Preventive and Social Medicine (PSM / Epidemiology) ​Epidemiology: ​Cohort vs Case-control vs Cross-sectional ​RCTs (Randomized Controlled Trials) ​Sensitivity vs Specificity vs PPV/NPV ​Incidence vs Prevalence ​Levels of prevention ​SEPSE/MEPSE/PE graphs ​Important scientists & discoveries ​Immunization: ​Vaccine types + live/killed vaccines ​National Immunization Schedule ​Rabies vaccine schedule ​HPV strains ​Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) ​Cold chain equipment ​Open vial policy ​Mission Indradhanush ​Maternal & Child Health: ​IMR, MMR, U5MR, NNMR, PNMR (Health Indices) ​Birth weight & MUAC (Mid-Upper Arm Circumference) ​Breastfeeding ​ASHA/ANM visits ​ICDS & Mid-day meal programme ​Anemia Mukt Bharat ​Family Planning & Demography: ​Pearl Index & Couple Protection Rate ​OCPs, IUCDs, Depo ​No-scalpel vasectomy ​Demographic cycle ​TFR, NRR, GRR, GFR ​Population pyramids ​Biostatistics: ​Parametric vs Non-parametric tests ​Mean/Median/Mode ​Statistical errors ​Distribution curves ​Graphs & charts ​Random sampling methods ​Environment & Vectors: ​Mosquito differences (Anopheles/Culex/Aedes) ​Sandfly & Rat flea ​Air pollution index ​Water purification apparatus ​Biomedical waste color coding ​National Health Programmes: ​NTEP / DOTS / Nikshay ​NACP, NVBDCP, NLEP, IDSP, PMJAY ​National health schemes ​Health System & Committees: ​SC vs PHC vs CHC (Sub Center, Primary, Community Health Center) ​Population norms ​Grassroot workers ​Bhore, Mudaliar, Srivastava, Kartar Singh committees ​Communicable Diseases: ​Incubation periods ​ORS ​TB / Leprosy protocols ​Important vectors in India ​Extra High-Yield: ​Disaster management & triage ​Occupational diseases ​Family cycle ​Bioterrorism categories ​Mental health & suicide indicators ​WHO, UNICEF, SDGs

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PSM / Community Medicine - Complete High-Yield Notes

Based on Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine


SECTION 1: EPIDEMIOLOGY

Study Designs Comparison

FeatureCohortCase-ControlCross-Sectional
DirectionForward (prospective)Backward (retrospective)Snapshot (one time)
Starts withExposureDisease (cases + controls)Population sample
Best forIncidence, RR, ARRare diseases, ORPrevalence
MeasureRelative Risk (RR)Odds Ratio (OR)Prevalence ratio
TimeLong, expensiveShort, cheapShort, cheap
Bias riskLoss to follow-upRecall bias, selection biasPrevalence-incidence bias
ExampleFramingham Heart StudyDoll & Hill (smoking-lung cancer)NFHS surveys
Key formulas:
  • Relative Risk (RR) = Incidence in exposed / Incidence in unexposed
  • Odds Ratio (OR) = (a×d) / (b×c) from 2×2 table
  • Attributable Risk (AR) = Incidence exposed - Incidence unexposed
  • Population Attributable Risk % = (Ie - Iu)/Ie × 100
When OR ≈ RR: When disease is rare (<10% prevalence)

Randomized Controlled Trials (RCTs)

  • Gold standard of epidemiological studies
  • Randomization eliminates confounding
  • Blinding: Single (patient), Double (patient+investigator), Triple (+ statistician)
  • Placebo effect controlled by control arm
  • Intention to treat analysis: analyze in group assigned, not treated
  • Per protocol analysis: only those who completed protocol
  • Phase I-IV trials:
    • Phase I: Safety, dose-finding (healthy volunteers, ~20-80)
    • Phase II: Efficacy + safety (patients, ~100-300)
    • Phase III: Large-scale efficacy vs standard (1000s, RCT)
    • Phase IV: Post-marketing surveillance

Sensitivity, Specificity, PPV, NPV

2×2 Table:
Disease +Disease -
Test +a (TP)b (FP)
Test -c (FN)d (TN)
  • Sensitivity = a/(a+c) = TP/(TP+FN) → Detects true positives ("SnNout" - Sensitive test, Negative = rule OUT)
  • Specificity = d/(b+d) = TN/(TN+FP) → Avoids false positives ("SpPin" - Specific test, Positive = rule IN)
  • PPV = a/(a+b) → Increases with higher prevalence
  • NPV = d/(c+d) → Decreases with higher prevalence
  • Likelihood Ratio + = Sensitivity/(1-Specificity)
  • Likelihood Ratio - = (1-Sensitivity)/Specificity
Key points:
  • Sensitivity & Specificity are fixed properties of the test (independent of prevalence)
  • PPV & NPV depend on prevalence of disease
  • Screening tests require high sensitivity (don't miss cases)
  • Confirmatory/diagnostic tests require high specificity (avoid false positives)

Incidence vs Prevalence

IncidencePrevalence
DefinitionNew cases in a time periodAll cases (new + old) at a point/period
DenominatorPopulation at riskTotal population
MeasuresRisk of getting diseaseDisease burden
Affected byDuration of diseaseIncidence + duration
Types-Point prevalence, Period prevalence
Relationship: Prevalence = Incidence × Duration (P ≈ I × D), valid when disease is in equilibrium and prevalence is low (<10%)
Incidence types:
  • Incidence rate (force of morbidity): uses person-years in denominator
  • Attack rate: for outbreaks, epidemic (% affected in defined group)
  • Secondary attack rate: new cases among contacts of primary case

Levels of Prevention

LevelTargetTimingExamples
PrimordialRisk factor emergenceBefore risk factors appearHealth promotion, lifestyle education
PrimaryBefore disease onsetPre-pathogenesis phaseImmunization, health education, chemoprophylaxis
SecondaryEarly diseasePathogenesis (pre-symptomatic)Screening, early diagnosis + treatment
TertiaryEstablished diseaseLate pathogenesisRehabilitation, disability limitation
Park's key principle: Natural history of disease is the basis for levels of prevention.
Modes of intervention (Primary prevention):
  • Health promotion
  • Specific protection (immunization, chemoprophylaxis)

SEPSE / MEPSE / PE Graphs (Epidemic Curves)

  • Common source epidemic (point source): Rapid rise, rapid fall; bell-shaped; incubation period = interval from exposure to peak
  • Propagated (person-to-person): Multiple peaks; successive waves separated by incubation period
  • Mixed epidemic: Features of both
Semi-log graphs: Used to show rates of change over time - a straight line indicates constant rate of change

Important Scientists & Discoveries

ScientistDiscovery/Contribution
John SnowFather of Epidemiology - Broad St. pump, cholera outbreak 1854
Edward JennerSmallpox vaccination (1796)
Louis PasteurGerm theory, vaccines (rabies, anthrax)
Robert KochKoch's postulates, TB bacillus, cholera vibrio
Joseph ListerAntiseptic surgery
William FarrVital statistics, standardized mortality
SemmelweisHand washing, puerperal fever
FlemingPenicillin (1928)
Doll & HillSmoking - lung cancer (1950, case-control)
James LindScurvy - citrus fruits (1747)
GoldbergerPellagra - niacin deficiency

SECTION 2: IMMUNIZATION

Vaccine Types

TypeExamplesKey Features
Live attenuatedBCG, OPV, MMR, Varicella, Yellow fever, Typhoid (oral Ty21a), RotavirusSingle dose often sufficient; lifelong immunity; CI in immunocompromised
Killed/InactivatedIPV (Salk), Hepatitis A, Rabies (PCECV), Pertussis (whole cell), Cholera (killed oral)Multiple doses needed; booster required; safe in immunocompromised
ToxoidTetanus, DiphtheriaModified toxin; long-lasting immunity with boosters
Subunit/RecombinantHepatitis B, HPV, Acellular pertussis (DTaP)Highly purified, safe
PolysaccharideMeningococcal (plain), Pneumococcal (plain), Typhoid (Vi)No T-cell response; not effective <2 years
ConjugateHib, PCV, MenCPolysaccharide + protein carrier; T-cell response; effective in infants
mRNACOVID-19 (Pfizer, Moderna)New platform

National Immunization Schedule (India - UIP)

AgeVaccines
BirthBCG, OPV-0 (birth dose), Hepatitis B (birth dose)
6 weeksOPV-1, Pentavalent-1 (DPT+HepB+Hib), IPV-1, Rotavirus-1, PCV-1
10 weeksOPV-2, Pentavalent-2, IPV-2, Rotavirus-2, PCV-2
14 weeksOPV-3, Pentavalent-3, IPV-3, Rotavirus-3, PCV-3
9-12 monthsMeasles-Rubella (MR-1), JE-1 (endemic districts), Vitamin A (1st dose)
16-24 monthsDPT booster-1, OPV booster, MR-2, JE-2, Vitamin A (2nd dose)
5-6 yearsDPT booster-2
10 yearsTT
16 yearsTT
PregnancyTT-1, TT-2 (or TT booster if previously immunized)
Key additions: PCV (Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine), Rotavirus, IPV - added to UIP in 2014-2017 Td replaces TT in adults in recent NIS updates

Rabies Vaccine Schedule

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP):
  • 3 doses: Days 0, 7, 28
  • Booster: Every 2 years for high-risk groups (veterinarians, lab workers)
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP):
CategoryWound TypeManagement
ITouching/feeding animal, licks on intact skinWash, no vaccine
IINibbling uncovered skin, minor scratches without bleedingWound treatment + vaccine
IIISingle/multiple transdermal bites, contamination of mucosaWound treatment + vaccine + RIG
PEP vaccine schedule (Essen regimen): Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 (5 doses IM) Zagreb (2-1-1) regimen: Days 0 (2 doses in both deltoids), Day 7 (1 dose), Day 21 (1 dose) - 4 doses total RIG (Rabies Immunoglobulin): 20 IU/kg (human) or 40 IU/kg (equine) - infiltrate wound, remainder IM

HPV Strains

  • HPV 16 & 18: Cervical cancer (70% of cases), oropharyngeal cancer, anal cancer
  • HPV 6 & 11: Genital warts (condylomata acuminata), recurrent respiratory papillomatosis
  • Bivalent vaccine (Cervarix): Types 16, 18
  • Quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil): Types 6, 11, 16, 18
  • 9-valent vaccine (Gardasil 9): Types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
  • India's Cervavac: Quadrivalent (domestic HPV vaccine)
  • Schedule: 2 doses if <15 years (0, 6 months); 3 doses if ≥15 years (0, 1-2, 6 months)
  • UIP India: HPV vaccine added for girls 9-14 years in 2023

Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM)

  • Attached to each vaccine vial
  • Contains heat-sensitive material (inner square + outer circle)
  • Reading: If inner square is LIGHTER than outer circle → vaccine usable; if SAME or DARKER → discard
  • Monitors cumulative heat exposure (not cold)
  • VVM does NOT replace cold chain - it only indicates if vaccine has been overheated
  • VVM stages: 1 (usable), 2 (usable), 3 (discard), 4 (discard)

Cold Chain Equipment

Storage PointEquipmentTemperature
National/State storeCold room (walk-in cooler)+2°C to +8°C
Regional/District storeILR (Ice Lined Refrigerator), Deep FreezerILR: +2 to +8°C; DF: -15 to -25°C
PHC/CHCILR, Deep FreezerSame as above
Sub-center/OutreachVaccine Carrier, Cold box+2°C to +8°C
Key equipment:
  • ILR (Ice Lined Refrigerator): Stores vaccines at +2-8°C; used for OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B, BCG
  • Deep Freezer: Stores OPV at -15 to -25°C, makes ice packs
  • Cold box: Transport over long distances, 24-72 hours
  • Vaccine carrier: Field transport, 4 ice packs, 4-6 hours
Freeze-sensitive vaccines (must NOT freeze): DPT, TT, DT, Hepatitis B, Hib, IPV, PCV - these are damaged by freezing Freeze-tolerant (can be stored frozen): OPV, BCG, Measles, MMR, Yellow fever

Open Vial Policy

Allows multi-dose vials to be used in subsequent sessions (not discarded after opening) for:
  • DPT, TT, DT, Hepatitis B, Hib, OPV - if: stored at 2-8°C, cold chain maintained, VVM not reached discard point, not expired, sterile technique used
  • NOT applicable to: BCG (must be used within 4 hours), measles/rubella, JE - single-session use

Mission Indradhanush

  • Launched: December 2014 (full launch)
  • Aim: Achieve >90% full immunization coverage in districts with lowest coverage
  • Target: Children <2 years and pregnant women
  • Intensive Mission Indradhanush (IMI): 2017-2018, IMI 2.0 (2019-2020), IMI 3.0 (2021)
  • Districts targeted: Initially 201 high-risk districts, then expanded
  • 7 vaccines initially: BCG, DPT, OPV, Measles, TT, Hepatitis B + additional vaccines
  • Har Ghar Dastak: Door-to-door mobilization component

SECTION 3: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH

Health Indices (Definitions & Current Values)

IndexDefinitionIndia Value (approx)
IMR (Infant Mortality Rate)Deaths <1 year per 1000 live births~28 (SRS 2020)
NNMR (Neonatal Mortality Rate)Deaths in first 28 days per 1000 live births~20
PNMR (Post-Neonatal MR)Deaths 28 days-1 year per 1000 live birthsIMR - NNMR
U5MR (Under-5 MR)Deaths <5 years per 1000 live births~32 (SRS 2020)
MMR (Maternal Mortality Ratio)Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births~97 (SRS 2018-20)
Perinatal MRStillbirths + deaths <7 days per 1000 total births-
Stillbirth rateFetal deaths ≥28 weeks per 1000 total births-
Causes of IMR: Neonatal causes (70%)- birth asphyxia, prematurity, sepsis; Post-neonatal - diarrhea, pneumonia Best indicator of MCH services: IMR Best indicator of overall community health: Life expectancy at birth

Birth Weight & MUAC

Low Birth Weight (LBW): <2500 g
  • Preterm: <37 weeks gestation
  • SGA (Small for Gestational Age): <10th percentile
  • VLBW: <1500 g; ELBW: <1000 g
Normal birth weight: 2.5-3.5 kg; Mean = 2.9 kg (India), 3.2 kg (Western)
MUAC (Mid-Upper Arm Circumference):
  • Measured at mid-point between olecranon and acromion
  • Children 6-59 months:
    • Green (≥12.5 cm): Normal
    • Yellow (11.5-12.4 cm): MAM (Moderate Acute Malnutrition)
    • Red (<11.5 cm): SAM (Severe Acute Malnutrition)
  • Adults (men): <23 cm = undernutrition
  • Pregnant women: <21 cm = at risk

Breastfeeding

  • Colostrum: First 2-3 days; rich in IgA, proteins, Vitamin A, leukocytes; acts as "first vaccine"
  • Exclusive breastfeeding: Birth to 6 months (no water, no other food)
  • Complementary feeding: Starts at 6 months; breastfeeding continues till 2 years or beyond
  • Benefits: Passive immunity (IgA), bonding, reduces SIDS, reduces childhood obesity, reduces diarrhea/ARI
WHO Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI): "Ten Steps to Successful Breastfeeding" Lactation amenorrhea: 98% effective if <6 months postpartum, exclusive breastfeeding, amenorrheic

