Pg and superspeciality level viva questions on long case of breast

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PG superspeciality surgery viva questions breast cancer long case clinical examination 2024

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PG & Superspeciality Level Viva Questions: Long Case of Breast (Carcinoma Breast)


SECTION 1: HISTORY TAKING - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q1. What are the classical presenting symptoms of carcinoma breast you must elicit? A. Painless lump (most common - 85%), nipple discharge (bloody = alarming), nipple retraction/inversion, skin changes (peau d'orange, dimpling, erythema, ulceration), axillary lump, and symptoms of distant metastasis - bone pain, cough, breathlessness, headache, visual disturbances, neurological deficit, jaundice, weight loss, hypercalcaemia.
Q2. What specific history points distinguish malignant from benign breast lump? A.
  • Malignant: age >35, post-menopausal, progressive increase in size, painless, hard, irregular, fixed to skin/deep fascia, associated nipple changes, axillary nodes
  • Benign (fibroadenoma): young woman <30, smooth, mobile, rubbery, no skin changes ("breast mouse")
Q3. Which risk factors for breast cancer would you specifically ask about?
Modifiable:
  • Obesity (BMI >30): RR 1.29 in postmenopausal women
  • Nulliparity or first pregnancy >35 years
  • Breastfeeding <12 months (protective if >12 months)
  • HRT use >10 years: RR 1.2
  • Tobacco: RR 1.14 (25+ cigarettes/day)
  • Alcohol: RR 1.46 (heavy drinking >4 drinks/day)
  • Radiation exposure: RR 6
Non-modifiable:
  • Age (median 60 years in West; 48 years in India)
  • Female sex (male breast cancer = 0.5-1% of all breast cancers)
  • Ethnicity: American white, African American <45 years, Ashkenazi Jews, Parsis in India
  • Family history: BRCA1/2 mutations, first-degree relatives
  • Previous breast cancer, atypical hyperplasia on biopsy, DCIS/LCIS
  • Early menarche (<12 years), late menopause (>55 years)
(Bailey and Love's, 28th Ed.; Schwartz's, 11th Ed.)

SECTION 2: CLINICAL EXAMINATION - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q4. Describe the systematic examination of the breast. A.
  1. Inspection (sitting, arms at side; arms raised; leaning forward): Look for asymmetry, skin dimpling, peau d'orange, nipple retraction/deviation/discharge, ulceration, visible veins, cancer en cuirasse
  2. Palpation (supine, ipsilateral arm behind head): All four quadrants + retroareolar area + axillary tail (tail of Spence). Describe lump - site (upper outer quadrant most common - 60%), size, shape, surface, consistency, margins, tenderness, mobility (skin - tethering vs. fixation; deep - pectoral fascia involvement)
  3. Axillary examination: Level I, II, III nodes; pectoral, subscapular, central nodes
  4. Supraclavicular fossa examination
  5. Opposite breast examination
  6. Systemic examination: Spine/bone tenderness, liver size, pleural effusion, chest nodules
Q5. How do you distinguish skin tethering from skin fixation? A.
  • Tethering: Skin moves with the lump when displaced - ligaments of Cooper are invaded but skin is not yet fixed. Sign: dimpling on attempting to displace the lump
  • Fixation: Skin cannot be moved independently of the tumour - skin directly involved by tumour. Constitutes T4b (peau d'orange/oedema/satellite nodules)
Q6. What is peau d'orange and what is its pathological basis? A. Orange-peel appearance of the breast skin due to dermal lymphatic oedema causing skin dimpling at sweat gland and hair follicle openings (which are tethered to the dermis). Caused by blockage of subdermal lymphatics by tumour emboli. Signifies T4b disease. When extensive and involving >1/3 of breast skin with erythema, it defines inflammatory carcinoma (T4d).
Q7. What constitutes T4 disease in breast cancer? A. Any tumour with direct extension to chest wall (T4a) and/or skin involvement:
  • T4a: Extension to chest wall (NOT pectoral muscle alone)
  • T4b: Ulceration, ipsilateral macroscopic satellite skin nodules, or peau d'orange/skin oedema
  • T4c: Both T4a and T4b
  • T4d: Inflammatory carcinoma (erythema + oedema involving ≥1/3 of breast skin, rapid onset)
(Schwartz's 11th Ed., TNM 8th edition AJCC/UICC)

