Here are comprehensive, exam-style practice questions based on the Hypertension notes β covering all major topics with detailed explanations.
π©Ί HYPERTENSION β PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Internal Medicine | Exam-Oriented | Priyanka Sachdev Style
SECTION A: CLASSIFICATION & DIAGNOSIS
Q1. A 45-year-old man has BP readings of 134/85 mmHg and 136/84 mmHg on two separate visits. According to ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines, how should his BP be classified?
- A. Normal
- B. Elevated
- C. Stage 1 Hypertension
- D. Stage 2 Hypertension
β
Answer: C β Stage 1 Hypertension
ACC/AHA 2017: Stage 1 = SBP 130β139 OR DBP 80β89 mmHg. His SBP 134β136 falls in Stage 1 range. The DBP 84β85 also falls in Stage 1. The higher category is used β Stage 1 HTN. Note: JNC 7 would have called this "pre-hypertension" β know which guideline is being asked!
Q2. A 52-year-old woman has BP 162/92 mmHg. Which category does she belong to per ACC/AHA 2017?
- A. Stage 1 HTN based on DBP
- B. Stage 2 HTN based on SBP
- C. Stage 1 HTN because both values are used
- D. Hypertensive urgency
β
Answer: B β Stage 2 HTN based on SBP
SBP 162 = Stage 2 (β₯ 140). DBP 92 = Stage 1 (80β89). Rule: when SBP and DBP fall in different categories, use the higher category. So Stage 2 applies. This is a classic exam trap.
Q3. A 38-year-old male nurse measures his BP at work: consistently 158/96 mmHg. At home, his readings average 122/78 mmHg. 24-hr ABPM shows average 124/76 mmHg. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Masked hypertension
- B. White coat hypertension
- C. Stage 1 hypertension
- D. Stage 2 hypertension
β
Answer: B β White coat hypertension
High office BP + normal home BP + normal ABPM = White coat HTN. Management: lifestyle modifications, no immediate drug therapy, repeat ABPM in 6β12 months. Contrast with masked HTN = normal office + high ABPM β higher CV risk, treat!
Q4. A 60-year-old diabetic woman is found to have BP 128/82 mmHg. She is on no antihypertensive drugs. According to ACC/AHA 2017, what is her BP classification?
- A. Normal
- B. Elevated
- C. Stage 1 Hypertension
- D. Stage 2 Hypertension
β
Answer: C β Stage 1 Hypertension
SBP 128 = Elevated (120β129 AND < 80). BUT DBP 82 = Stage 1 (80β89). Use the higher category β Stage 1 HTN. The AND vs OR rule catches many students here.
SECTION B: PATHOPHYSIOLOGY & SECONDARY HTN
Q5. A 32-year-old woman presents with resistant hypertension and is found to have serum KβΊ of 2.9 mEq/L despite not being on diuretics. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Renovascular hypertension
- B. Pheochromocytoma
- C. Primary aldosteronism
- D. Cushing's syndrome
β
Answer: C β Primary aldosteronism
The triad of resistant HTN + hypokalemia + no diuretic use strongly points to primary aldosteronism (Conn's syndrome). It is the most common cause of secondary hypertension (5β15% of all HTN). Screening test = Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio (ARR). ARR > 30 is highly suggestive.
Q6. A 28-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal headaches, palpitations, profuse sweating, and episodes of severe hypertension. Between episodes, BP is normal. What is the best initial diagnostic test?
- A. 24-hr urinary cortisol
- B. Aldosterone-renin ratio
- C. 24-hr urinary metanephrines
- D. Renal artery Doppler
β
Answer: C β 24-hr urinary metanephrines
Classic "5 P's" of pheochromocytoma: Pressure (episodic HTN), Palpitations, Perspiration, Pain (headache), Pallor. Best initial test = 24-hr urine metanephrines and catecholamines (sensitivity ~98%). Plasma free metanephrines also acceptable. Once biochemically confirmed β imaging (CT abdomen).
Q7. A 25-year-old man is found to have hypertension. Examination reveals a radio-femoral delay, BP in the upper limbs > lower limbs, and CXR shows rib notching. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Renovascular hypertension
- B. Coarctation of the aorta
- C. Primary aldosteronism
- D. Takayasu's arteritis
β
Answer: B β Coarctation of the aorta
Classic triad: radio-femoral pulse delay + upper limb BP > lower limb BP + rib notching (due to collateral intercostal arteries eroding rib undersurfaces). Occurs in young patients. Confirmatory test = CT aortogram / MRI aorta. Associated with bicuspid aortic valve and Turner syndrome.
