41. A noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction a) increases KM and increases Vmax b) increases KM and reduces Vmax c) reduces KM and increases Vmax d) reduces KM and reduces Vmax
| Inhibitor Type | KM | Vmax |
|---|---|---|
| Competitive | Increases (apparent) | Unchanged |
| Noncompetitive | Unchanged | Decreases |
| Uncompetitive | Decreases (apparent) | Decreases |
| Mixed | Increases or decreases | Decreases |
What vitamins are deposited in the animal organism: a) A, B2, C, D c) D, E, K, A b) B1, H, P, E d) A, E, D, H
| Vitamin | Storage Site |
|---|---|
| A (Retinol) | Liver (stellate cells) |
| D (Calciferol) | Liver and adipose tissue |
| E (Tocopherol) | Adipose tissue, liver |
| K (Phylloquinone/Menaquinone) | Liver |
21. All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except: a) 1-alpha hydroxylation occurs in kidney b) 25-alpha hydroxylation occurs in Liver c) In absence of sun light, the daily requirement is400–600 IU per day d) Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation, precocious puberty and obesity
| Option | Statement | Verdict |
|---|---|---|
| a | 1-alpha hydroxylation occurs in kidney | TRUE - 25(OH)D is converted to active 1,25(OH)₂D (calcitriol) by 1-alpha hydroxylase in the proximal tubule of the kidney |
| b | 25-hydroxylation occurs in liver | TRUE - Vitamin D₃ (cholecalciferol) is first hydroxylated at position 25 in the liver to form 25(OH)D (calcidiol) |
| c | Daily requirement without sunlight is 400-600 IU/day | TRUE - This is the accepted recommended daily intake when cutaneous synthesis from sunlight is absent |
. The primary function of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is to: a) act a cofactor in enzyme catalysis b) facilitate blood clotting c) aid in the absorption of iron c) promote bone mineralization
| Enzyme | Reaction |
|---|---|
| Dopamine-β-hydroxylase | Dopamine → Norepinephrine |
| Peptidylglycine α-amidating monooxygenase | Peptide hormone amidation |
| Trimethyllysine hydroxylase | Carnitine biosynthesis |
| Tyrosine metabolism enzymes | Homogentisate pathway |
Formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate requires ____________ a) 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH b) 3 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH c) 4 ATP, 1 GTP and 2 NADH d) 2 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH
| Cofactor | Amount | Step |
|---|---|---|
| ATP | 4 | 2 for pyruvate carboxylase + 2 for phosphoglycerate kinase |
| GTP | 2 | 2 for PEPCK |
| NADH | 2 | 2 for GAPDH (reverse) |
2 Pyruvate + 4 ATP + 2 GTP + 2 NADH + 4 H₂O → Glucose + 4 ADP + 2 GDP + 2 NAD⁺ + 6 Pᵢ
A pair of sugars differing from each other in the functional group is called: a) Anomers b) epimers c) rasemers d) Stereoisomers
| Term | Definition | Difference from Anomers |
|---|---|---|
| b) Epimers | Sugars differing at any one specific carbon (other than the anomeric carbon) | e.g., Glucose vs Galactose differ at C-4; Glucose vs Mannose differ at C-2 |
| c) Racemers (Enantiomers) | Mirror images of each other, differing at all chiral centers | e.g., D-glucose vs L-glucose |
| d) Stereoisomers | Broad category - same molecular formula, same bonds, but different spatial arrangement | Anomers, epimers, and enantiomers are all types of stereoisomers |
Stereoisomers (broad)
├── Enantiomers (mirror images, all chiral centers differ)
└── Diastereomers
├── Epimers (differ at one carbon, not anomeric)
└── Anomers (differ only at anomeric carbon = C-1)
69. In the of monosaccharides, all properties go hand in hand, except: a) Reducing property b) Formation of furfural c) Formation of ozazone d) Mutarotation
| Property | Basis |
|---|---|
| a) Reducing property | Free aldehyde/ketone reduces Cu²⁺ (Fehling's/Benedict's). Requires free carbonyl. |
| c) Formation of osazone | Phenylhydrazine reacts with free carbonyl (C-1 and C-2). Requires free carbonyl. |
| d) Mutarotation | Equilibrium between α and β anomers via open-chain (free aldehyde) form. Requires free anomeric carbon. |
Which of the following statement about Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) is false? a) PFK-2 is a bifunctional enzyme having a kinase domain, phosphatase domain, and a regulatory domain b) Activated protein kinase A phosphorylates PFK-2 and activates the phosphatase domain c) PFK-2 catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 2-6 bisphosphate
Glucagon → cAMP ↑ → PKA activated → PFK-2 phosphorylated → kinase domain inhibited + phosphatase domain activated → F-2,6-BP ↓ → PFK-1 inhibited → glycolysis ↓, gluconeogenesis ↑