ASHA / ANM Visits

ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist):
  • Village level (1 per 1000 population in most areas)
  • Home visits for newborn care: Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 28, 42
  • Facility-based delivery promotion (JSY incentive)
ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife):
  • Sub-center level (1 per 5000 population plain, 3000 hilly)
  • ANC visits schedule: Minimum 4 visits (now recommended minimum 8 by WHO)
    • 1st: <12 weeks (book, weight, BP, Hb, TT)
    • 2nd: 14-26 weeks
    • 3rd: 28-34 weeks
    • 4th: >36 weeks

ICDS & Mid-Day Meal Programme

ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services):
  • Launched: 1975 (October 2, Gandhi Jayanti)
  • Target: Children <6 years, pregnant/lactating mothers, adolescent girls
  • Services (6): Supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral, pre-school education, nutrition/health education
  • Delivered through: Anganwadi centre (1 per 400-800 population)
  • Anganwadi Worker (AWW): 1 per centre
  • Calories given: 500 kcal + 12-15 g protein (children 6 months - 6 years); 600 kcal for severely malnourished
Mid-Day Meal (MDM) / PM POSHAN:
  • Launched: 1995 (National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education)
  • Renamed PM POSHAN in 2021
  • Target: Classes I-VIII in government/government-aided schools
  • Also covers pre-primary (Bal Vatika)
  • Calories: 450 kcal + 12g protein (Classes I-V); 700 kcal + 20g protein (Classes VI-VIII)

Anemia Mukt Bharat

  • Launched: 2018 under POSHAN Abhiyan
  • Target: Reduce anemia prevalence by 3 percentage points per year
  • 6×6×6 strategy:
    • 6 beneficiary groups: Children 6-59 months, 5-9 years, 10-19 years adolescents, pregnant women, lactating mothers, women of reproductive age
    • 6 interventions: Prophylactic iron supplementation, deworming, testing, treating, behavior change communication, addressing non-nutritional causes
    • 6 institutional mechanisms

SECTION 4: FAMILY PLANNING & DEMOGRAPHY

Pearl Index & Couple Protection Rate

Pearl Index = (Number of accidental pregnancies × 1200) / (Total months of exposure)
  • Lower Pearl Index = more effective method
  • Condom: 2-15; OCP: 0.1-3; Copper IUD: 0.6-0.8; Tubectomy: 0.5; Vasectomy: 0.1
Couple Protection Rate (CPR):
  • % of eligible couples (wife 15-44 years) using any contraception
  • India target: 65%+

Contraceptive Methods

OCPs (Oral Contraceptive Pills):
  • Combined OCP: Estrogen + Progestin; mechanism = inhibit ovulation (primarily)
  • Progestin-only pill (POP/Mini-pill): Thickens cervical mucus; used in lactating women
  • Emergency contraception (I-pill): 1.5 mg levonorgestrel within 72 hours (or 2 doses 0.75 mg)
  • Contraindications: DVT history, liver disease, smokers >35 years, migraine with aura, breast cancer
IUCD:
  • Cu-T 380A: 10 years; Copper IUD; highest effectiveness
  • Cu-T 200B: 3 years
  • Multiload 375: 5 years
  • Mirena (LNG-IUS): 5 years; levonorgestrel-releasing
  • Mechanism: Spermicidal (copper ions), prevents implantation
  • Inserted within 48 hours of delivery (interval IUCD) or within 12 minutes of placental expulsion (PPIUCD)
Depo-Provera (DMPA):
  • 150 mg medroxyprogesterone acetate IM every 3 months
  • Mechanism: Inhibits ovulation, thickens cervical mucus
  • Return to fertility delayed 6-12 months after discontinuation

No-Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV)

  • Introduced in India: 1992
  • Technique: Small puncture with special forceps (no scalpel), vas deferens identified and occluded
  • Advantages over conventional: Less bleeding, infection, hematoma; faster recovery
  • Effective after 20 ejaculations or 3 months (semen analysis to confirm azoospermia)
  • Failure rate: 0.1/100 woman-years (Pearl Index 0.1)
  • Not immediately effective - not a method of emergency contraception

Demographic Cycle (Demographic Transition Theory)

StageBirth RateDeath RatePopulation GrowthCountries
Stage I (High stationary)HighHighStable/low growthPre-industrial, primitive
Stage II (Early expanding)HighFallingRapid increaseDeveloping (early)
Stage III (Late expanding)FallingLowStill increasingDeveloping (late)
Stage IV (Low stationary)LowLowStableDeveloped
Stage V (Declining)Very lowSlightly risingNegative growthJapan, Germany
India: Transitioning from Stage II to Stage III

Fertility Rates

RateFormulaIndia Value
GFR (General Fertility Rate)Births per 1000 women aged 15-44/49 years~66
TFR (Total Fertility Rate)Average children per woman in reproductive life~2.0 (NFHS-5)
GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate)Daughters born per woman (ignores mortality)-
NRR (Net Reproduction Rate)Daughters surviving to reproductive age per womanNRR=1 → replacement level
Replacement level TFR: 2.1 (to account for female deficit at birth and childhood mortality) India NRR: Reached ~1 - indicating approaching population stabilization

Population Pyramids

  • Expansive (broad base): High birth rate, high death rate, high growth - developing countries
  • Constrictive (narrow base): Low birth rate, low death rate - developed countries
  • Stationary (columnar): Stable population - Sweden type

SECTION 5: BIOSTATISTICS

Parametric vs Non-Parametric Tests

FeatureParametricNon-Parametric
AssumptionNormal distributionNo distribution assumption
Data typeContinuous (interval/ratio)Ordinal or non-normal
Examplest-test, ANOVA, Pearson's rMann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, Spearman's rho, Chi-square
ComparisonParametricNon-Parametric
2 independent groupsIndependent t-testMann-Whitney U test
2 paired groupsPaired t-testWilcoxon signed-rank
>2 groupsANOVA (one-way)Kruskal-Wallis
CorrelationPearson's rSpearman's rho
Categorical-Chi-square, Fisher's exact

Mean / Median / Mode

  • Mean: Sum/n; affected by outliers; best for symmetric distribution
  • Median: Middle value; not affected by outliers; best for skewed distribution
  • Mode: Most frequent value; can be used for any data type
  • Positively skewed: Mean > Median > Mode (tail on right)
  • Negatively skewed: Mean < Median < Mode (tail on left)
  • Normal distribution: Mean = Median = Mode

Statistical Errors

H₀ TrueH₀ False
Accept H₀Correct (1-α)Type II error (β)
Reject H₀Type I error (α)Correct (Power = 1-β)
  • Type I error (α): False positive; reject null when true; p-value = probability of Type I error
  • Type II error (β): False negative; accept null when false
  • Power (1-β): Usually set at 80% or 90%
  • p-value: Probability of obtaining results as extreme as observed, assuming H₀ is true; typically p<0.05 is significant

Distribution Curves

  • Normal (Gaussian): Bell-shaped, symmetric; Mean±1SD = 68.2%; ±2SD = 95.4%; ±3SD = 99.7%
  • Poisson: For rare events (counts); used for disease incidence in small populations
  • Binomial: For dichotomous outcomes in fixed number of trials
  • Skewed distributions: Positive skew (right tail), Negative skew (left tail)
  • Standard Normal (Z-distribution): Mean=0, SD=1

Graphs & Charts

TypeUse
Bar chartDiscrete/categorical data comparison
HistogramContinuous data frequency distribution
Frequency polygonSame as histogram but as line
Pie chartProportions of a whole
Line graphTrends over time
Scatter plotCorrelation between two variables
Box plotDistribution summary (median, quartiles, outliers)
Epidemic curveDisease cases over time in an outbreak
Lorenz curveIncome inequality

Random Sampling Methods

MethodDescriptionExample
Simple RandomEvery individual has equal chance; lottery/random numbersLottery draw
SystematicEvery kth individual (k = N/n)Every 10th patient in OPD
StratifiedDivide into strata, random sample from eachBy age/sex/district
ClusterDivide into clusters, randomly select clustersVillages as clusters (EPI survey)
MultistageCombination of methods over stagesNFHS methodology
Non-probability sampling: Convenience, Purposive, Snowball, Quota - NOT representative

SECTION 6: ENVIRONMENT & VECTORS

Mosquito Differences

FeatureAnophelesCulexAedes
Resting position45° angle to surfaceParallel to surfaceParallel to surface
EggsSeparate, with floatsRafts (clusters)Separate (dry/wet)
BreedingClean, stagnant/slow-moving waterPolluted water, drainsClean, collected water (tires, pots)
Biting timeDawn/dusk/nightNightDaytime (Aedes aegypti)
DiseaseMalaria, Filariasis (some)Filariasis, JE, West NileDengue, Chikungunya, Zika, Yellow fever
Larval positionParallel to water surfaceHangs at angleHangs at angle
Anopheles for malaria: A. culicifacies (main), A. stephensi (urban), A. fluviatilis, A. minimus, A. dirus (Northeast India) Culex quinquefasciatus: Main vector of Filariasis and Japanese Encephalitis (JE also by C. tritaeniorhynchus in rural areas)

Sandfly & Rat Flea

Sandfly (Phlebotomus):
  • Vector for: Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) - P. argentipes in India; Sandfly fever; Bartonellosis
  • Features: Hairy, small (1-3mm), weak flier, no hum, bites at night
  • Breeding: Moist organic debris (cracks in walls, animal burrows)
  • Control: DDT spraying; insect repellents
Rat Flea (Xenopsylla cheopis):
  • Vector for: Plague (Yersinia pestis), Murine typhus (Rickettsia typhi)
  • Transmission: Flea bite when rat dies and flea seeks new host
  • "Rat flea of rat, flea seeks man when rat dies"
  • Control: Rodent control + residual insecticides

Air Pollution Index

NAQI (National Air Quality Index) - India (6 pollutants monitored):
  • PM2.5, PM10, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃ (and NH₃, Pb)
  • Categories: Good (0-50), Satisfactory (51-100), Moderate (101-200), Poor (201-300), Very Poor (301-400), Severe (401-500)
  • PM2.5 (≤2.5 μm): Penetrates deepest into lungs; most harmful
  • PM10 (≤10 μm): Reaches bronchi
  • Standard: PM2.5 annual mean 40 μg/m³ (India WHO: 5 μg/m³)

Water Purification

MethodNotes
BoilingMost reliable household method; kills all pathogens
ChlorinationMost widely used for municipal supply; 0.5 mg/L residual chlorine at consumer end
Chlorination + CoagulationFor turbid water (alum or potash alum)
Slow sand filterSchmutzdecke (biological film); 99.9% bacterial removal
Rapid sand filterFaster; preceded by coagulation; requires back-washing
Reverse osmosisRemoves all dissolved salts; for desalination
UV radiationNo chemical taste; effective for clear water only
Horrock's apparatus: Field test for chlorine demand; uses tablets Chlorometer / Lovibond comparator: Measures residual chlorine Del Agua kit: Field testing of water quality (portable) Berkfeld/Chamberland filter: Candle filter; removes bacteria not viruses

Biomedical Waste Color Coding (BMW Rules 2016)

ColorContainerWaste
YellowPlastic bag/containerHuman anatomical waste, animal waste, soiled waste (dressing, plaster), liquid waste
RedPlastic bag/containerContaminated waste (tubing, gloves, catheters, disposable items excluding sharps)
White (Translucent)Puncture-proof, leak-proof containerSharps waste (needles, syringes with fixed needles, blades)
BlueCardboard boxes with blue markingGlassware, metallic implants
Treatment:
  • Yellow: Incineration or deep burial
  • Red: Autoclaving/microwaving then shredding → recycling
  • White (sharps): Autoclaving/chemical treatment + shredding/encapsulation
  • Blue: Disinfection + disposal in authorized recycler

SECTION 7: NATIONAL HEALTH PROGRAMMES

NTEP (National TB Elimination Programme) / DOTS

  • Previously RNTCP (Revised National TB Control Programme)
  • Renamed NTEP in 2020; target: TB elimination by 2025 (End TB by 2030 globally)
  • DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment Short-course): Cornerstone of NTEP
Treatment regimens (NTEP):
  • New cases (DS-TB): 2HRZE/4HR (2 months intensive: Isoniazid+Rifampicin+Pyrazinamide+Ethambutol; 4 months continuation: Isoniazid+Rifampicin)
  • Previously treated: DST-guided; empirically 2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE
  • MDR-TB: Longer regimen (Bedaquiline-based)
  • Nikshay: IT platform for TB notification; mandatory for all providers
  • Nikshay Poshan Yojana: Rs. 500/month to TB patient during treatment
DOTS Plus: For MDR-TB management Bedaquiline, Delamanid: New drugs for MDR/XDR-TB

NACP (National AIDS Control Programme)

  • NACP I: 1992-1999; awareness
  • NACP II: 1999-2006; prevention
  • NACP III: 2007-2012; halt & reverse epidemic
  • NACP IV: 2012-2017
  • NACP V: 2021-2025; target 95-95-95 by 2025
    • 95% of PLHIV know status
    • 95% of those diagnosed on ART
    • 95% of those on ART virally suppressed
ICTC (Integrated Counselling and Testing Centre): HIV testing ART centres: Free ART for all PLHIV PPTCT (Prevention of Parent-to-Child Transmission): Option B+ (all pregnant HIV+ women on lifelong ART) Targeted Interventions: For high-risk groups (FSW, MSM, IDU, truckers)

Other National Programmes

ProgrammeKey Points
NVBDCP (National Vector Borne Disease Control)Covers malaria, dengue, chikungunya, JE, filariasis, kala-azar, scrub typhus
NLEP (National Leprosy Eradication Programme)MDT (Multidrug therapy); paucibacillary (6 months), multibacillary (12 months); declared elimination (<1/10,000) in 2005
IDSP (Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme)S (Syndromic), P (Presumptive), L (Laboratory) reporting; weekly epidemiological situation report
PMJAY (Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana)Ayushman Bharat; 5 lakh/year health cover per family; secondary + tertiary care; ~50 crore beneficiaries
NHM (National Health Mission)NRHM + NUHM; umbrella programme; 2013
JSSK (Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram)Free services for pregnant women and sick newborns at public facilities
JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana)Cash incentive for institutional delivery

SECTION 8: HEALTH SYSTEM & COMMITTEES

SC / PHC / CHC Structure

LevelPopulation NormStaffServices
Sub-Centre (SC)Plains: 5000; Hilly/tribal: 30001 ANM + 1 Male Health Worker; 1 additional ANMBasic MCH, first contact care
PHC (Primary Health Centre)Plains: 30,000; Hilly: 20,0001 MO + 14 paramedical staffOPD, MCH, Immunization, 6 beds
CHC (Community Health Centre)120,000 (4 PHCs)4 specialists (physician, surgeon, gynaecologist, paediatrician) + 21 staff30 beds, referral
Sub-District/Taluk Hospital500,000 - 1 million-100 beds
District Hospital1-3 million-200-500 beds
IPHS (Indian Public Health Standards): Standards for each level 3 Tier system: SC → PHC → CHC