SECTION 3: INVESTIGATIONS - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q8. What is the triple assessment in breast disease? A. The gold standard diagnostic triad:
  1. Clinical examination (history + physical examination)
  2. Imaging (mammography ± ultrasound ± MRI)
  3. Histopathology/cytology (FNAC, core needle biopsy, or excision biopsy)
Each component is graded 1-5 (1=normal, 2=benign, 3=indeterminate/probably benign, 4=probably malignant, 5=malignant). Grade 3 or above requires tissue biopsy.
Q9. When do you prefer ultrasound over mammography? When do you prefer MRI? A.
  • Ultrasound preferred in: women <35 years (dense breast tissue), pregnant/lactating women, assessment of cystic vs. solid lesion, guidance for FNAC/biopsy, evaluation of axillary nodes
  • Mammography preferred in: women >35-40 years, screening programme, detecting microcalcifications (DCIS)
  • MRI preferred in: BRCA carriers (screening), assessing extent of lobular carcinoma (multifocality), implant assessment, post-lumpectomy margin re-evaluation, monitoring response to NACT, occult primary with axillary metastasis, pre-operative planning for BCS
Q10. What is the role of core needle biopsy (CNB) vs. FNAC? A.
  • FNAC: Rapid, outpatient, gives cytology only (no architecture). Cannot distinguish invasive from in situ. False negative 5-10%.
  • CNB (Tru-cut/core): Preferred - gives histology with tissue architecture, determines ER/PR/HER2, grade, lymphovascular invasion, Ki-67. Guides NACT and surgical planning.
  • Vacuum-assisted biopsy (VAB): For microcalcifications/small lesions under stereotactic guidance.
Q11. What investigations are needed for staging workup? A.
  • Early breast cancer (T1/T2, N0/N1): Only if symptomatic - CXR, LFTs, serum ALP
  • Locally advanced breast cancer (T3/T4 or N2/N3):
    • Contrast-enhanced CT chest/abdomen/pelvis
    • Isotope bone scan (Tc99m bone scan)
    • PET-CT with 18F-FDG (alternative/complementary)
    • Serum ALP, LFTs, calcium
  • Blood tests: CBC, LFT, RFT, Ca2+, tumour markers (CA 15-3, CEA - not for diagnosis, for monitoring)
Q12. What IHC markers do you look for on biopsy report? A.
  • ER (Oestrogen receptor): Allred score or H-score; ≥1% positivity = ER+. Guides hormonal therapy
  • PR (Progesterone receptor): ≥1% positivity = PR+
  • HER2/neu: IHC 3+ (strong complete membrane staining >10% cells) = HER2+; IHC 2+ → FISH/CISH for amplification
  • Ki-67: Proliferation index. <14% = low, 14-20% = intermediate, >20% = high
  • Molecular subtypes:
    • Luminal A: ER+/PR+, HER2-, Ki-67 low (<14%) - best prognosis
    • Luminal B: ER+/PR+, HER2- with Ki67 high, OR HER2+
    • HER2-enriched: ER-/PR-, HER2+ - aggressive
    • Triple negative (TNBC): ER-/PR-/HER2- - worst prognosis, no targeted therapy

SECTION 4: STAGING - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q13. Give the complete TNM staging for breast cancer (AJCC 8th edition).
T (Primary Tumour):
StageDefinition
T1mi≤1 mm
T1a>1-5 mm
T1b>5-10 mm
T1c>10-20 mm
T2>20-50 mm
T3>50 mm
T4aChest wall invasion (NOT pectoral muscle alone)
T4bSkin ulceration/oedema/peau d'orange/satellite nodules
T4cT4a + T4b
T4dInflammatory carcinoma
N (Regional Nodes):
  • cN0: No regional LN metastasis
  • cN1: Mobile ipsilateral Level I/II axillary LN
  • cN2a: Fixed/matted ipsilateral Level I/II axillary LN; cN2b: Internal mammary LN (without axillary)
  • cN3a: Ipsilateral Level III (infraclavicular) LN; cN3b: Internal mammary + axillary; cN3c: Supraclavicular LN
M: M0 = no distant metastasis; M1 = distant metastasis (including supraclavicular is now M1 if no other involvement)
Anatomical Stage Groups:
  • Stage 0: Tis N0 M0 (DCIS)
  • Stage I: T1 N0 M0 (IA) / T0-1 N1mi M0 (IB)
  • Stage IIA: T0-1 N1 M0; T2 N0 M0
  • Stage IIB: T2 N1 M0; T3 N0 M0
  • Stage IIIA: T0-2 N2; T3 N1-2
  • Stage IIIB: T4 any N M0
  • Stage IIIC: Any T N3 M0
  • Stage IV: Any T, Any N, M1
(Schwartz's Principles of Surgery, 11th Ed.)
Q14. What are the key new features of AJCC 8th edition staging? A.
  • LCIS is removed - now classified as a benign high-risk lesion, NOT cancer
  • Multiple synchronous tumours - use (m) modifier, classified by largest tumour
  • Prefix (y) denotes post-neoadjuvant therapy pathologic staging
  • Biological factors (ER, PR, HER2, grade, Oncotype DX) now incorporated for Prognostic Stage Groups (separate from Anatomical stage groups)
  • Pathological complete response (pCR) after NACT downstages to ypN0