| Option | Verdict | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| a) PFK-2 is bifunctional with kinase, phosphatase, and regulatory domains | TRUE | PFK-2/FBPase-2 is a single polypeptide with both enzymatic activities |
| c) PFK-2 converts F-6-P → F-2,6-BP | TRUE | This is the kinase reaction of PFK-2 (using ATP) |
High glucose (fed state):
F-6-P → F-2,6-BP [PFK-2 kinase domain active]
F-2,6-BP → activates PFK-1 → glycolysis ↑
Fasting/Glucagon state:
PKA phosphorylates PFK-2 (liver) → phosphatase domain active
F-2,6-BP → F-6-P → PFK-1 less active → gluconeogenesis ↑
What is the rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis? a) Hexokinase b) Phosphohexose isomerase c) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase d) Enolase
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Reaction | Fructose-6-phosphate + ATP → Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP |
| Why rate-limiting | Irreversible, highly regulated, commits glucose exclusively to glycolysis |
| Activated by | AMP, ADP, Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, Pi |
| Inhibited by | ATP, citrate, H⁺ (acidosis) |
| Step | Enzyme | Role |
|---|---|---|
| Step 1 | Hexokinase (or Glucokinase in liver) | Traps glucose in cell |
| Step 3 | PFK-1 ← Rate-limiting | Main control point |
| Step 10 | Pyruvate kinase | Final irreversible step |
During gluconeogenesis, the three irreversible steps of glycolysis have to be bypassed. The first step is the conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate. Which of the following statement is false regarding the reaction step? a) This reaction involves a two-step process catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase b) Conversion of oxaloacetate from pyruvate occurs in mitochondria and shuttled into the cytosol. c) Formation of phosphoenolpyruvate requires both ATP and GTP as an energy source. d) Acetyl CoA is an activator of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase.
| Option | Statement | Verdict |
|---|---|---|
| a) Two-step process via pyruvate carboxylase + PEPCK | TRUE | Exactly correct - pyruvate → OAA → PEP |
| b) OAA formed in mitochondria, shuttled to cytosol | TRUE | OAA cannot cross mitochondrial membrane directly; it is converted to malate or aspartate for transport, then reconverted to OAA in cytosol |
| d) Acetyl-CoA activates pyruvate carboxylase | TRUE | Acetyl-CoA is an allosteric activator - signals that TCA cycle intermediates are available and gluconeogenesis should proceed |
Pyruvate
↓ [Pyruvate Carboxylase] + ATP + CO₂ (MITOCHONDRIA)
Oxaloacetate
↓ shuttle as Malate/Aspartate
Oxaloacetate (CYTOSOL)
↓ [PEPCK] + GTP → CO₂ released
Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
Coenzyme Q catalizes electron transport between: a) FADH and cytochrome B b) It is the last member in the electron transport chain c) NADH and ubiquinone d) Cytochrome Q and cytochrome C
NADH → Complex I → CoQ ←── Complex II (FADH₂)
↓
Complex III (Cytochrome b → Cytochrome c₁)
↓
Cytochrome C (mobile carrier)
↓
Complex IV (Cytochrome a → a₃)
↓
O₂ → H₂O
| Option | Why Wrong |
|---|---|
| b) CoQ is the last member of ETC | FALSE - The last member is Complex IV (cytochrome oxidase), which reduces O₂ to H₂O |
| c) NADH and ubiquinone | This describes the role of Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase), not CoQ itself. CoQ IS ubiquinone - this option is circular/incorrect |
| d) Cytochrome Q and cytochrome C | There is no "Cytochrome Q" - CoQ is not a cytochrome (cytochromes contain heme with iron; CoQ contains a quinone ring with isoprene side chain) |
HMP shunt is required for which kind of metabolism? a) carbohydrate metabolism b) fat metabolism c) lipid metabolism d) amino acid metabolism
| Product | Primary Use |
|---|---|
| NADPH | Fatty acid synthesis, cholesterol synthesis, steroid hormone synthesis, glutathione reduction (antioxidant defense) |
| Ribose-5-phosphate | Nucleotide and nucleic acid synthesis |
Acetyl-CoA → (Fatty Acid Synthase complex)
requires NADPH at two steps:
1. β-ketoacyl-ACP reductase
2. Enoyl-ACP reductase
Each 2-carbon elongation requires 2 NADPH
Synthesis of palmitate (16C) requires 14 NADPH
| Option | Assessment |
|---|---|
| a) Carbohydrate metabolism | HMP shunt starts with glucose-6-phosphate, so it IS part of carbohydrate metabolism broadly - but this is not its primary functional purpose |
| c) Lipid metabolism | Options b and c overlap (fat = lipid), but b is more specific to the fatty acid synthesis role |
| d) Amino acid metabolism | NADPH has minor roles here but this is not the primary purpose of HMP shunt |
"Lactating mammary glands, Adrenal cortex, Liver, Testes, Erythrocytes" = all sites of active NADPH use for lipid/steroid synthesis or antioxidant defense.
