Now let me answer all the questions from this pharmacology exam paper directly based on my medical knowledge. The image is clear enough to read all questions.
KADI SARVA VISHWAVIDYALAYA - Advanced Pharmacology-II Exam Answers
SECTION-I (1 Mark Each)
1. One of the following drug is used in helminthiasis:
Answer: c) Mebendazole
Mebendazole is an antihelminthic drug used to treat intestinal worm infections (helminthiasis). Aripiprazole is an antipsychotic, Metronidazole is an antiprotozoal/antibacterial, and Itraconazole is an antifungal.
2. Deficiency of growth hormone leads to:
Answer: b) Dwarfism
Growth hormone (GH) deficiency in childhood results in dwarfism (short stature/growth retardation). Addison's disease is adrenal insufficiency, Cretinism is due to thyroid hormone deficiency in infancy, and Diabetes mellitus is due to insulin deficiency/resistance.
3. One of the following drug works as an anti-metabolite:
Answer: b) Ketoconazole - Wait, re-reading the options:
- a) Fluconazole
- b) Ketoconazole
- c) Amphotericin B
- d) Griseofulvin
Answer: d) Griseofulvin
Griseofulvin acts as an anti-metabolite - it is a structural analogue of guanine and interferes with nucleic acid synthesis in fungi. It disrupts the mitotic spindle by binding to fungal microtubules.
4. All of the following belong to Penicillinase-resistant penicillins EXCEPT:
- a) Methicillin
- b) Cloxacillin
- c) Dicloxacillin
- d) Carbenicillin
Answer: d) Carbenicillin
Carbenicillin is an extended-spectrum (antipseudomonal) penicillin, NOT a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. Methicillin, Cloxacillin, and Dicloxacillin are all penicillinase-resistant penicillins.
5. State True or False: T3 is the drug of choice for hormone replacement therapy in hypothyroidism.
Answer: FALSE
T4 (Levothyroxine/thyroxine) is the drug of choice for hormone replacement therapy in hypothyroidism - not T3 (liothyronine). T4 has a longer half-life (~7 days), more stable plasma levels, and is peripherally converted to active T3 as needed.
6. One of the following is a somatostatin analogue used in treatment of variceal bleeding/esophageal varices:
- a) Fenisteride
- b) Tolbutamide
- c) Octreotide
- d) Amiloride
Answer: c) Octreotide
Octreotide is a synthetic somatostatin analogue. It reduces portal blood pressure by causing splanchnic vasoconstriction and is used in acute variceal bleeding. Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, Tolbutamide is a sulfonylurea, and Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
7. State True or False: Insulin can be used in treatment of Type-2 diabetes mellitus also.
Answer: TRUE
Insulin can indeed be used in Type-2 diabetes mellitus - especially when oral hypoglycemics fail to achieve glycemic control, during acute illness, surgery, pregnancy (gestational DM), or when HbA1c is very high at diagnosis.
8. State True or False: Insulin Ispro (Insulin Lispro) belongs to rapid acting; recombinant PTH used in treatment of severe osteoporosis.
Answer: TRUE (Both statements are true)
- Insulin Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analogue (onset 15 min, peak 30-90 min)
- Recombinant PTH (Teriparatide) is used in severe osteoporosis as an anabolic agent
9. One of the following is a fourth generation cephalosporin:
- a) Rapid acting
- b) None of above
- c) Cefoperazone
- d) Cefepime (Cefpodoxime/Cefixime listed)
Answer: d) Cefepime
Cefepime is a 4th generation cephalosporin with activity against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms including Pseudomonas. Cefixime and Cefpodoxime are 3rd generation cephalosporins; Cefoperazone is also 3rd generation.
SECTION-II
10. Write in brief about signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus. (10 marks)
Signs and Symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus:
Type-1 DM (Insulin-Dependent):
- Abrupt onset, usually in young patients
- Classic "3 Polys": Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
- Weight loss despite increased appetite
- Fatigue and weakness
- Ketoacidosis (DKA) - nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fruity breath, Kussmaul breathing
- Blurred vision
Type-2 DM (Non-Insulin Dependent):
- Gradual/insidious onset
- May be asymptomatic for years
- Polyuria, Polydipsia (less marked than Type-1)
- Fatigue
- Recurrent infections (skin, urinary tract, candidiasis)
- Poor wound healing
- Tingling/numbness in hands and feet (peripheral neuropathy)
- Acanthosis nigricans (skin darkening in body folds)
Diagnostic Criteria:
- Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL
- Random blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL with symptoms
- HbA1c ≥ 6.5%
- 2-hr post-75g OGTT ≥ 200 mg/dL
Chronic Complications:
- Macrovascular: CAD, stroke, peripheral artery disease
- Microvascular: Retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy
- Diabetic foot ulcers
OR (Alternative to Q10): Draw the diagram showing phase of insulin. Enlist signs and classify oral hypoglycemic drugs with brief mechanism of action. (20 marks)