SECTION 5: HISTOPATHOLOGY - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q15. What is the pathological classification of breast cancer? A. (Foote and Stewart classification, Schwartz's 11th Ed.):
  1. Paget's disease of nipple - chronic eczematous nipple eruption; pathognomonic Paget cells (large, pale, vacuolated) in rete pegs; associated with underlying DCIS ± invasive cancer
  2. Invasive ductal carcinoma NST (no special type/scirrhous/simplex) - 80%, worst prognosis among special types
  3. Medullary carcinoma - 4%, large cells, pushing margins, lymphocytic infiltrate; better prognosis despite high grade
  4. Mucinous (colloid) carcinoma - 2%, mucin pools, best prognosis
  5. Papillary carcinoma - 2%
  6. Tubular carcinoma - 2%, excellent prognosis
  7. Invasive lobular carcinoma - 10%, single file ("Indian file") pattern, multifocal/bilateral tendency, signet ring cells
  8. Rare: Adenoid cystic, squamous cell, apocrine
Q16. What are the histological grades (Nottingham/Elston-Ellis grading)? A. Based on three parameters, each scored 1-3:
  1. Tubule formation (>75% = 1; 10-75% = 2; <10% = 3)
  2. Nuclear pleomorphism (mild = 1; moderate = 2; severe = 3)
  3. Mitotic count (per 10 HPF; threshold depends on microscope field area)
  • Score 3-5: Grade 1 (well differentiated) - best prognosis
  • Score 6-7: Grade 2 (moderately differentiated)
  • Score 8-9: Grade 3 (poorly differentiated) - worst prognosis
Q17. Describe Paget's disease of the nipple. A.
  • Presents as chronic, eczematous eruption of nipple - can be subtle or progress to ulcerated, weeping lesion
  • Nearly always associated with extensive DCIS, may have underlying invasive cancer
  • Biopsy: Paget cells - large, pale, vacuolated cells in rete pegs of epithelium (pathognomonic)
  • Must differentiate from superficial spreading melanoma - Paget's: CEA+, S100-; Melanoma: S100+, CEA-
  • Treatment: Lumpectomy (if nipple-areola complex uninvolved and no invasive component) or mastectomy
Q18. What is DCIS and how is it managed? A.
  • Ductal carcinoma in situ: Malignant ductal epithelial cells confined within the basement membrane - no stromal invasion
  • Detected on mammography as microcalcifications (comedo type - central necrosis with calcification)
  • Van Nuys Prognostic Index guides treatment (size, margins, grade, age)
  • Treatment: BCS with minimum 2 mm margins (unlike invasive cancer where "no ink on tumour" is sufficient) + radiation, OR mastectomy for extensive DCIS/diffuse microcalcifications
  • LCIS: Now classified as high-risk benign lesion (not staged as cancer in AJCC 8th ed.) - managed with surveillance/risk reduction