Important Committees

CommitteeYearKey Recommendations
Bhore Committee1946"Health Survey & Development Committee"; 3-tier health system; PHC concept; "Social physician"; 1 doctor per 2000 population
Mudaliar Committee1962"Health Survey & Planning Committee"; Strengthening PHCs; quality over quantity; recommended upgradation of PHCs
Srivastava Committee1975"Group on Medical Education & Support Manpower"; Introduced Community Health Worker (CHW); basis for ASHA
Kartar Singh Committee1974Multipurpose Health Workers; merged male/female workers under MPW scheme; basis of sub-centre structure
Chadha Committee1963Malaria eradication
Bajaj Committee1986Health manpower; doctor-patient ratio
Shrivastava (HLEG)2011Universal Health Coverage recommendations

SECTION 9: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES

Incubation Periods (High-Yield)

DiseaseIncubation Period
Cholera6 hours - 5 days (usually 2-3 days)
Typhoid1-3 weeks (usually 14 days)
Hepatitis A15-50 days (mean 28-30 days)
Hepatitis B45-180 days (mean 60-90 days)
Hepatitis E15-60 days (mean 40 days)
Measles10-14 days
Chickenpox10-21 days (mean 14-16)
Mumps14-21 days (mean 18 days)
Rubella14-21 days (mean 16-18 days)
Diphtheria2-5 days
Pertussis7-10 days
Plague (bubonic)2-7 days
Rabies2-8 weeks (can be 1 year+)
Malaria (P. falciparum)9-14 days
Malaria (P. vivax)12-17 days (or longer - relapse)
Dengue3-14 days (usually 4-7)
COVID-192-14 days (mean 5-6 days)
Leprosy2-5 years (range 6 months-20 years)

ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)

WHO-ORS (Reduced osmolarity, 2002):
  • NaCl: 2.6 g/L
  • Sodium citrate: 2.9 g/L
  • KCl: 1.5 g/L
  • Glucose (anhydrous): 13.5 g/L
  • Total osmolarity: 245 mOsm/L (reduced from old 311 mOsm/L)
  • Na: 75 mEq/L; K: 20 mEq/L; Cl: 65 mEq/L; Citrate: 10 mEq/L; Glucose: 75 mmol/L
Home-made ORS: 1 litre water + 6 tsp sugar + ½ tsp salt

TB Protocols

  • Mantoux test: 5 TU of PPD; read at 48-72 hours; ≥10 mm induration = positive (≥5 mm in HIV/immunocompromised)
  • CBNAAT/GeneXpert: Rapid molecular test; detects MTB + rifampicin resistance in 2 hours; preferred initial test
  • TrueNat: Indigenous rapid molecular test; equivalent to GeneXpert
  • LPA (Line Probe Assay): Detects INH + RIF resistance; for MDR-TB diagnosis
  • Sputum smear AFB: ZN staining; rapid but less sensitive (needs 10,000 bacilli/mL)

Leprosy Protocols

Classification:
  • PB (Paucibacillary): 1-5 skin lesions; smear negative; tuberculoid/BT
  • MB (Multibacillary): >5 skin lesions; smear positive; lepromatous/BL/LL
MDT Regimens (WHO):
  • PB: Dapsone 100 mg daily (self-administered) + Rifampicin 600 mg monthly (supervised) - 6 months
  • MB: Dapsone 100 mg daily + Clofazimine 50 mg daily (self-administered) + Rifampicin 600 mg + Clofazimine 300 mg monthly (supervised) - 12 months
Lepromin test (Mitsuda reaction): Read at 28 days; not diagnostic but indicates immune response

Important Vectors in India

DiseaseVector
MalariaAnopheles mosquito (A. culicifacies main)
Dengue, Chikungunya, ZikaAedes aegypti (primary), A. albopictus
Filariasis (lymphatic)Culex quinquefasciatus
Japanese EncephalitisCulex tritaeniorhynchus (rural), C. vishnui complex
Kala-azar (Leishmaniasis)Phlebotomus argentipes (sandfly)
PlagueXenopsylla cheopis (rat flea)
Scrub typhusLeptotrombidium mite (chigger)
Murine typhusXenopsylla cheopis (rat flea)
Epidemic typhusPediculus humanus corporis (body louse)
Relapsing feverBorrelia - louse-borne (Pediculus) or tick-borne (Ornithodoros)
Lyme diseaseIxodes tick
RMSFDermacentor tick (Rickettsia rickettsii)
Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD)Haemaphysalis spinigera tick

SECTION 10: EXTRA HIGH-YIELD TOPICS

Disaster Management & Triage

PICE cycle: Preparedness → Incident → Crisis → Emergency (or P-R-R-R: Preparedness, Response, Relief, Recovery)
START Triage (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment):
  • Black (Expectant): Deceased or non-survivable injuries
  • Red (Immediate): Life-threatening, survivable with immediate treatment
  • Yellow (Delayed): Serious but not immediately life-threatening
  • Green (Minimal): "Walking wounded"; minor injuries
SALT Triage: Sort → Assess → Lifesaving interventions → Treatment/Transport

Occupational Diseases

Occupation/ExposureDisease
Silica dust (miners, quarry)Silicosis (most common pneumoconiosis)
Coal dust (coal miners)Coal worker's pneumoconiosis (CWP)
Asbestos (shipbuilding, insulation)Asbestosis + mesothelioma + lung cancer
Cotton dust (textile)Byssinosis ("Monday fever")
Bagasse (sugarcane fiber)Bagassosis
Mushroom growingMushroom worker's lung
Bird feathersBird fancier's lung
BenzeneAplastic anemia, leukemia
Vinyl chlorideAngiosarcoma of liver
Isocyanates (TDI)Occupational asthma
LeadLead poisoning (Burton's line, anemia)
MercuryMinamata disease
CadmiumItai-itai disease
Fluoride (endemic)Fluorosis (dental + skeletal)
Noise (>85 dB, 8 hrs/day)NIHL (Noise-induced hearing loss)

Family Cycle (Family Life Cycle)

Stages by Duvall:
  1. Couple (married, no children)
  2. Childbearing (oldest child 0-30 months)
  3. Pre-school age family
  4. School-age family
  5. Family with teenagers
  6. Launching family (first to last child leaving)
  7. Middle-age family (empty nest)
  8. Aging family (retirement to death)

Bioterrorism Categories (CDC)

Category A (Highest priority - easily disseminated, high mortality):
  • Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
  • Smallpox (Variola virus)
  • Plague (Yersinia pestis)
  • Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
  • Botulism (Clostridium botulinum toxin)
  • Viral hemorrhagic fevers (Ebola, Marburg)
Category B: Moderate dissemination (Brucellosis, Typhus fever, Ricin toxin, Q fever) Category C: Emerging pathogens (Nipah, Hantavirus)

Mental Health & Suicide Indicators

  • NMHP (National Mental Health Programme): Launched 1982
  • DMHP (District Mental Health Programme): Started 1996, Bellary
  • Mental Healthcare Act 2017: Right to mental healthcare; advance directive; right to confidentiality
  • Suicide rate (India): ~12/100,000 (NCRB data)
  • Most common method in India: Hanging; then self-poisoning (pesticides)
  • Durkheim's classification: Egoistic, Altruistic, Anomic, Fatalistic
  • Prevention: ASSIST tool (Alcohol, Smoking and Substance Involvement Screening Test); SAFE-T protocol

WHO, UNICEF, SDGs

WHO:
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
  • Founded: April 7, 1948 (World Health Day)
  • "Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, not merely absence of disease or infirmity" - WHO 1948
UNICEF:
  • United Nations Children's Emergency Fund; NY headquarters
  • Works on child survival, development, protection
SDGs (Sustainable Development Goals):
  • 17 goals adopted 2015, target year 2030 (replaced MDGs)
  • SDG 3: "Good Health and Well-being" - most directly health-related
    • 3.1: Reduce MMR to <70/100,000
    • 3.2: End preventable deaths of U5 and neonates
    • 3.3: End AIDS, TB, malaria, NTDs
    • 3.4: Reduce NCDs by 1/3
    • 3.8: Universal Health Coverage (UHC)
  • SDG 1: No poverty; SDG 2: Zero hunger; SDG 6: Clean water
NHSRC, NIHFW, NCDC: National institutes under MoHFW India

QUICK REVISION: MOST TESTED ONE-LINERS

  1. Gold standard for studying rare diseases: Case-control study
  2. Gold standard for causation: RCT
  3. Measure in cohort study: Relative Risk (RR)
  4. Measure in case-control: Odds Ratio (OR)
  5. Sensitivity test: Rule OUT disease (SnNout)
  6. Specificity test: Rule IN disease (SpPin)
  7. P = I × D: Prevalence = Incidence × Duration
  8. Live vaccines: BCG, OPV, MMR, Varicella, Yellow fever
  9. Don't freeze: DPT, TT, Hepatitis B, Hib, IPV, PCV
  10. VVM: Inner square lighter than outer = usable; same/darker = discard
  11. ICDS launched: 1975, Oct 2
  12. Exclusive breastfeeding: 6 months
  13. Pearl index - best method: Vasectomy (0.1)
  14. NRR = 1: Replacement level fertility
  15. John Snow: Father of Epidemiology; Broad Street pump cholera 1854
  16. Bhore Committee: PHC concept introduced
  17. Kartar Singh Committee: MPW scheme, basis of sub-centre
  18. Srivastava Committee: Community Health Worker → basis of ASHA
  19. CHC serves: 120,000 population; 30 beds; 4 specialists
  20. Kala-azar vector: Phlebotomus argentipes (sandfly)
  21. Plague vector: Xenopsylla cheopis (rat flea)
  22. ORS osmolarity (reduced): 245 mOsm/L
  23. Leprosy elimination year in India: 2005 (<1/10,000 population)
  24. NTEP target: TB elimination by 2025
  25. NACP V target: 95-95-95 by 2025
  26. HPV 16+18: 70% cervical cancers
  27. HPV 6+11: Genital warts
  28. No-scalpel vasectomy in India: 1992
  29. Silicosis: Most common pneumoconiosis
  30. World Health Day: April 7 (WHO founding day 1948)

Source: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine (23rd Ed.) - available in medical library

This covers every topic in your syllabus. A few notes for exam prep:
  • Most heavily tested areas in NEET-PG/INI-CET/FMGE: Sensitivity/Specificity calculations, Study designs (can you compute RR/OR from a 2×2 table?), Vaccine types (live vs killed), National Immunization Schedule, Health indices (formulas + current India values), and Committee recommendations.
  • Numerical questions typically come from: Pearl Index formula, Sensitivity/Specificity/PPV/NPV from a 2×2 table, NRR/TFR calculations, and Normal distribution SD ranges.
  • Recent updates (2023-2026): HPV vaccine in UIP, NACP V goals, Nikshay Poshan Yojana, PM POSHAN (renamed MDM), IMI 3.0, Ayushman Bharat PMJAY expansion.

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SECTION 1: EPIDEMIOLOGY (Q1-35)

Q1. A researcher follows 500 smokers and 500 non-smokers for 10 years to compare lung cancer rates. This is a:
  • A) Case-control study
  • B) Cross-sectional study
  • C) Cohort study
  • D) Ecological study
Answer: C - Cohort study. Starts with exposure (smoking), follows forward to measure incidence/RR.

Q2. The measure of association calculated in a case-control study is:
  • A) Relative Risk
  • B) Odds Ratio
  • C) Attributable Risk
  • D) Incidence Rate Ratio
Answer: B - Odds Ratio. Case-control studies calculate OR from a 2×2 table (a×d)/(b×c).

Q3. A 2×2 table shows: a=80, b=20, c=40, d=160. The sensitivity of the test is:
  • A) 80%
  • B) 89%
  • C) 67%
  • D) 44%
Answer: A - Sensitivity = a/(a+c) = 80/(80+40) = 80/120 = 67%... Actually: 80/(80+40) = 66.7%. Re-checking: a=80 (TP), c=40 (FN) → 80/120 = 67%Answer: C

Q4. Which study design is BEST for studying rare diseases?
  • A) Cohort study
  • B) Cross-sectional study
  • C) Case-control study
  • D) Ecological study
Answer: C - Case-control is ideal for rare diseases; starts from disease (cases) backward.

Q5. "SnNout" refers to:
  • A) A highly specific test rules out disease when negative
  • B) A highly sensitive test rules out disease when negative
  • C) A highly sensitive test rules in disease when positive
  • D) A highly specific test rules in disease when positive
Answer: B - Sn=Sensitive, N=Negative, out=rules OUT. High sensitivity → negative result rules out disease.

Q6. Prevalence = 200/1000; Incidence = 20/1000/year. The average duration of the disease is:
  • A) 2 years
  • B) 5 years
  • C) 10 years
  • D) 20 years
Answer: C - P = I × D → D = P/I = (200/1000)/(20/1000) = 10 years.

Q7. In a screening programme, which property of a test is most important?
  • A) High specificity
  • B) High PPV
  • C) High sensitivity
  • D) High NPV
Answer: C - Screening requires high sensitivity to not miss any true cases.

Q8. A disease has prevalence of 1% in the population. A test has sensitivity 99% and specificity 99%. The PPV is approximately:
  • A) 99%
  • B) 50%
  • C) 25%
  • D) 75%
Answer: B - With low prevalence (1%), even a 99% specific test gives many false positives; PPV ≈ 50%.

Q9. The gold standard study design for establishing causation is:
  • A) Cohort study
  • B) Case-control study
  • C) Randomized Controlled Trial
  • D) Systematic review
Answer: C - RCT is the gold standard for causation due to randomization eliminating confounding.

Q10. In an RCT, analyzing patients in the group they were assigned to (regardless of what treatment they received) is called:
  • A) Per protocol analysis
  • B) Intention to treat analysis
  • C) On-treatment analysis
  • D) Modified intention to treat
Answer: B - Intention to treat (ITT) analysis maintains randomization integrity.

Q11. Phase III clinical trial involves:
  • A) First-in-human safety testing
  • B) Small efficacy study in patients
  • C) Large-scale comparison with standard treatment
  • D) Post-marketing surveillance
Answer: C - Phase III: large RCT comparing new drug vs standard/placebo; regulatory approval basis.

Q12. The "Father of Epidemiology" is:
  • A) Louis Pasteur
  • B) Robert Koch
  • C) John Snow
  • D) Edward Jenner
Answer: C - John Snow investigated cholera outbreak at Broad Street pump in 1854.

Q13. Attack rate is used in:
  • A) Endemic diseases
  • B) Epidemic/outbreak settings
  • C) Chronic non-communicable diseases
  • D) Occupational diseases
Answer: B - Attack rate = cases/exposed population × 100, used during outbreaks.

Q14. Recall bias is most common in:
  • A) Cohort studies
  • B) RCTs
  • C) Case-control studies
  • D) Ecological studies
Answer: C - Cases recall past exposures differently from controls → recall bias in case-control.