Q8. After age 50, which measurement is the strongest predictor of long-term cardiovascular mortality?
- A. Diastolic blood pressure
- B. Pulse pressure
- C. Systolic blood pressure
- D. Mean arterial pressure
β
Answer: C β Systolic blood pressure
Classic exam trap! Many think DBP is more important, but after age 50, SBP is the stronger predictor of CVD mortality. DBP actually falls after 50 (due to vascular stiffness), widening pulse pressure. The Chicago Heart Association study confirmed long-term risk should be assessed mainly on SBP.
Q9. A hypertensive patient's BP shows non-dipping pattern (< 10% fall in nocturnal BP) on ABPM. Which condition should be strongly suspected?
- A. White coat hypertension
- B. Obstructive sleep apnea
- C. Primary aldosteronism
- D. Anxiety disorder
β
Answer: B β Obstructive sleep apnea
OSA is a major cause of resistant HTN and is strongly associated with a non-dipping pattern on ABPM (nocturnal BP fails to fall β₯ 10%). Other non-dipping causes: CKD, diabetes, autonomic dysfunction. OSA screening = Epworth sleepiness scale + polysomnography.
SECTION C: TREATMENT β LIFESTYLE & DRUGS
Q10. A 55-year-old man with Stage 1 HTN (138/85 mmHg), no DM, no CKD, no CVD. His 10-year ASCVD risk is 7%. What is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Start ACE inhibitor immediately
- B. Lifestyle modifications only
- C. Start thiazide diuretic + lifestyle modifications
- D. Refer to cardiologist
β
Answer: B β Lifestyle modifications only
ACC/AHA 2017: For Stage 1 HTN, drugs are started only if 10-yr ASCVD β₯ 10%. His risk is only 7% β lifestyle modifications alone (DASH diet, sodium restriction, weight loss, exercise, alcohol reduction). Reassess in 3β6 months.
Q11. Which of the following lifestyle modifications provides the greatest single reduction in blood pressure?
- A. Sodium restriction (< 2.4 g/day)
- B. DASH diet
- C. Aerobic exercise (30 min, most days)
- D. Weight loss
β
Answer: B β DASH diet
DASH diet reduces BP by 8β14 mmHg β the largest single lifestyle intervention effect. Aerobic exercise reduces by 4β9 mmHg, sodium restriction by 2β8 mmHg, and weight loss by ~1 mmHg/kg.
Q12. A 64-year-old Black man with Stage 2 HTN and no comorbidities. According to guidelines, which antihypertensive is LEAST preferred as monotherapy for him?
- A. Amlodipine
- B. Chlorthalidone
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
β
Answer: C β Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
In Black patients, ACEi and ARBs are less effective as monotherapy due to lower renin activity. Preferred agents = CCBs (amlodipine) and Thiazide diuretics (chlorthalidone). Chlorthalidone is preferred over HCTZ (longer-acting, better outcomes in ALLHAT trial). Note: ACEi/ARBs ARE still used in Black patients with compelling indications (DM, CKD, HF).
Q13. A 58-year-old woman with HTN develops a persistent dry cough 3 weeks after starting lisinopril. Her BP is well controlled. What is the most appropriate management?
- A. Add a cough suppressant and continue lisinopril
- B. Switch to a calcium channel blocker
- C. Switch to losartan (ARB)
- D. Add a thiazide diuretic
β
Answer: C β Switch to losartan (ARB)
ACEi-induced cough is caused by bradykinin accumulation (ACE normally degrades bradykinin). Incidence: 10β15% (higher in Asian patients). ARBs block AT1 receptor directly, do not increase bradykinin β no cough. ARBs have same therapeutic efficacy as ACEi.
Q14. A 50-year-old man with HTN and gout is started on antihypertensive therapy. Which drug would provide dual benefit (BP control + uric acid reduction)?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Amlodipine
- C. Losartan
- D. Metoprolol
β
Answer: C β Losartan
Losartan is the only ARB with a uricosuric effect - it inhibits URAT1 transporter in the proximal tubule, increasing uric acid excretion. Hydrochlorothiazide should be AVOIDED in gout (raises uric acid). Losartan = best antihypertensive in HTN + gout.
Q15. A 45-year-old asthmatic patient presents with Stage 2 HTN and chronic stable angina. Which drug class is preferred?
- A. Beta-blocker
- B. ACE inhibitor alone
- C. Calcium channel blocker (long-acting nifedipine or amlodipine)
- D. Thiazide diuretic
β
Answer: C β Calcium channel blocker
Beta-blockers are contraindicated in asthma (bronchospasm). For HTN + angina in an asthmatic: use long-acting dihydropyridine CCBs (amlodipine, nifedipine) β excellent for both HTN and angina. Non-DHP CCBs (verapamil, diltiazem) are also anti-anginal but can cause AV block and are avoided in HFrEF.