SECTION 6: SURGICAL MANAGEMENT - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q19. What are the indications and contraindications for Breast Conserving Surgery (BCS)? A.
Indications (BCS + radiation = equivalent survival to mastectomy):
  • T1, T2 tumours (≤5 cm) with favourable tumour-to-breast ratio
  • Unifocal disease
  • Patient preference with access to radiotherapy
Contraindications (absolute):
  • Large tumour relative to breast size (poor cosmesis)
  • Multicentric/multifocal disease in different quadrants
  • Diffuse malignant microcalcifications (mammographic)
  • Prior radiation to breast/chest wall
  • Pregnancy (first/second trimester - radiation contraindicated)
  • BRCA1/2 mutation (relative - high risk of ipsilateral recurrence)
  • Persistent positive margins despite re-excision
  • Patient preference/inability to attend radiotherapy
Q20. What are the indications for mastectomy? A.
  • Large tumours relative to breast size (tumour-to-breast ratio unfavourable)
  • Multicentric disease
  • Diffuse microcalcification (DCIS)
  • BRCA1/2 mutation carriers
  • Local recurrence after previous BCS
  • Patient's choice
  • Inability to receive radiotherapy
Mastectomy involves removal of: entire breast tissue + skin over tumour + nipple-areola complex + axillary tail. Boundaries: 2nd rib (superior), parasternal edge (medial), inframammary crease (inferior), anterior border of latissimus dorsi (lateral).
Q21. What is the difference between simple, modified radical, and radical mastectomy? A.
  • Simple (total) mastectomy: Removal of breast only - no axillary clearance. For DCIS, prophylactic, palliative
  • Modified radical mastectomy (MRM / Patey's): Breast + Level I/II/III axillary nodes; pectoralis major preserved, pectoralis minor removed/divided
  • Halsted radical mastectomy: Breast + both pectoral muscles + axillary nodes - now historical, only for pectoral muscle invasion
  • Skin-sparing mastectomy: Removes breast + NAC, preserves skin envelope for immediate reconstruction
  • Nipple-sparing mastectomy (NSM): Preserves skin envelope + NAC; for prophylactic/early cancer without NAC involvement
Q22. Explain the axillary lymph node levels. A.
  • Level I (low axilla): Lateral to lateral border of pectoralis minor - pectoral (anterior), subscapular (posterior), lateral axillary nodes
  • Level II (mid axilla): Behind pectoralis minor - central axillary nodes, interpectoral (Rotter's) nodes
  • Level III (apical/infraclavicular): Medial to medial border of pectoralis minor - apical axillary nodes; drain into subclavian vein
Standard axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) = Level I + II (minimum 10 nodes required for adequate staging). Level III clearance only if grossly involved.
Q23. What is Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy (SLNB)? When is it indicated? A.
  • The sentinel node is the first node(s) draining the primary tumour in the axilla - concept: if SLN is negative, remaining nodes are almost certainly negative
  • Technique: Dual technique - radiolabelled colloid (Tc99m) injected peri-tumorally the day before + blue dye (Patent blue/isosulphan blue) injected at surgery. Node detected by blue staining + gamma probe (>10x background = hot node)
  • Single agent: Superparamagnetic iron oxide (SPIO/Magtrace) - newer magnetic tracer, no radiation
  • Indications: Clinically and radiologically node-negative (cN0) early breast cancer
  • If SLN negative: No further axillary surgery required
  • If SLN positive (1-2 micrometastases/macrometastases): ACOSOG Z0011 trial - no ALND if undergoing BCS + tangential radiation + systemic therapy (for 1-2 positive SLNs)
  • If SLN positive (>2 nodes, mastectomy, no radiation): Proceed to completion ALND
Q24. What are the complications of axillary lymph node dissection (ALND)? A.
  • Lymphoedema (most significant): 10-20% after ALND vs. <5% after SLNB. Risk factors: obesity, radiotherapy, infection
  • Seroma formation: Most common early complication; requires repeated aspiration
  • Wound infection
  • Nerve injuries:
    • Intercostobrachial nerve (T2 lateral cutaneous): Medial arm/axilla numbness - commonly sacrificed
    • Long thoracic nerve of Bell (C5,6,7): Serratus anterior - winging of scapula
    • Thoracodorsal nerve (C6,7,8): Latissimus dorsi - weak shoulder extension/internal rotation
    • Medial pectoral nerve: pectoralis minor
  • Shoulder stiffness and restricted abduction
  • Axillary vein thrombosis (rare)