Q15. A point-source epidemic curve shows:
  • A) Multiple peaks separated by incubation period
  • B) Rapid rise and fall with a single peak
  • C) Gradual rise over months
  • D) Plateau for several weeks
Answer: B - Point-source (common source) epidemic: rapid rise, rapid fall, single peak.

Q16. Attributable Risk Percent (AR%) measures:
  • A) Proportion of disease in exposed attributable to the exposure
  • B) Excess risk in total population
  • C) Risk in unexposed population
  • D) Odds ratio minus 1
Answer: A - AR% = (Ie - Iu)/Ie × 100; proportion of disease in exposed due to that exposure.

Q17. Cross-sectional study measures:
  • A) Incidence
  • B) Relative Risk
  • C) Prevalence
  • D) Attributable Risk
Answer: C - Cross-sectional (prevalence survey) measures point/period prevalence.

Q18. In a double-blind RCT, who is blinded?
  • A) Patient only
  • B) Investigator only
  • C) Both patient and investigator
  • D) Patient, investigator, and statistician
Answer: C - Double blind: both patient AND investigator are unaware of treatment allocation.

Q19. Koch's postulates do NOT include:
  • A) Organism found in all cases of disease
  • B) Organism isolated in pure culture
  • C) Organism must be transmitted by a vector
  • D) Inoculation of culture must produce disease in healthy host
Answer: C - Vector transmission is NOT part of Koch's postulates (which are: isolation, pure culture, inoculation, re-isolation).

Q20. Which is a prospective study?
  • A) Case-control
  • B) Cross-sectional
  • C) Ecological
  • D) Cohort
Answer: D - Cohort study follows subjects forward in time (prospective).

Q21. Doll and Hill's landmark study on smoking and lung cancer (1950) was:
  • A) Cohort study
  • B) Case-control study
  • C) Cross-sectional study
  • D) RCT
Answer: B - The 1950 Doll & Hill study was a case-control study.

Q22. The Framingham Heart Study is an example of:
  • A) Case-control study
  • B) Ecological study
  • C) Cohort study
  • D) Cross-sectional study
Answer: C - Framingham is the classic long-term prospective cohort study.

Q23. Which level of evidence is HIGHEST in evidence-based medicine?
  • A) RCT
  • B) Cohort study
  • C) Systematic review with meta-analysis
  • D) Expert opinion
Answer: C - Systematic review + meta-analysis of multiple RCTs is at the top of the evidence hierarchy.

Q24. Specificity of a test is defined as:
  • A) TP/(TP+FN)
  • B) TN/(TN+FP)
  • C) TP/(TP+FP)
  • D) TN/(TN+FN)
Answer: B - Specificity = TN/(TN+FP); ability to correctly identify true negatives.

Q25. Secondary attack rate is used to measure:
  • A) Severity of disease
  • B) Transmissibility/communicability of disease
  • C) Case fatality rate
  • D) Herd immunity
Answer: B - SAR measures how readily disease spreads among susceptible household contacts.

Q26. "Natural history of disease" forms the basis of:
  • A) Koch's postulates
  • B) Levels of prevention
  • C) Herd immunity
  • D) Demographic transition
Answer: B - Levels of prevention (primordial, primary, secondary, tertiary) are based on natural history of disease.

Q27. Primordial prevention targets:
  • A) Early disease detection
  • B) Rehabilitation of disabled
  • C) Prevention of risk factor emergence
  • D) Specific disease protection
Answer: C - Primordial = prevent risk factors from emerging in the first place (e.g., preventing childhood obesity).

Q28. A study shows RR = 1. This means:
  • A) Strong positive association
  • B) No association between exposure and disease
  • C) Negative association
  • D) Strong protective effect
Answer: B - RR=1 means incidence in exposed = incidence in unexposed; no association.

Q29. Herd immunity threshold for measles is approximately:
  • A) 50%
  • B) 70%
  • C) 83-94%
  • D) 40%
Answer: C - Measles has very high R0 (12-18); herd immunity requires ~83-94% immune population.

Q30. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for skewed data is:
  • A) Mean
  • B) Mode
  • C) Median
  • D) Standard deviation
Answer: C - Median is best for skewed distributions as it is not affected by outliers.

Q31. In a positively skewed distribution:
  • A) Mean = Median = Mode
  • B) Mean < Median < Mode
  • C) Mean > Median > Mode
  • D) Mode > Mean > Median
Answer: C - Positive skew (right tail): Mean > Median > Mode.

Q32. Number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated as:
  • A) 1/Relative Risk
  • B) 1/Absolute Risk Reduction
  • C) RR × incidence
  • D) AR%/100
Answer: B - NNT = 1/ARR (Absolute Risk Reduction); lower NNT = more effective treatment.

Q33. Which sampling method is used in EPI (Expanded Programme on Immunization) coverage surveys?
  • A) Simple random sampling
  • B) Systematic sampling
  • C) Cluster sampling
  • D) Stratified sampling
Answer: C - EPI uses 30-cluster sampling; 30 clusters × 7 children = 210 children.

Q34. Confounding in epidemiological studies can be controlled by:
  • A) Increasing sample size
  • B) Randomization (in RCTs) and stratification (in observational)
  • C) Using larger study population
  • D) Extending follow-up period
Answer: B - Randomization (RCT) and stratification/matching/multivariate analysis (observational) control confounding.

Q35. The "iceberg phenomenon" in epidemiology refers to:
  • A) Most disease is diagnosed and treated
  • B) Most disease is undiagnosed/subclinical below the surface
  • C) Disease incidence decreasing over time
  • D) Only severe cases are reported
Answer: B - The visible tip = diagnosed cases; the submerged mass = subclinical/undiagnosed cases.

SECTION 2: BIOSTATISTICS (Q36-55)

Q36. Type I error (alpha) is:
  • A) Accepting a false null hypothesis
  • B) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
  • C) Accepting a true null hypothesis
  • D) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
Answer: B - Type I (alpha) = false positive; rejecting H₀ when it is actually true.

Q37. The p-value of 0.03 means:
  • A) 3% chance the alternative hypothesis is true
  • B) 3% probability of getting these results if null hypothesis is true
  • C) 97% power of the study
  • D) Results are clinically significant
Answer: B - p-value = probability of observing results at least as extreme, assuming H₀ is true.

Q38. Power of a study is:
  • A) 1 - alpha
  • B) 1 - beta
  • C) Alpha + beta
  • D) Beta/alpha
Answer: B - Power = 1 - β (probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis).

Q39. Chi-square test is used for:
  • A) Comparing means of two groups
  • B) Comparing proportions/categorical data
  • C) Correlation between two continuous variables
  • D) Comparing variances
Answer: B - Chi-square tests association between categorical variables (e.g., exposed vs disease: yes/no).

Q40. Student's t-test is used to compare:
  • A) Three or more group means
  • B) Two group means (continuous data, normally distributed)
  • C) Categorical data proportions
  • D) Ranked non-parametric data
Answer: B - t-test compares means of two groups with normally distributed continuous data.

Q41. ANOVA is used when comparing:
  • A) Two proportions
  • B) Two means
  • C) Three or more means simultaneously
  • D) Ordinal data between two groups
Answer: C - Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) compares means across 3+ groups.

Q42. Normal distribution: mean ± 2 SD covers what percentage of observations?
  • A) 68.2%
  • B) 95.4%
  • C) 99.7%
  • D) 50%
Answer: B - Mean ± 1SD = 68.2%; ±2SD = 95.4%; ±3SD = 99.7%.

Q43. Pearson's correlation coefficient (r) ranges from:
  • A) 0 to 1
  • B) -1 to 0
  • C) -1 to +1
  • D) 0 to infinity
Answer: C - r ranges from -1 (perfect negative) to +1 (perfect positive); 0 = no correlation.

Q44. Non-parametric equivalent of the paired t-test is:
  • A) Mann-Whitney U test
  • B) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • C) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • D) Fisher's exact test
Answer: C - Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the non-parametric equivalent of paired t-test.

Q45. A histogram is used for:
  • A) Categorical data
  • B) Continuous data frequency distribution
  • C) Two categorical variables
  • D) Trends over time
Answer: B - Histogram shows frequency distribution of continuous variables (bars touch each other).

Q46. Standard Error of Mean (SEM) is:
  • A) SD × √n
  • B) SD / √n
  • C) Variance / n
  • D) SD²
Answer: B - SEM = SD/√n; measures precision of the sample mean.

Q47. Fisher's exact test is used when:
  • A) Sample size is large
  • B) Expected cell frequency is <5 in a 2×2 table
  • C) Data is continuous and normally distributed
  • D) Comparing 3 or more proportions
Answer: B - Fisher's exact test replaces chi-square when expected frequency in any cell is <5.

Q48. In a box plot, the middle line represents:
  • A) Mean
  • B) Mode
  • C) Median
  • D) 75th percentile
Answer: C - The middle line in a box plot is the median (50th percentile).

Q49. Coefficient of variation (CV) is used to compare:
  • A) Two different measurement scales
  • B) Variability in same units
  • C) Skewness of distributions
  • D) Association between variables
Answer: A - CV = (SD/Mean) × 100; used to compare variability across different scales/units.

Q50. Which graph is used to study correlation between two continuous variables?
  • A) Bar chart
  • B) Pie chart
  • C) Scatter diagram
  • D) Histogram
Answer: C - Scatter diagram (plot) shows relationship between two continuous variables.

Q51. Systematic sampling: population N=1000, sample n=100. Sampling interval k = ?
  • A) 5
  • B) 10
  • C) 100
  • D) 50
Answer: B - k = N/n = 1000/100 = 10; select every 10th individual after a random start.

Q52. The Lorenz curve is used to measure:
  • A) Disease incidence
  • B) Income/wealth inequality
  • C) Sensitivity of a test
  • D) Normal distribution
Answer: B - Lorenz curve shows cumulative distribution of income; further from diagonal = greater inequality (measured by Gini coefficient).

Q53. Stratified random sampling ensures:
  • A) Every possible sample has equal chance of selection
  • B) Proportional representation of all subgroups
  • C) Consecutive patients are selected
  • D) Whole groups are selected as units
Answer: B - Stratified sampling divides population into strata and samples each, ensuring subgroup representation.

Q54. The non-parametric equivalent of ANOVA is:
  • A) Mann-Whitney U test
  • B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
  • C) Kruskal-Wallis test
  • D) Spearman's rho
Answer: C - Kruskal-Wallis = non-parametric equivalent of one-way ANOVA (3+ groups).

Q55. A 95% confidence interval that does NOT include 1.0 for an Odds Ratio indicates:
  • A) No statistical significance
  • B) Result is statistically significant
  • C) Type II error has occurred
  • D) The study has low power
Answer: B - If 95% CI for OR excludes 1.0 (null value), the result is statistically significant at p<0.05.

SECTION 3: IMMUNIZATION & VACCINES (Q56-85)

Q56. BCG vaccine is a:
  • A) Killed vaccine
  • B) Toxoid
  • C) Live attenuated vaccine
  • D) Recombinant subunit vaccine
Answer: C - BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guerin) is a live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis.

Q57. Which of the following vaccines should NOT be given to an immunocompromised child?
  • A) Hepatitis B
  • B) IPV
  • C) MMR
  • D) Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Answer: C - MMR is a live attenuated vaccine; contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals.

Q58. The birth dose vaccines in India's UIP include:
  • A) BCG, OPV-0, Hepatitis B
  • B) BCG, DPT, OPV-0
  • C) BCG, Hepatitis B, IPV
  • D) OPV-0, DPT, Hepatitis B
Answer: A - Birth dose: BCG + OPV-0 + Hepatitis B (birth dose) within 24 hours of birth.

Q59. Pentavalent vaccine contains:
  • A) DPT + HepB + Hib
  • B) DPT + IPV + Hib
  • C) DPT + MMR + Hib
  • D) DPT + HepB + OPV
Answer: A - Pentavalent = DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) + Hepatitis B + Hib (5 antigens).

Q60. In the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM), when should the vaccine be discarded?
  • A) Inner square lighter than outer circle
  • B) Inner square darker than or same color as outer circle
  • C) Outer circle turns white
  • D) Inner square turns blue
Answer: B - Discard when inner square is SAME or DARKER than outer circle (indicates heat damage).

Q61. Which vaccine is freeze-sensitive?
  • A) OPV
  • B) BCG
  • C) Measles
  • D) DPT
Answer: D - DPT (and TT, DT, Hep B, Hib, IPV, PCV) are freeze-sensitive; freezing destroys them.

Q62. The recommended storage temperature for OPV is:
  • A) +2°C to +8°C
  • B) -15°C to -25°C
  • C) Room temperature
  • D) +4°C to +8°C
Answer: B - OPV is stored at -15°C to -25°C (in deep freezer); can be stored at +2-8°C for short term.

Q63. Mission Indradhanush was launched in:
  • A) 2012
  • B) 2014
  • C) 2016
  • D) 2018
Answer: B - Mission Indradhanush launched December 2014 to achieve >90% immunization coverage.

Q64. Open vial policy does NOT apply to:
  • A) DPT
  • B) Hepatitis B
  • C) BCG
  • D) OPV
Answer: C - BCG must be used within 4 hours of reconstitution; open vial policy does not apply.

Q65. HPV strains responsible for genital warts are:
  • A) 16 and 18
  • B) 6 and 11
  • C) 31 and 33
  • D) 16 and 31
Answer: B - HPV 6 and 11 cause genital warts (condylomata acuminata) and recurrent respiratory papillomatosis.

Q66. HPV strains responsible for 70% of cervical cancers are:
  • A) 6 and 11
  • B) 31 and 33
  • C) 16 and 18
  • D) 45 and 52
Answer: C - HPV 16 and 18 cause ~70% of cervical cancers.

Q67. Post-exposure rabies prophylaxis for Category III wound includes:
  • A) Wound wash only
  • B) Wound wash + vaccine
  • C) Wound wash + vaccine + RIG
  • D) RIG only
Answer: C - Category III (deep bite, mucous membrane exposure): wound wash + vaccine + Rabies Immunoglobulin (RIG).

Q68. The Essen regimen for rabies PEP consists of:
  • A) 3 doses on days 0, 7, 28
  • B) 4 doses on days 0, 0, 7, 21
  • C) 5 doses on days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
  • D) 2 doses on days 0 and 28
Answer: C - Essen (5-dose) regimen: Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 - IM injection.

Q69. Ice Lined Refrigerator (ILR) is used to store vaccines at:
  • A) -15°C to -25°C
  • B) +2°C to +8°C
  • C) 0°C to +4°C
  • D) +8°C to +15°C
Answer: B - ILR maintains +2°C to +8°C; used for DPT, TT, Hep B, Measles, BCG (reconstituted).

Q70. Conjugate vaccines (Hib, PCV) differ from plain polysaccharide vaccines because they:
  • A) Cannot be used in children under 5
  • B) Elicit T-cell dependent response and are effective in infants <2 years
  • C) Require only one dose
  • D) Have no booster effect
Answer: B - Conjugate vaccines attach polysaccharide to protein carrier → T-cell response → effective in infants and produce immunological memory.

