I can see this is a First MBBS (New Scheme - 2024) Main Examination, July 2026 - Physiology Paper I question paper, not a UPSC CMS paper. The image is quite small and the text is partially blurry, but I was able to extract the content. Let me now provide all the answers to the questions visible in the paper.
First MBBS Physiology Paper I - July 2026 (1161-I)
Time: 3 Hours | Maximum Marks: 100
SECTION A - Answer the Following (20×1=20)
Q.1
1) A 23-year-old female comes with complaints of decreased weight, sweating and tremor. BP: 160/90 mmHg, pulse: 120/min. Exophthalmos is seen. Identify the condition.
- A. Graves disease ✓ (Correct Answer: A - Graves disease)
- B. Cretinism
- C. Myxedema
- D. Addison disease
Explanation: The combination of weight loss, sweating, tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, and exophthalmos is classic for Graves' disease (autoimmune hyperthyroidism).
2) A 55-year-old male comes to OPD with polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia. Diagnosed as Diabetes Mellitus. To know long-term control of blood sugar, investigation required is:
- A. Blood sugar fasting
- B. Blood sugar random
- C. HbA1c ✓ (Correct Answer)
- D. Blood sugar postprandial
Explanation: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over the past 2-3 months and is the standard for long-term glycemic control monitoring.
3) A 75-year-old male comes with difficulty in initiating movement, rigidity and resting tremor. On examination, festinant gait is seen. Which part of brain is involved?
- A. Subthalamic nucleus (marked/answered)
- B. Globus pallidus
- C. Striatum
- D. (other option)
Correct Answer: The described features (resting tremor, rigidity, festinant gait, bradykinesia) are classic Parkinson's disease - primarily involving the Substantia nigra (dopaminergic neurons). Among the options, the basal ganglia circuit is involved.
4) A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman advised for blood investigation for hormonal analysis. Which of the following finding is seen in above case?
- A. ↑ FSH
- B. ↑ LH
- C. ↓ Estrogen
- D. ↑ Progesterone
Correct Answer: A & C - In menopause, there is elevated FSH (due to loss of negative feedback from estrogen) and reduced estrogen. FSH rises most markedly.
5) Rinne's tuning fork test - 25-year-old male in which air conduction is better than bone conduction in right ear, but bone conduction is better than air conduction in left ear. Patient is suffering from:
- A. Left ear conductive deafness ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Right ear conductive deafness
- C. Left ear sensorineural deafness
- D. Right ear sensorineural deafness
Explanation: Rinne negative (BC > AC) in left ear indicates LEFT ear conductive deafness.
6) A 20-year-old female diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Number of Barr bodies in above female is:
- A. Zero ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. One
- C. Two
- D. Three
Explanation: Turner syndrome is 45, XO. Barr bodies = number of X chromosomes - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0.
7) A 25-year-old male comes to OPD with complaints of loss of pain and temperature sensation with preservation of touch, vibration, and position. Identify the condition:
- A. Syringomyelia ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Tabes dorsalis
- C. Multiple sclerosis
- D. Wilson's illness
Explanation: Dissociated sensory loss (pain/temperature lost, touch preserved) is classic for syringomyelia (central cord lesion affecting spinothalamic tracts while dorsal columns are spared).
8) A 25-year-old male comes with complaints of fatigue with excessive salt craving and diplopia. Identify the condition:
- A. Myasthenia gravis ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
- C. Muscular dystrophy
- D. Malignant syndrome
Explanation: Fatigue, diplopia (ocular muscle weakness), and excessive fatigue on exertion is classic for Myasthenia gravis.
9) A 60-year-old male develops non-fluent speech after stroke. He understands language but cannot speak fluently. The lesion is most likely located in:
- A. Broca's area ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Wernicke's area
- C. Angular gyrus
- D. Cerebellum
Explanation: Broca's area (inferior frontal gyrus) - damage causes expressive/non-fluent aphasia. Patient understands but cannot produce fluent speech.
10) A 40-year-old male comes to emergency with complaints of keeping in air, frequent falls, difficulty maintaining posture while walking. On examination, nystagmus is seen. Which part of cerebellum is most likely affected?
- A. Flocculonodular lobe ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Spinocerebellum
- C. Neocerebellum
- D. Vermis
Explanation: The flocculonodular lobe (archicerebellum/vestibulocerebellum) controls balance and eye movements. Damage causes truncal ataxia, nystagmus, and equilibrium disturbance.
11) In pituitary adenoma, bitemporal hemianopia is seen. This is due to lesion at:
- A. Optic nerve
- B. Optic chiasma ✓ (Correct Answer)
- C. Optic tract
- D. Optic radiation
Explanation: The optic chiasma is directly above the pituitary fossa. A growing pituitary adenoma compresses the crossing nasal fibers at the chiasma, causing bitemporal hemianopia.
12) A 35-year-old female brought by husband because of loud snoring, complaints of morning headache and excessive daytime sleepiness. Classify the condition:
- A. Obstructive sleep apnea ✓ (Correct Answer)
- B. Narcolepsy
- C. Somnambulism
- D. Bruxism
Explanation: Loud snoring + morning headache (CO₂ retention) + excessive daytime sleepiness is the classic triad of Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA).
13) EEG is recorded in person while doing solving mathematical problem. Which type of EEG wave is recorded?
- A. Alpha
- B. Beta ✓ (Correct Answer)
- C. Theta
- D. Delta
Explanation: Beta waves (13-30 Hz) are associated with active, busy, or anxious thinking and active concentration - such as solving mathematical problems.
14) In left dorsal column pathway lesion, which sensation is lost from left side below the lesion?
- A. Pain ✓ (marked)
- B. Temperature
- C. Crude touch
- D. Vibration ✓ (Correct Answer)
Explanation: The dorsal columns carry fine touch, proprioception, vibration, and two-point discrimination (ipsilaterally). So a left dorsal column lesion = loss of vibration and proprioception on the LEFT side below the lesion.
15) Aldosterone cramps is due to:
- A. Atrial natriuretic factor (marked)
- B. Nitric oxide
- C. Endothelin
- D. Angiotensin II
Correct Answer: Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium. Hypokalemia from excess aldosterone causes muscle cramps. The question likely refers to Angiotensin II stimulating aldosterone, but aldosterone cramps are due to hypokalemia.
Note: The image was partially blurry and photographed at an angle, so some answer options may have minor transcription inaccuracies. If you need clarification on any specific question or want detailed explanations for any topic, feel free to ask!