SECTION 7: NEOADJUVANT & SYSTEMIC THERAPY - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q25. What are the indications for neoadjuvant systemic therapy (NAST)? A.
  • Locally advanced breast cancer (LABC): T3/T4, N2/N3 - to downstage for operability or BCS
  • HER2+ or triple-negative breast cancer: NAST preferred even for operable tumours (high response rates, pathological CR guides further therapy)
  • To assess in vivo chemosensitivity
  • To allow time for genetic testing/decision making
  • Converting inoperable to operable disease
Q26. What is pathological complete response (pCR) and its significance? A.
  • pCR = no residual invasive cancer in breast AND axillary nodes after NACT (ypT0/is ypN0)
  • Surrogate endpoint for long-term survival - especially in HER2+ and TNBC
  • TNBC: pCR ~40-60%; HER2+ with dual anti-HER2 therapy: pCR ~50-70%
  • Non-pCR in TNBC: Can add capecitabine (CREATE-X trial)
  • Non-pCR in HER2+: Switch to T-DM1 (trastuzumab emtansine) - KATHERINE trial
Q27. What are the response assessment criteria used during NACT? A. RECIST (Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours):
  • Complete Response (CR): Lesion not detectable on clinical palpation + imaging
  • Partial Response (PR): ≥30% reduction in maximal diameter
  • Stable Disease (SD): <30% reduction in maximal diameter
  • Progressive Disease (PD): ≥20% increase in maximal diameter
For CR/PR: Complete planned NACT then surgery. For SD/PD after 2 cycles: Proceed to surgery + second-line chemotherapy post-op.
Q28. Describe standard chemotherapy regimens used in breast cancer. A.
  • AC (Adriamycin/doxorubicin + cyclophosphamide) x4 cycles → Paclitaxel/Docetaxel x4 cycles (sequential anthracycline-taxane regimen) - most common
  • TC (Docetaxel + Cyclophosphamide) x4 - used when anthracycline contraindicated
  • FEC (Fluorouracil + Epirubicin + Cyclophosphamide) → Docetaxel
  • Dose-dense AC-T (every 2 weeks with G-CSF support): Better DFS in node-positive disease
  • HER2+ targeted: Add Trastuzumab (Herceptin) ± Pertuzumab (dual anti-HER2 blockade, NEOSPHERE trial) to taxane regimen
  • TNBC: Pembrolizumab (immune checkpoint inhibitor) + chemotherapy (KEYNOTE-522 trial) in high-risk TNBC
Q29. What is hormonal therapy in breast cancer? A.
  • Only for ER+ and/or PR+ tumours
  • Pre-menopausal:
    • Tamoxifen (SERM - selective oestrogen receptor modulator) 20 mg/day x5 years (or 10 years in high-risk)
      • Ovarian suppression (GnRH agonist: Goserelin/Leuprolide) in high-risk premenopausal
    • After ovarian suppression: Can switch to Aromatase Inhibitor (AI)
  • Post-menopausal:
    • Aromatase Inhibitors (AIs): Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemestane - superior to tamoxifen for DFS in post-menopausal women
    • Extended AI therapy up to 10 years in high-risk
  • CDK4/6 inhibitors (Palbociclib, Ribociclib, Abemaciclib) + AI: Standard for metastatic ER+/HER2- disease; Abemaciclib also adjuvant for high-risk early BC (monarchE trial)
Q30. What is trastuzumab (Herceptin)? What are its toxicities? A.
  • Humanized monoclonal antibody against HER2 (ErbB2) extracellular domain
  • Mechanism: Blocks HER2 dimerisation, ADCC, receptor downregulation
  • Indications: Adjuvant (1 year) in all HER2+ early breast cancer; neoadjuvant; metastatic
  • Key toxicity: Cardiotoxicity - reversible left ventricular dysfunction/CHF (especially with anthracyclines - avoid concurrent use). Monitor LVEF at baseline and every 3 months
  • Other: Infusion reactions (first dose), pulmonary toxicity (rare)
  • Pertuzumab: Second anti-HER2 monoclonal antibody (blocks dimerisation domain) - combined with trastuzumab for neoadjuvant and metastatic settings (CLEOPATRA trial)
  • T-DM1 (Trastuzumab emtansine/Kadcyla): Antibody-drug conjugate for residual disease post-NACT (KATHERINE trial)

SECTION 8: RADIOTHERAPY - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q31. What are the indications for post-operative radiotherapy in breast cancer? A.
  • After BCS (breast conserving surgery): Always indicated to reduce local recurrence risk (reduces LR from ~25-30% to ~8-10%)
  • After mastectomy (post-mastectomy radiotherapy - PMRT):
    • T3/T4 tumours
    • ≥4 positive axillary nodes (absolute indication)
    • 1-3 positive nodes in high-risk patients (young age, Grade 3, lymphovascular invasion, close margins)
    • Involved/close resection margins
  • Boost dose: To tumour bed after whole-breast radiation in BCS (reduces local recurrence further)
  • Regional nodal irradiation: Supraclavicular ± internal mammary nodes in high-risk

