient on low-dose prednisone to better control her symptoms. At 2 months of follow-up, she reports that her flares have subsided and she has been able to return to work full-time. If this patient continues this medication regimen, she will be at an elevated risk for developing which of the following? Options: A) Femoral neck fracture B) Femoral shaft fracture C) Osgood-Schlatter disease D) Proximal phalanx fracture Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.