Q16. The ACCOMPLISH trial changed clinical practice by demonstrating superiority of which combination?
- A. ACEi + Thiazide diuretic
- B. ACEi + Beta-blocker
- C. ACEi + CCB (Amlodipine)
- D. ARB + CCB
β
Answer: C β ACEi + CCB (Amlodipine)
The ACCOMPLISH trial showed that Benazepril (ACEi) + Amlodipine (CCB) was superior to Benazepril + HCTZ in reducing cardiovascular events, despite similar BP reduction. This made ACEi + CCB the preferred 2-drug combination in HTN management.
Q17. A 70-year-old man with HTN is started on doxazosin. He calls the next morning reporting that he nearly fainted while getting out of bed. What is the most likely explanation?
- A. Reflex tachycardia
- B. Rebound hypertension
- C. First-dose orthostatic hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
β
Answer: C β First-dose orthostatic hypotension
Alpha-1 blockers (prazosin, doxazosin) classically cause first-dose orthostatic (postural) hypotension β sudden BP drop on standing. Patients should be counseled to take the first dose at bedtime and rise slowly. This is why alpha-blockers are NOT first-line for HTN (despite dual benefit in BPH + HTN).
Q18. A 35-year-old pregnant woman (28 weeks) is found to have BP 152/96 mmHg. Urine shows 2+ protein. Which drug is CONTRAINDICATED?
- A. Methyldopa
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Labetalol
- D. Enalapril
β
Answer: D β Enalapril (ACE inhibitor)
ACEi and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy (especially 2nd and 3rd trimester) β cause fetal renal tubular dysplasia, oligohydramnios, neonatal renal failure, skull hypoplasia (VACTERL-like effects). Safe drugs in pregnancy: Methyldopa (DOC), Labetalol, Nifedipine (slow-release), Hydralazine.
SECTION D: COMPELLING INDICATIONS
Q19. A 62-year-old diabetic man with microalbuminuria (ACR 65 mg/g) and Stage 2 HTN. Which is the most appropriate first-line antihypertensive?
- A. Amlodipine
- B. Chlorthalidone
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Metoprolol
β
Answer: C β Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
In diabetes + proteinuria/microalbuminuria, ACEi (or ARB) is the drug of choice. They reduce intraglomerular pressure, decrease proteinuria, and slow progression of diabetic nephropathy β independent of BP-lowering effect. This is a compelling indication backed by multiple RCTs (RENAAL, IDNT, HOPE trials).
Q20. A 55-year-old man had an anterior STEMI 3 weeks ago. Echo shows EF 35%. He has HTN. Which combination of antihypertensives is most appropriate?
- A. Amlodipine + Thiazide
- B. ACEi + Beta-blocker + Spironolactone
- C. CCB + ARB
- D. Alpha-blocker + Thiazide
β
Answer: B β ACEi + Beta-blocker + Spironolactone
Post-MI with reduced EF (HFrEF): compelling indications are ACEi + BB + MRA (spironolactone). This combination reduces mortality (proven in RALES, EMPHASIS-HF trials). Amlodipine can be added for additional BP control but is not the priority here. Note: Verapamil and diltiazem are avoided in HFrEF.
Q21. A patient with HTN and CKD has eGFR of 24 mL/min/1.73mΒ². Which diuretic is most appropriate?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Chlorthalidone
- C. Furosemide (loop diuretic)
- D. Spironolactone
β
Answer: C β Furosemide (loop diuretic)
Thiazide diuretics lose efficacy at eGFR < 30 mL/min (they require secretion into the tubular lumen to work). With advanced CKD (eGFR 24), loop diuretics (furosemide, torsemide) are preferred. Spironolactone is risky in advanced CKD due to hyperkalemia risk.
SECTION E: RESISTANT HTN & EMERGENCIES
Q22. A 58-year-old man is on maximum doses of amlodipine 10 mg, lisinopril 40 mg, and chlorthalidone 25 mg. His BP is 162/98 mmHg. What is the most evidence-based next step?
- A. Add metoprolol
- B. Add spironolactone 25β50 mg/day
- C. Add doxazosin
- D. Refer for renal denervation
β
Answer: B β Add spironolactone 25β50 mg/day
This patient has resistant HTN (BP above goal on 3 max-dose drugs including a diuretic). The PATHWAY-2 trial demonstrated spironolactone is the most effective add-on agent for resistant HTN, outperforming bisoprolol and doxazosin. Mechanism: suppresses aldosterone excess, which is often subclinical in resistant HTN. Monitor KβΊ and renal function.