SECTION 9: LOCALLY ADVANCED & SPECIAL SITUATIONS - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q32. Define Locally Advanced Breast Cancer (LABC) and its management. A.
  • Stage III disease: T3/T4 (any N, M0) or N2/N3 (any T, M0); or inoperable by clinical criteria
  • Includes: Large primary (>5 cm), skin/chest wall involvement, fixed axillary nodes, supraclavicular nodes, inflammatory carcinoma
  • Management (multimodal):
    1. NAST (neoadjuvant chemotherapy ± targeted therapy) to downstage
    2. Re-evaluate with triple assessment after NACT
    3. Surgery (mastectomy ± BCS if downstaged sufficiently)
    4. Post-operative radiotherapy (always indicated in LABC)
    5. Adjuvant systemic therapy (hormone/targeted as appropriate)
Q33. What is inflammatory breast cancer? How does it differ from locally advanced disease? A.
  • T4d: Rapid onset of erythema + oedema (peau d'orange) involving ≥1/3 of breast skin - may or may not have palpable mass
  • Pathology: Tumour emboli in dermal lymphatics (NOT inflammatory cells - hence "inflammatory" is a misnomer)
  • Must be distinguished from: Breast abscess, mastitis, locally advanced cancer with skin oedema
  • Worst prognosis of all breast cancer subtypes
  • Management: NAST first (surgery first is NOT appropriate); then surgery (mastectomy - BCS not indicated); then PMRT
  • Never do BCS in inflammatory breast cancer
Q34. What is Paget's disease of the nipple? A. (See Q17 above - expanded for viva)
  • Additional points: Paget disease is considered a malignant condition of the nipple skin - must NOT be confused with Paget's disease of bone
  • Mammography ± MRI mandatory to assess extent of underlying DCIS/invasive component
  • If no palpable mass + limited NAC involvement: Central lumpectomy (excision of NAC + underlying tissue) + radiotherapy
  • If extensive DCIS or invasive cancer: Mastectomy
Q35. What is cancer en cuirasse? A. Advanced breast cancer with extensive tumour infiltration of the skin of the breast, upper limb, and abdomen - resembling a cuirass (armour breastplate). The skin becomes indurated, erythematous, fixed, and forms a thick plaque. Terminal presentation; palliative management.
(Bailey and Love's, 28th Ed.)

SECTION 10: PROGNOSIS & MOLECULAR MARKERS - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q36. What are the prognostic factors in breast cancer? A.
Tumour factors:
  • Nodal status: Single most important prognostic factor
  • Tumour size
  • Histological/nuclear grade (Nottingham grade)
  • Lymphovascular invasion
  • Hormone receptor status (ER/PR positivity = better prognosis)
  • HER2 overexpression (worse prognosis but targetable)
  • Ki-67 (proliferation index)
  • DNA ploidy, S-phase fraction
  • Extent of intraductal component
Host factors:
  • Age, menopausal status, family history, immunosuppression
(Schwartz's 11th Ed.)
Q37. What is the Oncotype DX (21-gene recurrence score)? Clinical significance? A.
  • RT-PCR based 21-gene assay on paraffin-embedded tumour tissue
  • Generates a Recurrence Score (RS) 0-100 for ER+/HER2- node-negative (and some node-positive) patients
  • Low RS (0-10): Low recurrence risk; endocrine therapy alone; chemotherapy NOT beneficial
  • Intermediate RS (11-25): TAILORx trial showed endocrine therapy alone non-inferior to chemo + endocrine (especially in patients <50 years, some benefit from chemo)
  • High RS (>25): High recurrence risk; chemotherapy + endocrine therapy recommended
  • Clinically: Avoids unnecessary chemotherapy in low-risk ER+ patients
Q38. What is the MammaPrint (70-gene) assay? A.
  • 70-gene expression profile FDA-approved for Stage I/II node-negative ER+/- breast cancers
  • Classifies into Low or High genomic risk
  • MINDACT trial: Patients with high clinical risk but low genomic risk - 94.7% survival without distant metastasis at 5 years without chemotherapy (met non-inferiority endpoint)
  • Can be used to guide chemotherapy decision in "genomically low-risk" patients despite high clinical risk

SECTION 11: SCREENING - VIVA QUESTIONS

Q39. What is the current recommendation for breast cancer screening? A.
  • Mammographic screening: Every 2 years for women aged 50-69 years (NHS/IARC); ACS recommends annual mammography from age 45-54, biennial from 55
  • BRCA1/2 or high-risk families: Annual MRI + mammogram from age 30 (or 10 years before youngest affected relative)
  • Breast self-examination (BSE): No longer universally recommended (no mortality benefit in trials) but breast awareness promoted
  • Digital breast tomosynthesis (3D mammography): Improved sensitivity in dense breasts