At the pre-diabetic stages and in type 2 diabetes, there may be hyperinsulinemia jointly with a paradoxical increase in glucagonemia. This may be due to: a) alfa cells resistance to insulin b) physiological response trying to compensate for the lack of insulin c) inhibition in enzymatic response to insulin action d) decrease in activity of enzymes that degrade glucagon’s second messengers
Insulin resistance (peripheral tissues)
↓
Compensatory hyperinsulinemia (beta cells work harder)
↓
Alpha cells also resistant to insulin
↓
Glucagon suppression fails → Hyperglucagonemia
↓
Glucagon stimulates hepatic glucose output
↓
Worsens hyperglycemia
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| b) Compensatory response for lack of insulin | Incorrect - in Type 2 DM early stages, there is NO lack of insulin; there is excess insulin (hyperinsulinemia). Glucagon rise is not compensatory here. |
| c) Inhibition of enzymatic response to insulin | Too vague and does not specifically explain the alpha cell-beta cell paracrine relationship |
| d) Decreased activity of enzymes degrading glucagon's second messengers | This would prolong glucagon's intracellular effect but does not explain why glucagon secretion itself is elevated |
In biological oxidation process, depending on the organic load, the oxidation takes place ___________ a) 1-4 Hours b) 4-8 Hours c) 8-16 Hours d) 16-20 Hours
| Time Range | Relevance |
|---|---|
| 1-4 hours | Too short - only partial oxidation of low-load effluents |
| 4-8 hours | Possible for very low organic loads only |
| 8-16 hours | Standard range for biological oxidation depending on organic load |
| 16-20 hours | Extended aeration systems, very high organic loads |
What products of glucose oxidation are essential for oxidative phosphorylation? a) pyruvate b) NADPH and ATP c) Acetyl-CoA c) NADH and FADH2
| Stage | NADH produced | FADH₂ produced |
|---|---|---|
| Glycolysis | 2 NADH | 0 |
| Pyruvate dehydrogenase | 2 NADH | 0 |
| TCA cycle (×2) | 6 NADH | 2 FADH₂ |
| Total | 10 NADH | 2 FADH₂ |
NADH → Complex I → CoQ → Complex III → Cyt C → Complex IV → O₂
(2.5 ATP)
FADH₂ → Complex II → CoQ → Complex III → Cyt C → Complex IV → O₂
(1.5 ATP)
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| a) Pyruvate | Pyruvate is an intermediate - it must first be converted to Acetyl-CoA (generating NADH) before entering the TCA cycle. It does not directly feed oxidative phosphorylation. |
| b) NADPH and ATP | NADPH is produced by the HMP shunt and is used for biosynthesis/antioxidant defense, NOT for oxidative phosphorylation. ATP is the product of oxidative phosphorylation, not the substrate. |
| c) Acetyl-CoA | Acetyl-CoA feeds the TCA cycle which generates NADH and FADH₂, but Acetyl-CoA itself does not directly participate in the ETC |
NADPH (HMP shunt) = biosynthesis and antioxidant defense NADH (glycolysis, PDH, TCA) = oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production
Which of the following hormones can cause hypeglycemia without known effects on or gluconeogenesis? a) Thyroxin b) Epinephrine c) Clucocorticoids d) Glucogen
| Hormone | Glycogenolysis | Gluconeogenesis | Notes |
|---|---|---|---|
| a) Thyroxine | ✓ Yes | ✗ Not directly | Raises glucose via absorption + glycogenolysis |
| b) Epinephrine | ✓ Strong | ✓ Yes | Activates cAMP → PKA → phosphorylates key enzymes; promotes gluconeogenic substrate release (lactate, glycerol) |
| c) Glucocorticoids | ✓ Yes | ✓ Strong | Major gluconeogenic hormone - induces PEPCK, glucose-6-phosphatase, promotes proteolysis for amino acid substrates |
| d) Glucagon | ✓ Strong | ✓ Strong | Classic gluconeogenic hormone - activates PEPCK and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase via cAMP |
"GECAT" - all cause hyperglycemia:
G - Glucagon → glycogenolysis + gluconeogenesis
E - Epinephrine → glycogenolysis + gluconeogenesis
C - Cortisol → gluconeogenesis (dominant effect)
A - Adrenal androgens (minor)
T - Thyroxine → absorption + glycogenolysis ONLY
Rate controlling step of pyrimidine biosynthesis is catalyzed by: a) Orotidylate decarboxylase b) Aspartate transcarbamoylase c) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II d) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
| Enzyme | Rate-limiting in... |
|---|---|
| Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) | Bacteria (E. coli) - classic rate-limiting step |
| Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II (CPS II) | Mammals/Humans - primary rate-limiting step |
Glutamine + CO₂ + ATP
↓ [CPS II] ← Rate-limiting in mammals
Carbamoyl phosphate
↓ [Aspartate transcarbamoylase] ← Rate-limiting in bacteria
Carbamoyl aspartate
↓ [Dihydroorotase]
Dihydroorotate
↓ [Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase] (only mitochondrial step)
Orotate
↓ [Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase] ← option d
OMP (Orotidine monophosphate)
↓ [Orotidylate decarboxylase] ← option a
UMP → UDP → UTP → CTP
| Regulator | Effect | Mechanism |
|---|---|---|
| CTP (end product) | Inhibits | Feedback inhibition |
| ATP | Activates | Signals energy availability |
| UTP | Inhibits (with CTP) | Synergistic inhibition |
| Regulator | Effect |
|---|---|
| UTP | Inhibits (feedback) |
| PRPP | Activates |
| ATP | Activates |
| Option | Role |
|---|---|
| a) Orotidylate decarboxylase | Converts OMP → UMP; not rate-limiting. Inhibited by allopurinol's metabolite (oxypurinol) |
| d) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase | Converts orotate → OMP; not rate-limiting. Also inhibited by allopurinol |
3. Release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome is catalyzed by: a) Release factors b) Dissociation of ribosomes c) Peptidyl transferase d) Stop codons
| Organism | Release Factor | Recognizes |
|---|---|---|
| Prokaryotes | RF-1 | UAA, UAG |
| Prokaryotes | RF-2 | UAA, UGA |
| Prokaryotes | RF-3 | Stimulates RF-1 and RF-2 (GTPase) |
| Eukaryotes | eRF-1 | All three stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) |
| Eukaryotes | eRF-3 | GTPase, stimulates eRF-1 |
Stop codon enters A site
↓
Release factor binds A site (mimics tRNA structure)
↓
RF stimulates peptidyl transferase to act as hydrolase
↓
Water attacks peptidyl-tRNA bond (instead of aminoacyl-tRNA)
↓
Polypeptide chain released
↓
RF-3/eRF-3 (GTPase) facilitates RF dissociation
↓
Ribosome dissociates into subunits (recycling)
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| b) Dissociation of ribosomes | Ribosome dissociation occurs after polypeptide release, not as the catalytic step of release itself |
| c) Peptidyl transferase | Peptidyl transferase normally forms peptide bonds during elongation. During termination, release factors repurpose it to act as a hydrolase - but the direct catalyst of release is the RF, not peptidyl transferase alone |
| d) Stop codons | Stop codons are the signal that triggers termination, but they do not catalyze anything. They are simply recognized by release factors |
Consensus sequence is: a) Initiation site of replication in eukaryotes b) Initiation site of replication in prokaryotes c) Initiation site of transcription in eukaryotes d) Initiation site of transcription in prokaryotes
| Region | Consensus Sequence | Function |
|---|---|---|
| -10 box (Pribnow box) | 5'-TATAAT-3' | RNA polymerase binding and DNA strand separation |
| -35 box | 5'-TTGACA-3' | Initial recognition by sigma (σ) factor |
5'----[TTGACA]----17bp----[TATAAT]----~10bp----[+1 start]----3'
-35 box -10 box Transcription
(consensus) (consensus) begins here
| Option | Correct Term | Details |
|---|---|---|
| a) Initiation of replication in eukaryotes | Origins of replication (ORI) - multiple per chromosome; recognized by ORC (Origin Recognition Complex); no single consensus sequence | |
| b) Initiation of replication in prokaryotes | oriC - a specific sequence (~245 bp in E. coli) with DnaA boxes; called "oriC", not consensus sequence | |
| c) Initiation of transcription in eukaryotes | TATA box (Hogness box) at -25, CAAT box at -75, GC box - these are eukaryotic promoter elements, distinct from prokaryotic consensus sequences |
| Feature | Prokaryotes | Eukaryotes |
|---|---|---|
| Key sequences | -10 (TATAAT), -35 (TTGACA) | TATA box (-25), CAAT box (-75), GC box |
| Recognized by | σ (sigma) factor of RNA polymerase | General transcription factors (TFIID, TFIIB, etc.) |
| Term used | Consensus sequences | Promoter elements/regulatory elements |
| RNA polymerase types | One (core + sigma) | Three (RNA Pol I, II, III) |
"Prokaryotes use Consensus; Eukaryotes use TATA"