Q23. A 48-year-old man presents to ER with BP 210/126 mmHg. He reports severe headache, confusion, and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy shows papilledema. There are NO focal neurological signs. CT brain is normal. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Hypertensive urgency
- B. Acute ischemic stroke
- C. Hypertensive encephalopathy
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
β
Answer: C β Hypertensive encephalopathy
Key features: severe HTN + encephalopathy (confusion, headache, visual disturbance) + papilledema + absence of focal neurological signs + normal CT. MRI may show PRES (Posterior Reversible Encephalopathy Syndrome) β symmetrical vasogenic edema in posterior occipital regions. Treatment: IV labetalol or nicardipine; reduce MAP by 20β25% in first hour.
Q24. A 55-year-old man presents with BP 230/130 mmHg, tearing chest pain radiating to the back, and unequal blood pressure in both arms. What is the IMMEDIATE BP target?
- A. < 160/100 mmHg within 6 hours
- B. MAP reduction of 25% over 24 hours
- C. SBP < 120 mmHg within minutes
- D. SBP < 140 mmHg within 1β2 hours
β
Answer: C β SBP < 120 mmHg within minutes
This is Type A aortic dissection β the most aggressive BP emergency. Target: SBP < 120 mmHg + HR < 60 bpm as fast as possible. Use IV Labetalol (controls both HR and BP) or IV Esmolol + Nitroprusside. Beta-blocker FIRST to prevent reflex tachycardia from nitroprusside. This is the ONLY HTN emergency where near-normalization is the immediate goal.
Q25. A patient with known pheochromocytoma presents with hypertensive crisis (BP 240/140 mmHg). Which is the CORRECT treatment sequence?
- A. IV Metoprolol first, then phenoxybenzamine
- B. IV Phentolamine first, then IV Propranolol if tachycardia persists
- C. IV Labetalol only (covers both alpha and beta)
- D. IV Nitroprusside alone
β
Answer: B β Phentolamine first, then propranolol if needed
In pheo crisis: ALWAYS alpha-block FIRST, then beta-block. If beta-blocker given first β paradoxical severe hypertension (blocks vasodilatory Ξ²2 receptors, leaving Ξ±1-mediated vasoconstriction unopposed). Phentolamine or phenoxybenzamine first β then propranolol for tachycardia. Note: Labetalol has mixed Ξ±/Ξ² activity but its Ξ²-blocking effect predominates, so it's not ideal for acute pheo crisis.
Q26. A 32-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation has BP 170/110 mmHg, severe headache, and a seizure in the ER. What is the IMMEDIATE treatment?
- A. IV Labetalol + oral nifedipine
- B. IV MgSOβ + IV Hydralazine or Labetalol
- C. Emergency cesarean without medications
- D. IV Furosemide + oral methyldopa
β
Answer: B β IV MgSOβ + IV Hydralazine or Labetalol
This is eclampsia (pre-eclampsia + seizures). Two immediate priorities: (1) MgSOβ for seizure control/prevention β NOT a standard anticonvulsant, it works by reducing CNS excitability and promoting vasodilation. (2) IV Hydralazine or Labetalol for acute BP control. Definitive treatment = delivery. MgSOβ toxicity: loss of deep tendon reflexes β respiratory depression β cardiac arrest. Antidote = IV Calcium gluconate.
Q27. A 68-year-old man presents with acute ischemic stroke. BP on arrival is 196/104 mmHg. He is NOT a candidate for thrombolytic therapy. What is the appropriate BP management?
- A. Aggressively lower BP to < 130/80 mmHg immediately
- B. Lower BP only if > 220/120 mmHg; target 15% reduction over 24 hrs
- C. Give IV labetalol immediately to reach < 140/90 mmHg
- D. No treatment; BP will self-correct
β
Answer: B β Only treat if > 220/120; reduce by 15% over 24 hrs
In acute ischemic stroke without thrombolytics: DO NOT aggressively lower BP. The ischemic penumbra loses cerebral autoregulation and depends on systemic BP for perfusion. Only treat if BP > 220/120 mmHg, and reduce by only 15% over 24 hours. If thrombolytics are planned β treat if BP > 185/110 mmHg before and during thrombolysis.
SECTION F: SIDE EFFECTS & DRUG INTERACTIONS
Q28. A patient on lisinopril for HTN and DM develops sudden facial and lip swelling 6 months after starting therapy. He has no urticaria. What is the most appropriate management?