SECTION 12: SUPERSPECIALITY LEVEL QUESTIONS

Q40. Explain the ACOSOG Z0011 trial and its impact on practice. A.
  • Randomised trial: T1/T2 breast cancer, 1-2 positive SLNs, undergoing BCS + whole-breast tangential radiation + systemic therapy
  • Randomised to completion ALND vs. no ALND
  • Result: No difference in overall survival or locoregional recurrence at 10 years
  • Impact: Eliminated routine ALND for 1-2 positive SLNs in BCS patients receiving whole-breast radiation - dramatically reduced lymphoedema
Q41. What is the SLNB in post-neoadjuvant setting (in initially node-positive patients)? A.
  • In cN1 patients downstaged to ycN0 after NACT: SLNB is feasible but has higher false-negative rate
  • SENTINA and SN FNAC trials: False negative rate ~14% with single-agent technique, but <10% with dual-agent technique + retrieval of ≥3 SLNs + IHC
  • Current practice: Dual-agent SLNB with ≥3 nodes retrieved; tattooed/clipped positive node must be excised (targeted axillary dissection - TAD)
  • TAD (Targeted Axillary Dissection): Clip placed in biopsy-proven positive axillary node before NACT → post-NACT, remove clipped node + SLNs → very low false-negative rate
Q42. Explain the CREATE-X trial and its relevance. A.
  • TNBC or HER2- patients with residual invasive disease after NACT and surgery
  • Randomised to Capecitabine x8 cycles vs. observation
  • Result: Significant improvement in DFS and OS with capecitabine (especially TNBC subgroup)
  • Now standard of care: Adjuvant capecitabine for TNBC with non-pCR after NACT
Q43. What is the KATHERINE trial? A.
  • HER2+ patients with residual disease after neoadjuvant trastuzumab-based chemotherapy
  • Randomised to adjuvant T-DM1 (trastuzumab emtansine) vs. trastuzumab
  • Result: T-DM1 significantly improved invasive DFS (88.3% vs. 77% at 3 years); 50% reduction in recurrence risk
  • Now standard: T-DM1 for HER2+ residual disease after NACT
Q44. What are BRCA1 and BRCA2? Clinical implications? A.
  • Tumour suppressor genes; involved in DNA double-strand break repair (homologous recombination)
  • BRCA1: Chromosome 17q; lifetime breast cancer risk ~57-72%; also ovarian cancer (~44%)
  • BRCA2: Chromosome 13q; lifetime breast cancer risk ~40-84%; male breast cancer risk elevated
  • Indications for genetic testing: Triple-negative <60 years, bilateral/multifocal, age <35, male breast cancer, Ashkenazi Jewish heritage, strong family history (2+ first/second-degree relatives with breast/ovarian cancer)
  • Management of BRCA carriers:
    • Enhanced surveillance: Annual MRI from age 25, mammography from 30
    • Chemoprevention: Tamoxifen (pre-menopausal), AIs (post-menopausal) - ~40% risk reduction
    • Risk-reducing surgery: Bilateral risk-reducing mastectomy (~95% risk reduction), Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO by age 35-40 in BRCA1; 40-45 in BRCA2) - reduces breast cancer risk by ~50% and ovarian cancer risk by ~95%
Q45. What are PARP inhibitors? Role in breast cancer? A.
  • PARP (poly ADP-ribose polymerase) inhibitors: Olaparib, Niraparib, Talazoparib
  • Mechanism: Synthetic lethality - BRCA-mutated cells already deficient in homologous recombination; PARP inhibition blocks base excision repair → double-strand breaks → cell death
  • Indications: Germline BRCA1/2 mutation, HER2-negative metastatic breast cancer (OlympiAD trial: Olaparib vs. chemotherapy - superior PFS)
  • Adjuvant: OlympiA trial - adjuvant Olaparib in high-risk germline BRCA-mutated HER2- early breast cancer with residual disease or high-risk node-positive disease - improved DFS and OS
Q46. What is the role of CDK4/6 inhibitors in breast cancer? A.
  • CDK4/6 (cyclin-dependent kinase 4/6) drive G1-S phase cell cycle progression
  • Inhibitors: Palbociclib, Ribociclib, Abemaciclib
  • Indication: ER+/HER2- metastatic breast cancer + AI or fulvestrant - became standard of care (PALOMA-2, MONALEESA-2, MONARCH-2 trials)
  • Adjuvant abemaciclib (monarchE trial): High-risk ER+/HER2- early breast cancer (≥4 positive nodes, OR 1-3 nodes with Grade 3/tumour ≥5cm/Ki-67 ≥20%) - significant improvement in iDFS
Q47. What is the lymphoedema grading and management? A.
  • International Society of Lymphology (ISL) staging:
    • Stage 0: Latent - no oedema but impaired lymph transport
    • Stage I: Reversible - pitting oedema, reduces with elevation
    • Stage II: Irreversible - non-pitting, fibrosis, does not reduce with elevation
    • Stage III: Lymphostatic elephantiasis - gross deformity, skin changes (hyperkeratosis, papillomatosis)
  • Management: Complex decongestive therapy (CDT) - manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) + compression bandaging + remedial exercises + skin care; then maintenance compression garments. Surgery (VLNT - vascularised lymph node transfer, lymphaticovenous anastomosis - LVA) for refractory cases.