Q71. The vaccine carrier used at field level maintains cold chain for approximately:
  • A) 24-48 hours
  • B) 4-6 hours
  • C) 12-24 hours
  • D) 72 hours
Answer: B - Vaccine carrier with 4 ice packs maintains cold chain for 4-6 hours at field level.

Q72. Zagreb regimen for rabies PEP consists of:
  • A) 5 doses over 28 days
  • B) 4 doses: 2 on day 0 (one in each deltoid), then day 7 and day 21
  • C) 3 doses on days 0, 7, 21
  • D) 6 doses over 30 days
Answer: B - Zagreb (2-1-1): Day 0 (2 doses in both deltoids), Day 7, Day 21 = 4 doses total.

Q73. Which of the following is a toxoid vaccine?
  • A) BCG
  • B) OPV
  • C) Tetanus
  • D) Hepatitis B
Answer: C - Tetanus toxoid = inactivated toxin; also diphtheria toxoid.

Q74. Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine is given at:
  • A) Birth
  • B) 6 weeks
  • C) 9-12 months (MR-1) and 16-24 months (MR-2)
  • D) 5 years
Answer: C - MR-1 at 9-12 months; MR-2 at 16-24 months in the UIP schedule.

Q75. The cold box can maintain vaccines at appropriate temperature for:
  • A) 4-6 hours
  • B) 12 hours
  • C) 24-72 hours
  • D) 1 week
Answer: C - Cold box maintains temperature for 24-72 hours; used for transport and district-level storage.

Q76. Which is NOT included in the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) of India?
  • A) BCG
  • B) Rotavirus vaccine
  • C) Typhoid conjugate vaccine
  • D) PCV (Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine)
Answer: C - Typhoid conjugate vaccine is not yet universally in UIP (though introduced in some districts). BCG, Rotavirus, PCV are part of UIP.

Q77. JE (Japanese Encephalitis) vaccine in UIP is given to children in:
  • A) All districts of India
  • B) Only endemic districts
  • C) Only Northeast India
  • D) Only urban areas
Answer: B - JE vaccine is given in JE-endemic districts only in India.

Q78. Which vaccine can be given to HIV-positive children?
  • A) OPV (preferably avoid in immunocompromised)
  • B) IPV
  • C) Yellow fever
  • D) Varicella
Answer: B - IPV (inactivated polio vaccine) is safe in HIV+ children. BCG is generally given unless severely immunocompromised. OPV, Yellow fever, and Varicella (live vaccines) should be avoided in severely immunocompromised.

Q79. The number of Anganwadi centres targeted by ICDS is approximately 1 per:
  • A) 200-400 population
  • B) 400-800 population
  • C) 1000-1500 population
  • D) 2000-3000 population
Answer: B - One Anganwadi centre per 400-800 population.

Q80. Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for rabies schedule is:
  • A) Days 0, 3, 7
  • B) Days 0, 7, 28
  • C) Days 0, 14, 28
  • D) Days 0, 7, 14, 28
Answer: B - PrEP rabies: 3 doses on Days 0, 7, 28 (IM or intradermal).

Q81. Dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) is:
  • A) 10 IU/kg
  • B) 20 IU/kg
  • C) 40 IU/kg
  • D) 80 IU/kg
Answer: B - HRIG: 20 IU/kg body weight; infiltrate around wound, remainder IM. (ERIG = 40 IU/kg).

Q82. India's domestic HPV vaccine is:
  • A) Gardasil
  • B) Cervarix
  • C) Cervavac
  • D) Gardasil 9
Answer: C - Cervavac is India's indigenously developed quadrivalent HPV vaccine (by Serum Institute).

Q83. Intensive Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 3.0 was launched in:
  • A) 2017
  • B) 2019
  • C) 2021
  • D) 2023
Answer: C - IMI 3.0 was launched in 2021 to cover COVID-19 pandemic-related missed immunizations.

Q84. The quadrivalent HPV vaccine covers which strains?
  • A) 16, 18 only
  • B) 6, 11, 16, 18
  • C) 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
  • D) 16, 18, 31, 33
Answer: B - Quadrivalent (Gardasil, Cervavac) covers HPV types 6, 11, 16, 18.

Q85. Which of the following vaccines requires reconstitution before use?
  • A) OPV
  • B) Hepatitis B
  • C) BCG
  • D) DPT
Answer: C - BCG requires reconstitution with diluent; must be used within 4 hours after reconstitution.

SECTION 4: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH (Q86-105)

Q86. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is defined as:
  • A) Deaths under 5 years per 1000 live births
  • B) Deaths under 1 year per 1000 live births
  • C) Deaths under 1 year per 1000 total births
  • D) Neonatal deaths per 1000 live births
Answer: B - IMR = deaths in first year of life per 1000 live births.

Q87. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is expressed per:
  • A) 1000 live births
  • B) 10,000 live births
  • C) 100,000 live births
  • D) 1000 total births
Answer: C - MMR = maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. India MMR ~97 (SRS 2018-20).

Q88. The best indicator of MCH (Maternal and Child Health) services is:
  • A) MMR
  • B) IMR
  • C) U5MR
  • D) NRR
Answer: B - IMR is the best single indicator of MCH services and social development.

Q89. Low Birth Weight (LBW) is defined as birth weight:
  • A) <3000 g
  • B) <2500 g
  • C) <2000 g
  • D) <1500 g
Answer: B - LBW = birth weight <2500 g regardless of gestational age.

Q90. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for:
  • A) 3 months
  • B) 4 months
  • C) 6 months
  • D) 12 months
Answer: C - WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of life.

Q91. MUAC (Mid-Upper Arm Circumference) indicating Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) in children 6-59 months is:
  • A) <12.5 cm
  • B) <11.5 cm
  • C) <13.5 cm
  • D) <10.0 cm
Answer: B - SAM (Red zone): MUAC <11.5 cm; MAM (Yellow): 11.5-12.4 cm; Normal (Green): ≥12.5 cm.

Q92. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) was launched on:
  • A) August 15, 1975
  • B) October 2, 1975
  • C) January 26, 1976
  • D) November 14, 1975
Answer: B - ICDS launched October 2, 1975 (Gandhi Jayanti).

Q93. The services NOT provided under ICDS are:
  • A) Supplementary nutrition
  • B) Pre-school education
  • C) Curative medical care
  • D) Immunization
Answer: C - ICDS provides 6 services: supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral, pre-school education, nutrition/health education. Curative care is NOT included.

Q94. Anemia Mukt Bharat was launched under:
  • A) NHM
  • B) POSHAN Abhiyan
  • C) ICDS
  • D) JSY
Answer: B - Anemia Mukt Bharat (2018) is part of POSHAN Abhiyan (National Nutrition Mission).

Q95. Colostrum is rich in all EXCEPT:
  • A) IgA
  • B) Vitamin A
  • C) Lactose
  • D) Leukocytes
Answer: C - Colostrum is rich in IgA, Vitamin A, proteins, and leukocytes. It has LESS fat and lactose compared to mature milk (not enriched in lactose).

Q96. ASHA performs newborn home visits on which days?
  • A) Days 1, 3, 7
  • B) Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 28, 42
  • C) Days 1, 7, 14, 28
  • D) Days 3, 7, 21, 42
Answer: B - ASHA home visits for newborn care: Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 28, 42 (6 visits per HBNC protocol).

Q97. The WHO-recommended minimum number of ANC visits is:
  • A) 4 visits
  • B) 6 visits
  • C) 8 visits
  • D) 3 visits
Answer: C - WHO 2016 recommendations: minimum 8 ANC contacts (previously 4; updated for better outcomes).

Q98. Mid-Day Meal programme was renamed PM POSHAN in:
  • A) 2018
  • B) 2019
  • C) 2021
  • D) 2023
Answer: C - PM POSHAN Shakti Nirman launched in September 2021 (renaming of MDM scheme).

Q99. Neonatal Mortality Rate (NNMR) includes deaths in:
  • A) First 7 days of life
  • B) First 28 days of life
  • C) First 6 weeks of life
  • D) First year of life
Answer: B - NNMR = deaths in first 28 days per 1000 live births. (Early neonatal = first 7 days; late neonatal = 8-28 days.)

Q100. Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) is considered the best indicator of:
  • A) MCH services
  • B) Overall child development and social progress
  • C) Immunization coverage
  • D) Nutritional status
Answer: B - U5MR is the best indicator of overall child development and UNICEF considers it the most important indicator of child well-being.

Q101. Population norm for a Sub-Centre in plain areas is:
  • A) 3000
  • B) 5000
  • C) 10000
  • D) 30000
Answer: B - Sub-Centre: plains = 5000 population; hilly/tribal/difficult = 3000 population.

Q102. Calories provided under ICDS to a normal child (6 months-6 years) are:
  • A) 300 kcal
  • B) 400 kcal
  • C) 500 kcal
  • D) 700 kcal
Answer: C - 500 kcal + 12-15 g protein daily for normal children under ICDS; 600 kcal for severely malnourished.

Q103. Perinatal Mortality Rate includes:
  • A) Deaths in first 28 days only
  • B) Stillbirths (≥28 wks) + deaths in first 7 days
  • C) Deaths from 7-28 days
  • D) All deaths under 1 year
Answer: B - Perinatal MR = (stillbirths ≥28 weeks + early neonatal deaths <7 days) / 1000 total births.

Q104. JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana) incentive is given for:
  • A) Home delivery with skilled attendant
  • B) Institutional delivery
  • C) Breastfeeding initiation
  • D) Full immunization completion
Answer: B - JSY gives cash incentive to women for institutional delivery (higher in LPS - Low Performing States).

Q105. The "critical period" concept in breastfeeding states:
  • A) Breastfeeding must start by 1 hour after birth
  • B) Breastfeeding must start within 4 hours
  • C) Breastfeeding must start within 24 hours
  • D) Any time in first week is acceptable
Answer: A - Early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth is recommended for maximum benefit (colostrum, bonding, prevents neonatal mortality).

SECTION 5: FAMILY PLANNING & DEMOGRAPHY (Q106-125)

Q106. Pearl Index is defined as:
  • A) Pregnancies per 100 woman-years of exposure
  • B) Pregnancies per 1000 woman-months
  • C) Contraceptive failures per 1000 cycles
  • D) Percentage of women becoming pregnant annually
Answer: A - Pearl Index = (Accidental pregnancies × 1200) / Total months of exposure; expressed per 100 woman-years.

Q107. The most effective reversible contraceptive method (lowest Pearl Index) is:
  • A) Male condom
  • B) Copper IUCD
  • C) Combined OCP
  • D) Depo-Provera
Answer: B - Cu-T 380A Pearl Index ~0.6-0.8; Combined OCP ~0.1-3; Condom ~2-15. For reversible methods, IUCD (and LNG-IUS) are most effective.

Q108. Depo-Provera (DMPA) is given:
  • A) Monthly IM injection
  • B) 3-monthly IM injection
  • C) Weekly SC injection
  • D) Bi-annual injection
Answer: B - Depo-Provera 150 mg DMPA given IM every 3 months (13 weeks).

Q109. No-scalpel vasectomy (NSV) was introduced in India in:
  • A) 1985
  • B) 1988
  • C) 1992
  • D) 1995
Answer: C - NSV introduced in India in 1992.

Q110. Total Fertility Rate (TFR) represents:
  • A) Total births in a country per year
  • B) Average number of children per woman over her reproductive lifespan
  • C) Birth rate per 1000 population
  • D) Female births per woman
Answer: B - TFR = average number of children born per woman assuming she lives through reproductive age (15-49).

Q111. Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) = 1 indicates:
  • A) Population is declining
  • B) Population is growing rapidly
  • C) Replacement level fertility (stable population)
  • D) High infant mortality
Answer: C - NRR=1 means each generation replaces itself exactly; population will eventually stabilize.

Q112. India's TFR as per NFHS-5 (2019-21) is approximately:
  • A) 3.4
  • B) 2.7
  • C) 2.0
  • D) 1.6
Answer: C - NFHS-5 TFR for India = 2.0, a decline from 2.2 in NFHS-4.

Q113. Stage II of Demographic Transition is characterized by:
  • A) High birth rate, high death rate
  • B) High birth rate, falling death rate (rapid population growth)
  • C) Falling birth rate, low death rate
  • D) Low birth rate, low death rate
Answer: B - Stage II: High BR + Falling DR = rapid population increase; early developing countries.

Q114. Copper IUD mechanism of action is primarily:
  • A) Prevents ovulation
  • B) Thickens cervical mucus
  • C) Spermicidal effect of copper ions + prevents implantation
  • D) Thinning of endometrium
Answer: C - Copper IUD: copper ions are spermicidal and create hostile uterine environment; also prevents implantation.

Q115. Emergency contraception (I-pill) should be taken within:
  • A) 24 hours
  • B) 48 hours
  • C) 72 hours
  • D) 120 hours
Answer: C - Levonorgestrel emergency contraception: within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse (most effective within 24 hours). Ulipristal acetate works within 120 hours.

Q116. An "expansive" population pyramid (broad base, narrow apex) indicates:
  • A) Aging population with low birth rate
  • B) High birth rate, high death rate, young population
  • C) Stable population
  • D) Declining population
Answer: B - Broad base = high birth rate; rapid narrowing = high childhood mortality + short life expectancy; typical of developing countries.

Q117. General Fertility Rate (GFR) is calculated per:
  • A) 1000 total population
  • B) 1000 women aged 15-44/49
  • C) 1000 married women
  • D) 1000 live births
Answer: B - GFR = live births / mid-year women aged 15-44 (or 49) × 1000.

Q118. Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) differs from NRR in that GRR:
  • A) Includes male births
  • B) Does not account for female mortality in reproductive age
  • C) Uses total births (not female births)
  • D) Is always less than NRR
Answer: B - GRR = female births per woman (ignores mortality); NRR adjusts for mortality = daughters surviving to reproductive age.

Q119. Couple Protection Rate (CPR) target for India is:
  • A) 50%
  • B) 65%
  • C) 75%
  • D) 80%
Answer: B - CPR target: 65% or more of eligible couples using contraception.

Q120. Combined OCP's primary mechanism is:
  • A) Thickening cervical mucus
  • B) Preventing implantation
  • C) Inhibiting ovulation
  • D) Killing sperm
Answer: C - Combined OCP primarily inhibits ovulation (LH/FSH surge suppression); also thickens cervical mucus.

Q121. Contraceptive IUCD Cu-T 380A has a duration of:
  • A) 3 years
  • B) 5 years
  • C) 7 years
  • D) 10 years
Answer: D - Cu-T 380A effective for 10 years; Cu-T 200B for 3 years; Multiload 375 for 5 years.

Q122. PPIUCD means insertion of IUCD:
  • A) Before delivery
  • B) Within 12 minutes of placental expulsion
  • C) 6 weeks postpartum
  • D) 3 months postpartum
Answer: B - PPIUCD (Post-Partum IUCD): inserted within 10-12 minutes of placental delivery.

Q123. The demographic transition theory was proposed by:
  • A) Warren Thompson
  • B) Thomas Malthus
  • C) John Snow
  • D) Frank Notestein
Answer: A/D - Warren Thompson described it; Frank Notestein coined the term "demographic transition." For FMGE, Warren Thompson is the standard answer (proposed the concept in 1929).