Phases of Insulin Secretion:
- Phase 1 (First-phase/acute): Rapid spike within 1-3 minutes of glucose stimulus - release of pre-formed insulin from secretory granules
- Phase 2 (Second-phase/sustained): Prolonged plateau lasting as long as glucose stimulus persists - newly synthesized insulin
Oral Hypoglycemic Drug Classification:
| Class | Drug Examples | Mechanism |
|---|
| Sulfonylureas | Glibenclamide, Glipizide, Glimepiride | Block ATP-sensitive K⁺ channels on beta cells → depolarization → insulin release |
| Biguanides | Metformin | Activates AMPK → decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis, increases peripheral glucose uptake |
| Thiazolidinediones (Glitazones) | Pioglitazone, Rosiglitazone | Activate PPAR-γ receptors → increase insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose |
| Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors | Acarbose, Voglibose | Inhibit intestinal alpha-glucosidase → delay carbohydrate digestion/absorption |
| DPP-4 Inhibitors (Gliptins) | Sitagliptin, Vildagliptin | Inhibit DPP-4 enzyme → increase GLP-1 and GIP levels → glucose-dependent insulin secretion |
| SGLT-2 Inhibitors | Dapagliflozin, Empagliflozin | Block SGLT-2 in renal tubules → prevent glucose reabsorption → glycosuria |
| Meglitinides | Repaglinide, Nateglinide | Similar to sulfonylureas but shorter-acting; stimulate insulin secretion |
| GLP-1 Agonists | Exenatide, Liraglutide | Mimic GLP-1 → stimulate insulin, suppress glucagon, delay gastric emptying |
Short Answer Questions (Section-II continued)
1. Write in brief about types of cancer cell and brief out - free radicals are generated in cell:
Cancer Cell Types:
- Carcinoma (epithelial origin) - most common; e.g., adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
- Sarcoma (mesenchymal/connective tissue origin) - bone, muscle, cartilage
- Lymphoma/Leukemia (hematopoietic origin)
- Glioma (neural tissue)
Free Radical Generation in Cell:
Free radicals (reactive oxygen species - ROS) are generated by:
- Mitochondrial electron transport chain (superoxide O₂⁻)
- NADPH oxidase activity
- Xanthine oxidase
- Cytochrome P450 reactions
- Radiation and UV exposure
- Inflammatory reactions (neutrophil respiratory burst)
Types: Superoxide (O₂⁻), Hydroxyl radical (•OH), Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂), Peroxyl radical (ROO•)
Damage caused: DNA mutation, lipid peroxidation, protein oxidation - contributing to carcinogenesis, aging, and cell death.
2. Enlist the characteristics of cancer cell. Classify anti-cancer drugs with suitable examples and normal cell cycle:
Characteristics of Cancer Cells:
- Uncontrolled, unlimited proliferation
- Loss of contact inhibition
- Anaplasia (dedifferentiation)
- Invasiveness and metastasis
- Angiogenesis (tumor vasculature formation)
- Resistance to apoptosis
- Telomerase activation (immortality)
- Aerobic glycolysis (Warburg effect)
Cell Cycle Phases: G0 → G1 → S (DNA synthesis) → G2 → M (mitosis)
Anti-cancer Drug Classification:
| Class | Phase | Examples |
|---|
| Alkylating agents | Non-specific | Cyclophosphamide, Cisplatin, Busulfan |
| Antimetabolites | S-phase | Methotrexate, 5-Fluorouracil, Cytarabine |
| Vinca alkaloids | M-phase | Vincristine, Vinblastine |
| Taxanes | M-phase | Paclitaxel, Docetaxel |
| Topoisomerase inhibitors | S/G2 | Doxorubicin, Etoposide, Irinotecan |
| Hormonal agents | Variable | Tamoxifen, Leuprolide, Flutamide |
| Targeted therapy | Variable | Imatinib, Trastuzumab, Rituximab |
3. Types of hypersensitivity reactions with suitable examples occurring due to free radicals / immunosuppressants. List out a few immunosuppressants:
Gell & Coombs Classification of Hypersensitivity:
| Type | Mechanism | Mediator | Examples |
|---|
| Type I (Immediate/Anaphylactic) | IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation | Histamine, leukotrienes | Anaphylaxis, asthma, urticaria, drug allergy |
| Type II (Cytotoxic) | IgG/IgM against cell-surface antigens | Complement, ADCC | Hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture's, transfusion reactions |
| Type III (Immune complex) | Antigen-antibody complex deposition | Complement | Serum sickness, SLE, post-streptococcal GN |
| Type IV (Delayed/Cell-mediated) | T-lymphocyte mediated | Cytokines (IL-2, IFN-γ) | Tuberculin reaction, contact dermatitis, graft rejection |
Common Immunosuppressants:
- Calcineurin inhibitors: Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus - inhibit IL-2 production
- Antimetabolites: Azathioprine, Mycophenolate mofetil - inhibit lymphocyte proliferation
- mTOR inhibitors: Sirolimus (Rapamycin), Everolimus
- Corticosteroids: Prednisolone, Dexamethasone - broad anti-inflammatory
- Biologicals: Basiliximab (anti-IL-2R), Infliximab (anti-TNF-α), Rituximab (anti-CD20)
- Alkylating agents: Cyclophosphamide - used in autoimmune diseases
Summary of MCQ Answers:
- c) Mebendazole
- b) Dwarfism
- d) Griseofulvin
- d) Carbenicillin
- False (T4/Levothyroxine is DOC, not T3)
- c) Octreotide
- True
- True (both parts)
- d) Cefepime