- A. Add antihistamine and continue lisinopril
- B. Switch to ARB immediately; give IV corticosteroids
- C. Stop lisinopril; administer epinephrine if severe; switch to ARB for future BP control
- D. Stop lisinopril and start amlodipine only; ARBs also cause angioedema
β
Answer: C β Stop lisinopril; give epinephrine if severe; switch to ARB
ACEi-induced angioedema is bradykinin-mediated (NOT IgE-mediated) β antihistamines and corticosteroids are less effective. Can occur months to years after starting. Stop ACEi immediately. Severe cases β IV epinephrine, airway management. ARBs do NOT cause angioedema through bradykinin; they can be used (with caution - rare cross-reactivity ~ 5β10%). DO NOT rechallenge with any ACEi.
Q29. A patient on spironolactone for resistant HTN has serum KβΊ of 6.1 mEq/L. Which drug combination was most likely also being taken?
- A. Amlodipine + HCTZ
- B. Lisinopril + spironolactone
- C. Metoprolol + amlodipine
- D. Furosemide + nifedipine
β
Answer: B β Lisinopril + spironolactone
Dual RAAS blockade (ACEi + MRA) causes additive hyperkalemia. ACEi reduces angiotensin II β less aldosterone β less KβΊ excretion. Spironolactone blocks aldosterone receptor β further KβΊ retention. Combination significantly increases risk of dangerous hyperkalemia and worsening renal function. Monitor KβΊ closely if this combination is used.
Q30. A patient abruptly stops clonidine after 3 years. 24 hours later, he presents with BP 210/130 mmHg, tachycardia, and tremors. What is this phenomenon called and how is it treated?
- A. Hypertensive urgency; start oral amlodipine
- B. Clonidine rebound hypertension; restart clonidine, then taper slowly
- C. Pheo crisis; start phentolamine
- D. Malignant hypertension; start IV nitroprusside
β
Answer: B β Clonidine rebound hypertension; restart and taper
Abrupt clonidine withdrawal causes rebound hypertension due to sudden loss of central Ξ±2 agonism β sympathetic surge. Treatment: restart clonidine and taper gradually. Also seen with beta-blockers in IHD patients (can precipitate MI). Always taper these drugs β never stop abruptly.
BONUS β VIVA / SPOT DIAGNOSIS QUESTIONS
Q31 (Viva). Name the drug that causes:
- a) Dry cough
- b) Lupus-like syndrome
- c) Hypertrichosis
- d) Gynecomastia
- e) Gingival hyperplasia
- f) Rebound HTN on withdrawal
β
Answers:
- a) ACE inhibitors (bradykinin accumulation)
- b) Hydralazine (at high doses β drug-induced lupus)
- c) Minoxidil (used topically for alopecia!)
- d) Spironolactone (anti-androgen effect)
- e) Amlodipine (CCBs β also nifedipine)
- f) Clonidine (also beta-blockers in IHD)
Q32 (Viva). What are the 4 Keith-Wagener-Barker grades of hypertensive retinopathy? Which grade confirms malignant hypertension?
β
Answer:
- Grade I: Arteriolar narrowing, increased light reflex
- Grade II: AV nipping (nicking), copper/silver wiring
- Grade III: Flame hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, hard exudates
- Grade IV: Grade III + Papilledema
Grade IV = Malignant (accelerated) hypertension β a hypertensive emergency requiring IV treatment.
Q33 (Viva). A patient has BP 188/112 mmHg but NO symptoms and NO target organ damage. You diagnose hypertensive urgency. Your senior asks: "Should you rapidly lower BP in the ER?" What do you say?
β
Answer:
No β rapid BP reduction in hypertensive urgency is NOT beneficial and is potentially harmful. Aggressive IV/oral BP lowering can precipitate target organ ischemia (cerebral, coronary, renal). Management: restart any stopped medications, add/adjust oral therapy, and arrange prompt outpatient follow-up within 24β72 hours. Most patients do NOT need ER admission.
π SCORING GUIDE
| Score | Interpretation |
|---|
| 28β33 | Excellent β Ready for exam |
| 22β27 | Good β Revise weak areas |
| 15β21 | Average β Re-read notes, redo questions |
| < 15 | Needs focused study β Start from classification |
These 33 questions cover: Classification (JNC 7 vs ACC/AHA), Pathophysiology, Secondary HTN, Treatment algorithm, Compelling indications, Resistant HTN, Hypertensive emergencies, Drug side effects, Special populations (pregnancy, CKD, elderly, DM, Black patients)