Q124. Which method has the HIGHEST Pearl Index (least effective)?
  • A) Tubectomy
  • B) Vasectomy
  • C) Male condom
  • D) Cu-T 380A
Answer: C - Male condom Pearl Index 2-15 (typical use); other options have much lower Pearl Index values.

Q125. Replacement level TFR in a developing country is approximately:
  • A) 1.8
  • B) 2.0
  • C) 2.1
  • D) 2.5
Answer: C - Replacement level TFR ≈ 2.1 (accounts for female birth deficit and childhood mortality; slightly higher in developing countries ~2.3-2.5).

SECTION 6: ENVIRONMENT & VECTORS (Q126-145)

Q126. Anopheles mosquito can be identified by:
  • A) Parallel resting position + raft egg-laying
  • B) 45-degree resting position + single eggs with floats
  • C) Parallel resting position + single eggs
  • D) 45-degree resting position + raft eggs
Answer: B - Anopheles: rests at 45° angle; lays single eggs with lateral floats on water surface.

Q127. The main vector of Kala-azar in India is:
  • A) Anopheles mosquito
  • B) Culex mosquito
  • C) Phlebotomus argentipes (sandfly)
  • D) Xenopsylla cheopis (rat flea)
Answer: C - Phlebotomus argentipes is the vector of Leishmania donovani (Kala-azar/visceral leishmaniasis) in India.

Q128. Japanese Encephalitis in rural India is transmitted by:
  • A) Aedes aegypti
  • B) Culex tritaeniorhynchus
  • C) Anopheles culicifacies
  • D) Phlebotomus papatasi
Answer: B - Culex tritaeniorhynchus is the main rural JE vector; breeds in paddy fields.

Q129. Dengue fever is transmitted by:
  • A) Anopheles stephensi
  • B) Culex quinquefasciatus
  • C) Aedes aegypti
  • D) Phlebotomus argentipes
Answer: C - Aedes aegypti is the primary vector; Aedes albopictus is secondary.

Q130. Plague is transmitted by:
  • A) Anopheles mosquito
  • B) Xenopsylla cheopis (rat flea)
  • C) Ixodes tick
  • D) Pediculus louse
Answer: B - Xenopsylla cheopis (Oriental rat flea) transmits Yersinia pestis (plague).

Q131. Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by:
  • A) Sandfly
  • B) Rat flea
  • C) Haemaphysalis spinigera tick
  • D) Culex mosquito
Answer: C - KFD is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever transmitted by Haemaphysalis spinigera in Karnataka forests.

Q132. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
  • A) Louse
  • B) Tick
  • C) Chigger mite (Leptotrombidium)
  • D) Rat flea
Answer: C - Scrub typhus (Orientia tsutsugamushi) transmitted by larval mites (chiggers) of Leptotrombidium species.

Q133. Biomedical waste of a YELLOW bag should be:
  • A) Autoclaved then recycled
  • B) Incinerated or deep buried
  • C) Sent to authorized recycler
  • D) Shredded and landfilled
Answer: B - Yellow bag: anatomical/human waste → incineration or deep burial (for anatomical parts in remote areas).

Q134. Sharps waste (needles, syringes) should be disposed in a:
  • A) Yellow bag
  • B) Red bag
  • C) White/translucent puncture-proof container
  • D) Blue cardboard box
Answer: C - White (translucent) puncture-proof container for sharps; treated by autoclaving + shredding/encapsulation.

Q135. Residual chlorine in treated water at consumer end should be:
  • A) 0.1 mg/L
  • B) 0.5 mg/L
  • C) 1.0 mg/L
  • D) 2.0 mg/L
Answer: B - WHO and Indian standards: 0.5 mg/L (0.2-0.5 mg/L) residual free chlorine at point of use.

Q136. The "Schmutzdecke" is associated with:
  • A) Rapid sand filtration
  • B) Slow sand filtration
  • C) Reverse osmosis
  • D) Chlorination
Answer: B - Schmutzdecke (German: "dirt cover") = biological layer on slow sand filter; responsible for 99%+ pathogen removal.

Q137. Aedes mosquito breeds in:
  • A) Polluted stagnant water
  • B) Paddy fields and ponds
  • C) Clean collected water (tires, flower pots, coolers)
  • D) Slow-moving streams
Answer: C - Aedes breeds in small, clean, stagnant water collections - domestic containers, tires, drums, tree holes (peridomestic).

Q138. AQI (Air Quality Index) category "Severe" in India corresponds to:
  • A) 201-300
  • B) 301-400
  • C) 401-500
  • D) >500
Answer: C - Severe = AQI 401-500 (highest category in NAQI India).

Q139. Byssinosis is caused by exposure to:
  • A) Silica
  • B) Asbestos
  • C) Cotton dust
  • D) Coal dust
Answer: C - Byssinosis = occupational lung disease from cotton/flax/hemp dust; "Monday fever" (worst on first day back after weekend).

Q140. Filariasis in India is transmitted by:
  • A) Anopheles gambiae
  • B) Culex quinquefasciatus
  • C) Aedes albopictus
  • D) Mansonia mosquito
Answer: B - Culex quinquefasciatus is the main vector of Wuchereria bancrofti (lymphatic filariasis) in India.

Q141. Horrock's apparatus is used for:
  • A) Measuring blood pressure in field
  • B) Determining chlorine demand of water
  • C) Measuring turbidity of water
  • D) Testing for hardness of water
Answer: B - Horrock's apparatus (field kit) determines chlorine demand of water before disinfection.

Q142. Minamata disease is caused by:
  • A) Lead
  • B) Arsenic
  • C) Mercury (methyl mercury)
  • D) Cadmium
Answer: C - Minamata disease (Japan, 1950s): methyl mercury poisoning from industrial effluent.

Q143. Itai-itai disease is associated with:
  • A) Lead
  • B) Mercury
  • C) Cadmium
  • D) Fluoride
Answer: C - Itai-itai ("ouch-ouch") disease: cadmium poisoning → osteoporosis + renal tubular dysfunction.

Q144. The most carcinogenic air pollutant is:
  • A) SO₂
  • B) NO₂
  • C) PM2.5
  • D) Benzopyrene (in PM)
Answer: D - Benzo[a]pyrene (polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon in PM) is the most potent carcinogen in air pollution. PM2.5 carries these carcinogens.

Q145. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by:
  • A) Rat flea
  • B) Tick
  • C) Body louse (Pediculus humanus corporis)
  • D) Mite
Answer: C - Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii) transmitted by the human body louse.

SECTION 7: NATIONAL PROGRAMMES (Q146-165)

Q146. NTEP stands for:
  • A) National Tuberculosis Eradication Programme
  • B) National TB Elimination Programme
  • C) National Treatment and Elimination Programme
  • D) National Tuberculosis Epidemiology Programme
Answer: B - NTEP = National TB Elimination Programme (renamed from RNTCP in 2020); target: TB elimination by 2025.

Q147. DOTS stands for:
  • A) Direct Observation Treatment Short-course
  • B) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course
  • C) Disease Oriented Treatment Strategy
  • D) Daily Oral Treatment Schedule
Answer: B - DOTS = Directly Observed Treatment Short-course; cornerstone of TB control.

Q148. TB treatment for new DS-TB cases (NTEP) is:
  • A) 2HRZ/4HR
  • B) 2HRZE/4HR
  • C) 6HRE
  • D) 2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE
Answer: B - New DS-TB: 2 months Intensive phase (HRZE) + 4 months Continuation phase (HR) = 6 months total.

Q149. Nikshay Poshan Yojana provides:
  • A) Rs. 500/month to TB patient during treatment
  • B) Rs. 1000/month nutrition support
  • C) Free medicines only
  • D) Rs. 2000 one-time payment
Answer: A - Nikshay Poshan Yojana: Rs. 500/month direct benefit transfer to TB patients during treatment for nutritional support.

Q150. NACP V targets for 2025 are (95-95-95):
  • A) 95% diagnosed, 95% on ART, 95% virally suppressed
  • B) 95% treated, 95% cured, 95% followed up
  • C) 95% tested, 95% vaccinated, 95% counseled
  • D) 95% diagnosed, 95% linked to care, 95% retained
Answer: A - 95-95-95: 95% PLHIV know status + 95% of those on ART + 95% of those on ART virally suppressed.

Q151. NVBDCP covers all EXCEPT:
  • A) Malaria
  • B) Dengue
  • C) Tuberculosis
  • D) Kala-azar
Answer: C - NVBDCP covers vector-borne diseases: malaria, dengue, chikungunya, JE, filariasis, kala-azar, scrub typhus. TB is under NTEP.

Q152. Leprosy was declared eliminated from India in:
  • A) 2000
  • B) 2005
  • C) 2010
  • D) 2015
Answer: B - India declared leprosy elimination (prevalence <1/10,000 population) in December 2005.

Q153. MDT for Multibacillary leprosy duration is:
  • A) 6 months
  • B) 9 months
  • C) 12 months
  • D) 18 months
Answer: C - MB leprosy MDT: 12 months (Dapsone + Clofazimine daily + Rifampicin + Clofazimine monthly).

Q154. PMJAY (Ayushman Bharat) provides health cover of:
  • A) Rs. 1 lakh/year
  • B) Rs. 2 lakh/year
  • C) Rs. 5 lakh/year
  • D) Rs. 10 lakh/year
Answer: C - PM Jan Arogya Yojana: Rs. 5 lakh/year per family for secondary and tertiary hospitalization.

Q155. IDSP surveillance reports are categorized as:
  • A) A, B, C forms
  • B) S (Syndromic), P (Presumptive), L (Laboratory) forms
  • C) Level 1, 2, 3 reports
  • D) Primary, secondary, tertiary reports
Answer: B - IDSP uses S-P-L reporting: Syndromic (community/health worker), Presumptive (clinician), Laboratory (confirmed).

Q156. MDT for Paucibacillary leprosy consists of:
  • A) Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine for 12 months
  • B) Rifampicin monthly + Dapsone daily for 6 months
  • C) Dapsone alone for 6 months
  • D) Rifampicin + Clofazimine for 12 months
Answer: B - PB leprosy: Rifampicin 600 mg monthly (supervised) + Dapsone 100 mg daily (self-administered) for 6 months.

Q157. NHM (National Health Mission) was formed by merging:
  • A) NRHM + NUHM
  • B) RNTCP + NACP
  • C) NVBDCP + NLEP
  • D) NHM + NPCB
Answer: A - NHM (2013) = NRHM (National Rural Health Mission, 2005) + NUHM (National Urban Health Mission, 2013).

Q158. JSSK (Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram) provides:
  • A) Cash incentives for delivery
  • B) Free drugs, diagnostics, diet, transport for pregnant women and sick newborns
  • C) Only free medicines
  • D) Insurance coverage
Answer: B - JSSK: free and cashless services (drugs, diagnostics, blood, diet, transport) for pregnant women at public facilities; also for sick newborns up to 30 days.

Q159. Mantoux test is read at:
  • A) 24 hours
  • B) 48-72 hours
  • C) 72-96 hours
  • D) 1 week
Answer: B - Mantoux (tuberculin skin test with 5 TU PPD) is read at 48-72 hours; ≥10 mm induration = positive.

Q160. GeneXpert/CBNAAT can detect rifampicin resistance in:
  • A) 24 hours
  • B) 12 hours
  • C) 2 hours
  • D) 4 hours
Answer: C - GeneXpert MTB/RIF provides results (TB detection + rifampicin resistance) in approximately 2 hours.

Q161. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is deployed at 1 per:
  • A) 500 population
  • B) 1000 population
  • C) 3000 population
  • D) 5000 population
Answer: B - 1 ASHA per 1000 population in most areas; for tribal/hilly areas, 1 per 500 habitation.

Q162. The Directly Observed component of DOTS means the patient is observed taking medicines by:
  • A) Family member only
  • B) Health worker (or community DOT provider)
  • C) Pharmacist
  • D) Any witness
Answer: B - DOT (Directly Observed Therapy): trained health worker or community volunteer watches patient swallow each dose.

Q163. HMIS in NHM context stands for:
  • A) Health Management Information System
  • B) Hospital Monitoring and Inspection System
  • C) Health Ministry Integration System
  • D) Health Manpower Information Survey
Answer: A - HMIS = Health Management Information System; web-based data reporting system under NHM.

Q164. Which national programme introduced the concept of community health workers in India?
  • A) ICDS
  • B) RNTCP
  • C) Srivastava Committee recommendations (basis of CHW → ASHA)
  • D) NHM
Answer: C - Srivastava Committee (1975) recommended Community Health Workers (CHW); this became the basis for ASHA under NHM.

Q165. Bedaquiline is used in:
  • A) Drug-sensitive TB
  • B) MDR-TB / XDR-TB
  • C) Leprosy
  • D) NTM infections
Answer: B - Bedaquiline (diarylquinoline) is a key drug in MDR-TB and XDR-TB regimens; inhibits mycobacterial ATP synthase.

SECTION 8: HEALTH SYSTEM & COMMITTEES (Q166-175)

Q166. Bhore Committee (1946) recommended:
  • A) Multipurpose health workers
  • B) Community health workers
  • C) 3-tier health system and PHC concept
  • D) District mental health programme
Answer: C - Bhore Committee: "social physician" concept, 3-tier health system, PHC-based primary care.

Q167. Kartar Singh Committee (1974) recommended:
  • A) Community health workers
  • B) Multipurpose health workers (MPW) scheme
  • C) District hospitals as referral centres
  • D) Integration of ICDS with health services
Answer: B - Kartar Singh Committee: merged male and female health workers into Multipurpose Workers (MPW); basis of sub-centre structure.

Q168. A Community Health Centre (CHC) serves a population of:
  • A) 30,000
  • B) 80,000
  • C) 1,20,000
  • D) 3,00,000
Answer: C - CHC: 120,000 population (plains); 80,000 (hilly/tribal); has 30 beds and 4 specialists.

Q169. Number of PHCs served by one CHC is:
  • A) 2
  • B) 4
  • C) 6
  • D) 8
Answer: B - 1 CHC covers 4 PHCs (each PHC serves 30,000 = 4 × 30,000 = 1,20,000 for CHC).

Q170. Mudaliar Committee (1962) focused on:
  • A) Introduction of PHC system
  • B) Health survey and development
  • C) Strengthening and upgrading existing PHCs (quality over expansion)
  • D) Community health workers
Answer: C - Mudaliar Committee: recommended consolidating and strengthening existing facilities rather than expanding; quality over quantity.

Q171. IPHS stands for:
  • A) Indian Primary Health System
  • B) Indian Public Health Standards
  • C) Integrated Public Health Services
  • D) Indian Preventive Health Scheme
Answer: B - IPHS = Indian Public Health Standards; sets minimum infrastructure, staff, and equipment norms for each level.

Q172. World Health Day is celebrated on:
  • A) April 7
  • B) March 24
  • C) December 1
  • D) October 10
Answer: A - April 7 = World Health Day (WHO founding date 1948). March 24 = World TB Day; December 1 = World AIDS Day; October 10 = World Mental Health Day.