SECTION 13: VIVA ON CLINICAL FINDINGS INTEGRATION

Q48. A 45-year-old woman presents with a 4 cm lump in the upper outer quadrant of left breast, with skin dimpling, mobile axillary nodes (2 nodes, 2 cm). What is your clinical TNM and how do you manage her? A.
  • Clinical staging: T2 (>2-5 cm) N1 (movable ipsilateral axillary nodes) M0 = Stage IIA-IIB
  • Triple assessment: Clinical + mammogram ± USG + CNB with IHC
  • Staging CT + bone scan (T2N1 - may be done to confirm M0)
  • Based on IHC: Molecular subtype guides systemic therapy
  • Surgery: MRM (mastectomy + Level I/II ALND) OR BCS (WLE + SLNB/ALND if SLNB+) depending on tumour-to-breast ratio and patient preference
  • Adjuvant: Chemotherapy (AC-T regimen), ± trastuzumab (if HER2+), ± endocrine (if ER+), + radiotherapy (post-BCS always; post-mastectomy if ≥4 nodes or other risk factors)
Q49. What is the management of a young TNBC patient with 4 cm tumour? A.
  • TNBC (ER-/PR-/HER2-): No hormonal or anti-HER2 therapy
  • Preferred approach: Neoadjuvant chemotherapy first (AC-T ± pembrolizumab if PD-L1 positive/high-risk - KEYNOTE-522)
  • Assess response with RECIST
  • If pCR: Surgery (BCS or mastectomy) + radiation; consider adjuvant pembrolizumab
  • If residual disease (non-pCR): Surgery + adjuvant capecitabine (CREATE-X)
  • Test for germline BRCA mutation - if positive: PARP inhibitor option
  • Poor prognosis overall; high risk of visceral/CNS metastasis
Q50. What are the sites of distant metastasis in breast cancer and how does each present? A.
  • Bone (most common - 70%): Osteolytic lesions; spine, pelvis, femur, ribs. Presents with bone pain, pathological fracture, hypercalcaemia, spinal cord compression. Diagnosed with bone scan/CT/MRI.
  • Lung/pleura: Cough, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, pleural effusion
  • Liver: Hepatomegaly, jaundice, raised LFTs, ascites
  • Brain/CNS (especially HER2+ and TNBC): Headache, seizures, focal neurological deficit, visual disturbances. Managed with whole-brain radiotherapy ± SRS ± targeted CNS-penetrant drugs (lapatinib, tucatinib, neratinib)
  • Adrenal, ovary, peritoneum: Especially lobular carcinoma (predilection for unusual sites)

QUICK RECALL SUMMARY TABLE

TopicKey Point
Most common histologyIDC NST - 80%
Most common quadrantUpper outer - 60%
Best prognosis histologyTubular/mucinous carcinoma
Most important prognostic factorAxillary nodal status
pCR definitionNo residual invasive disease in breast + nodes
SLNB tracer (dual)Tc99m colloid + Patent blue dye
ALND complicationLymphoedema, long thoracic nerve (winging scapula), thoracodorsal nerve
BRCA1 chromosome17q
BRCA2 chromosome13q
T4dInflammatory carcinoma
DCIS safe margin2 mm (vs. "no ink on tumour" for invasive)
Non-pCR TNBCAdjuvant capecitabine (CREATE-X)
Non-pCR HER2+T-DM1 (KATHERINE trial)
High-risk ER+ adjuvantAbemaciclib (monarchE)
BRCA+ metastaticOlaparib (OlympiAD)
Paget cells stainCEA+ (vs. melanoma S100+)
Trastuzumab toxicityCardiotoxicity (reversible LV dysfunction)
Nottingham Grade 3Score 8-9; poorly differentiated
ACOSOG Z0011No ALND needed for 1-2 positive SLNs in BCS

Sources: Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery (28th Ed.), Schwartz's Principles of Surgery (11th Ed.), Robbins & Kumar Pathologic Basis of Disease - all via the Medical Textbook Library.
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