Q173. Population norm for a Primary Health Centre (PHC) in plain areas is:
  • A) 5,000
  • B) 10,000
  • C) 20,000
  • D) 30,000
Answer: D - PHC serves 30,000 population (plains); 20,000 (hilly/tribal).

Q174. The concept of "Social Physician" was introduced by:
  • A) Mudaliar Committee
  • B) Bhore Committee
  • C) Kartar Singh Committee
  • D) Srivastava Committee
Answer: B - Bhore Committee (1946) introduced the concept of the "social physician" - a doctor who considers social, economic, and environmental factors.

Q175. Srivastava Committee (1975) was set up for:
  • A) Health finance reform
  • B) Medical education and support manpower
  • C) Hospital development
  • D) Tribal health
Answer: B - Srivastava Committee = Group on Medical Education and Support Manpower; recommended CHW (community health workers).

SECTION 9: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES (Q176-190)

Q176. Incubation period of cholera is:
  • A) 1-7 days
  • B) 6 hours - 5 days
  • C) 2-14 days
  • D) 7-21 days
Answer: B - Cholera incubation: 6 hours to 5 days (usually 2-3 days).

Q177. Reduced osmolarity ORS (WHO 2002) has osmolarity of:
  • A) 311 mOsm/L
  • B) 245 mOsm/L
  • C) 200 mOsm/L
  • D) 290 mOsm/L
Answer: B - Reduced-osmolarity ORS: 245 mOsm/L (compared to old standard 311 mOsm/L).

Q178. Hepatitis E is dangerous in:
  • A) Children <5 years
  • B) Elderly males
  • C) Pregnant women (high mortality)
  • D) Immunocompromised patients
Answer: C - Hepatitis E in pregnancy has mortality up to 25% (especially 3rd trimester); hepatitis E fulminant hepatic failure in pregnancy.

Q179. The longest incubation period among the following is:
  • A) Cholera
  • B) Measles
  • C) Leprosy
  • D) Typhoid
Answer: C - Leprosy incubation: 2-5 years (range 6 months to 20 years) - longest of all common infectious diseases.

Q180. Weil-Felix reaction is used for diagnosis of:
  • A) Malaria
  • B) Typhoid
  • C) Rickettsial diseases (typhus)
  • D) Brucellosis
Answer: C - Weil-Felix test: cross-reaction between Rickettsia and Proteus antigens; used for diagnosis of rickettsial infections.

Q181. The vector of Malaria in urban India is:
  • A) Anopheles culicifacies
  • B) Anopheles stephensi
  • C) Anopheles fluviatilis
  • D) Anopheles minimus
Answer: B - Anopheles stephensi is the main urban/periurban malaria vector in India (breeds in water storage tanks, cisterns).

Q182. CBNAAT detects TB and:
  • A) Isoniazid resistance
  • B) Rifampicin resistance
  • C) Pyrazinamide resistance
  • D) Ethambutol resistance
Answer: B - GeneXpert MTB/RIF (CBNAAT) detects M. tuberculosis AND rifampicin resistance simultaneously in ~2 hours.

Q183. ORS sodium content (reduced osmolarity) is:
  • A) 90 mEq/L
  • B) 75 mEq/L
  • C) 60 mEq/L
  • D) 50 mEq/L
Answer: B - Reduced-osmolarity ORS: Na⁺ = 75 mEq/L (reduced from 90 mEq/L in old ORS).

Q184. Paucibacillary leprosy has:
  • A) >5 skin lesions
  • B) 1-5 skin lesions
  • C) >50 skin lesions
  • D) Only nerve involvement
Answer: B - PB leprosy: 1-5 skin lesions; MB leprosy: >5 skin lesions.

Q185. The most common vector of malaria in rural India is:
  • A) Anopheles stephensi
  • B) Anopheles culicifacies
  • C) Anopheles fluviatilis
  • D) Anopheles dirus
Answer: B - Anopheles culicifacies is the main rural malaria vector in India (responsible for ~60-65% of cases).

Q186. Secondary attack rate of chickenpox is approximately:
  • A) 10-20%
  • B) 30-40%
  • C) 70-90%
  • D) 50-60%
Answer: C - Varicella (chickenpox) is highly contagious; SAR ~70-90% in susceptible household contacts.

Q187. Lepromin test is read at:
  • A) 48-72 hours
  • B) 7 days
  • C) 28 days (Mitsuda reaction)
  • D) 14 days
Answer: C - Lepromin test Mitsuda reaction read at 28 days (late reaction; indicates cell-mediated immunity, not diagnostic).

Q188. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by feco-oral route?
  • A) Hepatitis B and C
  • B) Hepatitis A and E
  • C) Hepatitis D only
  • D) Hepatitis B and D
Answer: B - Hepatitis A and E: feco-oral (enteric) transmission. B, C, D: parenteral/blood-borne.

Q189. Category A bioterrorism agent includes all EXCEPT:
  • A) Anthrax
  • B) Smallpox
  • C) Brucellosis
  • D) Plague
Answer: C - Brucellosis is Category B. Category A: Anthrax, Smallpox, Plague, Tularemia, Botulism, VHF.

Q190. DOTS provider in RNTCP/NTEP can be:
  • A) Government health worker only
  • B) Trained community volunteer, health worker, or family member
  • C) Only pharmacist
  • D) Only doctor
Answer: B - Any trained DOTS provider: government/private health worker, community volunteer, or trained family member.

SECTION 10: MIXED HIGH-YIELD (Q191-200)

Q191. SDG Goal directly related to health is:
  • A) SDG 1
  • B) SDG 2
  • C) SDG 3
  • D) SDG 5
Answer: C - SDG 3 = "Good Health and Well-being"; includes targets for MMR, U5MR, HIV, TB, NCD reduction, UHC.

Q192. START triage "Red tag" means:
  • A) Deceased
  • B) Minor injuries, walking wounded
  • C) Life-threatening but survivable with immediate intervention
  • D) Delayed treatment acceptable
Answer: C - Red (Immediate): Life-threatening injuries survivable with immediate care; highest priority.

Q193. Occupational disease caused by vinyl chloride is:
  • A) Mesothelioma
  • B) Angiosarcoma of liver
  • C) Aplastic anemia
  • D) Byssinosis
Answer: B - Vinyl chloride monomer (PVC industry) → angiosarcoma of the liver.

Q194. Noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) occurs at exposure:
  • A) >65 dB for 8 hours/day
  • B) >85 dB for 8 hours/day
  • C) >75 dB for 8 hours/day
  • D) >100 dB for any duration
Answer: B - Permissible noise level: 85 dB(A) for 8 hours/day; NIHL occurs with sustained exposure above this level.

Q195. Durkheim's classification of suicide includes all EXCEPT:
  • A) Egoistic
  • B) Altruistic
  • C) Anomic
  • D) Reactive
Answer: D - Durkheim (1897) classified suicide as: Egoistic, Altruistic, Anomic, and Fatalistic. "Reactive" is not in his classification.

Q196. WHO was founded on:
  • A) January 1, 1945
  • B) April 7, 1948
  • C) October 24, 1945
  • D) March 22, 1946
Answer: B - WHO constitution came into force April 7, 1948 → World Health Day.

Q197. POSHAN Abhiyan (National Nutrition Mission) was launched in:
  • A) 2016
  • B) 2017
  • C) 2018
  • D) 2019
Answer: C - POSHAN Abhiyan launched March 8, 2018 (International Women's Day); target to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anemia, LBW.

Q198. The "6×6×6 strategy" belongs to:
  • A) Mission Indradhanush
  • B) Anemia Mukt Bharat
  • C) ICDS
  • D) NTEP
Answer: B - Anemia Mukt Bharat uses the 6×6×6 strategy: 6 beneficiary groups, 6 interventions, 6 institutional mechanisms.

Q199. Most common method of suicide in India (NCRB data) is:
  • A) Poisoning (pesticides)
  • B) Hanging
  • C) Drowning
  • D) Self-immolation
Answer: B - Hanging is the most common method of suicide in India (~34%) followed by poisoning.

Q200. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) target year is:
  • A) 2025
  • B) 2030
  • C) 2035
  • D) 2020
Answer: B - 17 SDGs adopted September 2015 at UN; target year 2030 (replaced Millennium Development Goals which ended 2015).

Now generating the PDF:
Writing File

~/psm-notes/generate_mcq_pdf.py

from reportlab.lib.pagesizes import A4
from reportlab.lib.styles import getSampleStyleSheet, ParagraphStyle
from reportlab.lib.units import cm
from reportlab.lib.colors import HexColor, black, white
from reportlab.platypus import (SimpleDocTemplate, Paragraph, Spacer,
                                 Table, TableStyle, PageBreak, HRFlowable)
from reportlab.lib.enums import TA_LEFT, TA_CENTER, TA_JUSTIFY
from reportlab.platypus import KeepTogether

# ── colours ──────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
C_DARK   = HexColor("#1a2e4a")   # deep navy
C_MID    = HexColor("#2563eb")   # blue accent
C_LIGHT  = HexColor("#e8f0fe")   # light-blue tint
C_GREEN  = HexColor("#16a34a")   # answer green
C_AMBER  = HexColor("#d97706")   # option amber
C_GRAY   = HexColor("#f1f5f9")   # zebra row
C_BORDER = HexColor("#cbd5e1")   # table border

PAGE_W, PAGE_H = A4
MARGIN = 1.8 * cm

doc = SimpleDocTemplate(
    "/home/daytona/workspace/psm-notes/PSM_200_MCQs_FMGE.pdf",
    pagesize=A4,
    leftMargin=MARGIN, rightMargin=MARGIN,
    topMargin=2*cm, bottomMargin=2*cm,
)

styles = getSampleStyleSheet()

# custom paragraph styles
def make_style(name, parent='Normal', **kw):
    s = ParagraphStyle(name, parent=styles[parent], **kw)
    return s

sTitle    = make_style('sTitle',    fontSize=26, textColor=white,
                        spaceAfter=4, spaceBefore=4,
                        alignment=TA_CENTER, fontName='Helvetica-Bold')
sSub      = make_style('sSub',      fontSize=13, textColor=C_LIGHT,
                        alignment=TA_CENTER, fontName='Helvetica')
sSection  = make_style('sSection',  fontSize=13, textColor=white,
                        spaceBefore=14, spaceAfter=6,
                        fontName='Helvetica-Bold', alignment=TA_LEFT)
sQ        = make_style('sQ',        fontSize=10.5, textColor=C_DARK,
                        spaceBefore=8, spaceAfter=3,
                        fontName='Helvetica-Bold', leading=15)
sOpt      = make_style('sOpt',      fontSize=9.5, textColor=HexColor("#374151"),
                        spaceBefore=1, spaceAfter=1,
                        fontName='Helvetica', leading=13, leftIndent=12)
sAns      = make_style('sAns',      fontSize=9.5, textColor=C_GREEN,
                        spaceBefore=4, spaceAfter=2,
                        fontName='Helvetica-Bold', leftIndent=12)
sExp      = make_style('sExp',      fontSize=9,   textColor=HexColor("#374151"),
                        spaceBefore=0, spaceAfter=6,
                        fontName='Helvetica-Oblique', leftIndent=12, leading=13)
sTip      = make_style('sTip',      fontSize=8.5, textColor=HexColor("#7c3aed"),
                        fontName='Helvetica-Bold')

# ── MCQ data: (question, [options], answer_letter, explanation) ───────────────
MCQ_DATA = [
    # ── SECTION 1: EPIDEMIOLOGY ────────────────────────────────────────────
    ("1. A researcher follows 500 smokers and 500 non-smokers for 10 years to compare lung cancer rates. This is a:",
     ["A) Case-control study","B) Cross-sectional study","C) Cohort study","D) Ecological study"],
     "C","Cohort study: starts with exposure → follows forward → measures incidence/RR."),

    ("2. The measure of association calculated in a case-control study is:",
     ["A) Relative Risk","B) Odds Ratio","C) Attributable Risk","D) Incidence Rate Ratio"],
     "B","OR = (a×d)/(b×c) from a 2×2 table. RR cannot be calculated in case-control studies."),

    ("3. Sensitivity of a test (TP=80, FP=20, FN=40, TN=160) is:",
     ["A) 80%","B) 89%","C) 67%","D) 44%"],
     "C","Sensitivity = TP/(TP+FN) = 80/(80+40) = 80/120 = 66.7% ≈ 67%."),

    ("4. Which study design is BEST for studying rare diseases?",
     ["A) Cohort study","B) Cross-sectional study","C) Case-control study","D) Ecological study"],
     "C","Case-control: starts from disease backward; efficient for rare diseases."),

    ("5. 'SnNout' means:",
     ["A) Specific test, negative = rule out","B) Sensitive test, negative = rule out","C) Sensitive test, positive = rule in","D) Specific test, positive = rule in"],
     "B","Sn=Sensitive; N=Negative; out=rules OUT. High sensitivity → negative result excludes disease."),

    ("6. Prevalence = 200/1000; Incidence = 20/1000/year. Average disease duration is:",
     ["A) 2 years","B) 5 years","C) 10 years","D) 20 years"],
     "C","P = I × D → D = P/I = (200/1000)÷(20/1000) = 10 years."),

    ("7. In a screening programme, the most important property of the test is:",
     ["A) High specificity","B) High PPV","C) High sensitivity","D) High NPV"],
     "C","High sensitivity ensures no true cases are missed (false negatives minimised)."),

    ("8. Disease prevalence 1%, sensitivity 99%, specificity 99%. PPV is approximately:",
     ["A) 99%","B) 50%","C) 25%","D) 75%"],
     "B","With low prevalence, many false positives occur even with 99% specificity → PPV ≈ 50%."),

    ("9. Gold standard study design for establishing causation:",
     ["A) Cohort study","B) Case-control study","C) Randomized Controlled Trial","D) Systematic review"],
     "C","RCT: randomisation eliminates confounding; gold standard for causation."),

    ("10. Analysing patients in the group they were assigned to (regardless of treatment received):",
     ["A) Per protocol analysis","B) Intention to treat analysis","C) On-treatment analysis","D) Modified ITT"],
     "B","ITT preserves randomisation integrity by including all assigned patients."),

    ("11. Phase III clinical trial involves:",
     ["A) First-in-human safety","B) Small efficacy study","C) Large-scale comparison with standard treatment","D) Post-marketing surveillance"],
     "C","Phase III: large RCT vs standard/placebo; basis for regulatory approval."),

    ("12. 'Father of Epidemiology' is:",
     ["A) Louis Pasteur","B) Robert Koch","C) John Snow","D) Edward Jenner"],
     "C","John Snow: Broad Street cholera pump 1854; classic epidemiological investigation."),

    ("13. Attack rate is used in:",
     ["A) Endemic diseases","B) Epidemic/outbreak settings","C) Chronic NCDs","D) Occupational diseases"],
     "B","Attack rate = cases/exposed × 100; used during outbreaks/epidemics."),

    ("14. Recall bias is most common in:",
     ["A) Cohort studies","B) RCTs","C) Case-control studies","D) Ecological studies"],
     "C","Cases recall past exposures differently from controls → recall bias in case-control."),

    ("15. A point-source epidemic curve shows:",
     ["A) Multiple peaks separated by incubation period","B) Rapid rise and fall with a single peak","C) Gradual rise over months","D) Plateau for several weeks"],
     "B","Common-source/point-source: rapid rise → rapid fall; single bell-shaped peak."),

    ("16. Attributable Risk Percent (AR%) measures:",
     ["A) Proportion of disease in exposed attributable to exposure","B) Excess risk in total population","C) Risk in unexposed population","D) Odds ratio minus 1"],
     "A","AR% = (Ie − Iu)/Ie × 100; proportion of disease in exposed due to that specific exposure."),

    ("17. Cross-sectional study measures:",
     ["A) Incidence","B) Relative Risk","C) Prevalence","D) Attributable Risk"],
     "C","Cross-sectional (prevalence survey) measures point or period prevalence."),

    ("18. In a double-blind RCT, who is blinded?",
     ["A) Patient only","B) Investigator only","C) Both patient and investigator","D) Patient, investigator, and statistician"],
     "C","Double-blind: both patient AND investigator are unaware of treatment allocation."),

    ("19. Koch's postulates do NOT include:",
     ["A) Organism found in all cases","B) Organism isolated in pure culture","C) Organism transmitted by a vector","D) Inoculation produces disease in healthy host"],
     "C","Vector transmission is NOT part of Koch's postulates."),

    ("20. Which is a prospective study?",
     ["A) Case-control","B) Cross-sectional","C) Ecological","D) Cohort"],
     "D","Cohort study follows subjects forward in time (prospective direction)."),

    ("21. Doll & Hill's 1950 smoking–lung cancer study was:",
     ["A) Cohort study","B) Case-control study","C) Cross-sectional study","D) RCT"],
     "B","The 1950 Doll & Hill study was a hospital-based case-control study."),

    ("22. Framingham Heart Study is an example of:",
     ["A) Case-control study","B) Ecological study","C) Cohort study","D) Cross-sectional study"],
     "C","Framingham: classic long-term prospective cohort study (started 1948)."),

    ("23. Highest level of evidence in EBM:",
     ["A) RCT","B) Cohort study","C) Systematic review with meta-analysis","D) Expert opinion"],
     "C","Systematic review + meta-analysis of RCTs = apex of evidence pyramid."),

    ("24. Specificity = ?",
     ["A) TP/(TP+FN)","B) TN/(TN+FP)","C) TP/(TP+FP)","D) TN/(TN+FN)"],
     "B","Specificity = TN/(TN+FP); correctly identifies true negatives."),

    ("25. Secondary attack rate measures:",
     ["A) Severity of disease","B) Transmissibility/communicability","C) Case fatality rate","D) Herd immunity"],
     "B","SAR = new cases among susceptible contacts/total susceptible contacts × 100; measures transmissibility."),

    ("26. Natural history of disease is the basis of:",
     ["A) Koch's postulates","B) Levels of prevention","C) Herd immunity","D) Demographic transition"],
     "B","Primordial, primary, secondary, tertiary prevention map onto different phases of natural history."),

    ("27. Primordial prevention targets:",
     ["A) Early disease detection","B) Rehabilitation","C) Prevention of risk factor emergence","D) Specific protection"],
     "C","Primordial = prevent risk factors from ever appearing (e.g., preventing childhood obesity)."),

    ("28. RR = 1 means:",
     ["A) Strong positive association","B) No association","C) Negative association","D) Strong protective effect"],
     "B","RR=1: incidence in exposed = incidence in unexposed; no association exists."),

    ("29. Herd immunity threshold for measles is approximately:",
     ["A) 50%","B) 70%","C) 83–94%","D) 40%"],
     "C","Measles R0=12–18; herd immunity requires 83–94% immune population."),

    ("30. Best measure of central tendency for skewed data:",
     ["A) Mean","B) Mode","C) Median","D) Standard deviation"],
     "C","Median is resistant to outliers; ideal for skewed distributions."),

    ("31. In a positively skewed distribution:",
     ["A) Mean = Median = Mode","B) Mean < Median < Mode","C) Mean > Median > Mode","D) Mode > Mean > Median"],
     "C","Positive skew (right tail): Mean pulled highest → Mean > Median > Mode."),

    ("32. NNT (Number Needed to Treat) = ?",
     ["A) 1/Relative Risk","B) 1/Absolute Risk Reduction","C) RR × incidence","D) AR%/100"],
     "B","NNT = 1/ARR; lower NNT = more effective treatment."),

    ("33. Sampling method used in EPI coverage surveys:",
     ["A) Simple random","B) Systematic","C) Cluster","D) Stratified"],
     "C","EPI 30-cluster sampling: 30 clusters × 7 children = 210 children."),

    ("34. Confounding in observational studies can be controlled by:",
     ["A) Increasing sample size","B) Randomisation and stratification","C) Longer follow-up","D) Larger population"],
     "B","Randomisation (RCT) or stratification/multivariate analysis (observational) controls confounding."),

    ("35. The 'iceberg phenomenon' in epidemiology means:",
     ["A) Most disease is diagnosed","B) Most disease is subclinical/undiagnosed below the surface","C) Incidence decreasing","D) Only severe cases reported"],
     "B","Visible tip = diagnosed cases; submerged mass = subclinical/undetected cases."),

    # ── SECTION 2: BIOSTATISTICS ───────────────────────────────────────────
    ("36. Type I error (alpha) is:",
     ["A) Accepting a false null hypothesis","B) Rejecting a true null hypothesis","C) Accepting a true null hypothesis","D) Rejecting a false null hypothesis"],
     "B","Type I = false positive; incorrectly rejecting H₀ when it is true. α = p-value threshold."),

    ("37. p-value of 0.03 means:",
     ["A) 3% chance alternative hypothesis is true","B) 3% probability of results if H₀ is true","C) 97% power","D) Clinically significant result"],
     "B","p-value = P(data as extreme as observed | H₀ is true); does NOT measure clinical significance."),

    ("38. Power of a study = ?",
     ["A) 1 − alpha","B) 1 − beta","C) Alpha + beta","D) Beta/alpha"],
     "B","Power = 1 − β = probability of correctly detecting a true effect (rejecting false H₀)."),

    ("39. Chi-square test is used for:",
     ["A) Comparing means of two groups","B) Comparing proportions/categorical data","C) Correlation of continuous variables","D) Comparing variances"],
     "B","Chi-square tests association between categorical variables."),

    ("40. Student's t-test compares:",
     ["A) Three or more group means","B) Two group means (normal distribution)","C) Categorical proportions","D) Ranked non-parametric data"],
     "B","t-test: two-group comparison of means; requires normal distribution and continuous data."),

    ("41. ANOVA is used when comparing:",
     ["A) Two proportions","B) Two means","C) Three or more means","D) Ordinal data between two groups"],
     "C","One-way ANOVA compares means across 3+ groups simultaneously."),

    ("42. Normal distribution: Mean ± 2 SD covers:",
     ["A) 68.2%","B) 95.4%","C) 99.7%","D) 50%"],
     "B","±1SD=68.2%, ±2SD=95.4%, ±3SD=99.7% — memorise this triad."),

    ("43. Pearson's correlation coefficient (r) ranges from:",
     ["A) 0 to 1","B) −1 to 0","C) −1 to +1","D) 0 to infinity"],
     "C","r: −1 (perfect negative) to +1 (perfect positive); 0 = no linear correlation."),

    ("44. Non-parametric equivalent of paired t-test:",
     ["A) Mann-Whitney U test","B) Kruskal-Wallis test","C) Wilcoxon signed-rank test","D) Fisher's exact test"],
     "C","Wilcoxon signed-rank = non-parametric paired t-test equivalent."),

    ("45. Histogram is used for:",
     ["A) Categorical data","B) Continuous data frequency distribution","C) Two categorical variables","D) Trends over time"],
     "B","Histogram: continuous variable frequency distribution; bars are contiguous (no gaps)."),

    ("46. Standard Error of Mean (SEM) = ?",
     ["A) SD × √n","B) SD / √n","C) Variance / n","D) SD²"],
     "B","SEM = SD/√n; measures precision of sample mean; smaller SEM = more precise estimate."),

    ("47. Fisher's exact test is used when:",
     ["A) Sample size is large","B) Expected cell frequency <5","C) Continuous normal data","D) Comparing 3+ proportions"],
     "B","Fisher's exact test replaces chi-square when any expected cell frequency is <5."),

    ("48. Middle line in a box plot represents:",
     ["A) Mean","B) Mode","C) Median","D) 75th percentile"],
     "C","Box plot: middle line = median (Q2); box edges = Q1 and Q3; whiskers = range."),

    ("49. Coefficient of Variation (CV) is used to:",
     ["A) Compare variability across different measurement scales","B) Compare variability in same units","C) Measure skewness","D) Measure association"],
     "A","CV = (SD/Mean) × 100; dimensionless; allows comparison across different units/scales."),

    ("50. Graph to study correlation between two continuous variables:",
     ["A) Bar chart","B) Pie chart","C) Scatter diagram","D) Histogram"],
     "C","Scatter diagram (scatter plot) shows relationship between two continuous variables."),

    ("51. Systematic sampling: N=1000, n=100. Sampling interval k = ?",
     ["A) 5","B) 10","C) 100","D) 50"],
     "B","k = N/n = 1000/100 = 10; select every 10th individual after random start."),

    ("52. Lorenz curve measures:",
     ["A) Disease incidence","B) Income/wealth inequality","C) Test sensitivity","D) Normal distribution"],
     "B","Lorenz curve shows cumulative income distribution; Gini coefficient = area between curve and diagonal."),

    ("53. Stratified random sampling ensures:",
     ["A) Every sample has equal chance","B) Proportional representation of all subgroups","C) Consecutive patients selected","D) Whole groups selected as units"],
     "B","Stratified sampling guarantees all subgroups (strata) are proportionally represented."),

    ("54. Non-parametric equivalent of one-way ANOVA:",
     ["A) Mann-Whitney U test","B) Wilcoxon signed-rank test","C) Kruskal-Wallis test","D) Spearman's rho"],
     "C","Kruskal-Wallis = non-parametric ANOVA; compares 3+ independent groups by ranks."),

    ("55. 95% CI for OR that does NOT include 1.0 indicates:",
     ["A) Not statistically significant","B) Statistically significant result","C) Type II error occurred","D) Low study power"],
     "B","OR 95% CI excluding 1.0 (null value) = statistically significant at p<0.05."),

    # ── SECTION 3: IMMUNIZATION ────────────────────────────────────────────
    ("56. BCG vaccine is a:",
     ["A) Killed vaccine","B) Toxoid","C) Live attenuated vaccine","D) Recombinant subunit vaccine"],
     "C","BCG = live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis; protects against severe TB in children."),

    ("57. Which vaccine is CONTRAINDICATED in immunocompromised children?",
     ["A) Hepatitis B","B) IPV","C) MMR","D) PCV"],
     "C","MMR is live attenuated; contraindicated in immunocompromised (risk of vaccine-strain disease)."),

    ("58. Birth dose vaccines in India's UIP:",
     ["A) BCG + OPV-0 + Hepatitis B","B) BCG + DPT + OPV-0","C) BCG + Hep B + IPV","D) OPV-0 + DPT + Hep B"],
     "A","BCG + OPV-0 + Hepatitis B given within 24 hours of birth."),

    ("59. Pentavalent vaccine contains:",
     ["A) DPT + HepB + Hib","B) DPT + IPV + Hib","C) DPT + MMR + Hib","D) DPT + HepB + OPV"],
     "A","Penta = DPT + Hepatitis B + Hib = 5 antigens in one injection."),

    ("60. VVM: when should vaccine be DISCARDED?",
     ["A) Inner square lighter than outer circle","B) Inner square same or darker than outer circle","C) Outer circle turns white","D) Inner square turns blue"],
     "B","Discard when inner square ≥ outer circle darkness; indicates cumulative heat damage."),

    ("61. Freeze-sensitive vaccine among the following:",
     ["A) OPV","B) BCG","C) Measles","D) DPT"],
     "D","DPT, TT, Hep B, Hib, IPV, PCV are freeze-sensitive; freezing destroys them."),

    ("62. Recommended storage temperature for OPV:",
     ["A) +2°C to +8°C","B) −15°C to −25°C","C) Room temperature","D) +4°C to +8°C"],
     "B","OPV stored at −15°C to −25°C in deep freezer at district level."),

    ("63. Mission Indradhanush was launched in:",
     ["A) 2012","B) 2014","C) 2016","D) 2018"],
     "B","Mission Indradhanush launched December 2014; target >90% immunization coverage."),

    ("64. Open vial policy does NOT apply to:",
     ["A) DPT","B) Hepatitis B","C) BCG","D) OPV"],
     "C","BCG must be used within 4 hours of reconstitution; OVP does not apply."),

    ("65. HPV strains responsible for genital warts:",
     ["A) 16 and 18","B) 6 and 11","C) 31 and 33","D) 16 and 31"],
     "B","HPV 6 & 11 → genital warts (condylomata acuminata) and recurrent respiratory papillomatosis."),

    ("66. HPV strains responsible for 70% of cervical cancers:",
     ["A) 6 and 11","B) 31 and 33","C) 16 and 18","D) 45 and 52"],
     "C","HPV 16 & 18 account for approximately 70% of all cervical cancers."),

    ("67. PEP for rabies Category III wound includes:",
     ["A) Wound wash only","B) Wound wash + vaccine","C) Wound wash + vaccine + RIG","D) RIG only"],
     "C","Cat. III (deep bite/mucosal exposure): wound wash + vaccine course + Rabies Immunoglobulin."),

    ("68. Essen regimen for rabies PEP:",
     ["A) Days 0, 7, 28 (3 doses)","B) Days 0, 0, 7, 21 (4 doses)","C) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 (5 doses)","D) Days 0 and 28 (2 doses)"],
     "C","Essen: 5 IM doses on days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28."),

    ("69. Ice Lined Refrigerator (ILR) stores vaccines at:",
     ["A) −15°C to −25°C","B) +2°C to +8°C","C) 0°C to +4°C","D) +8°C to +15°C"],
     "B","ILR: +2°C to +8°C; designed to maintain temperature even during power cuts."),

    ("70. Conjugate vaccines are effective in infants <2 years because they:",
     ["A) Cannot be used in children under 5","B) Elicit T-cell dependent response","C) Require only one dose","D) Have no booster effect"],
     "B","Conjugate vaccines (Hib, PCV) generate T-cell memory → effective in infants; plain polysaccharide vaccines are T-independent and fail in <2 years."),

    ("71. Vaccine carrier maintains cold chain for approximately:",
     ["A) 24–48 hours","B) 4–6 hours","C) 12–24 hours","D) 72 hours"],
     "B","Vaccine carrier with 4 ice packs: 4–6 hours; used for outreach sessions."),

    ("72. Zagreb regimen for rabies PEP:",
     ["A) 5 doses over 28 days","B) 2 doses day 0 (bilateral), then day 7 and day 21","C) 3 doses on days 0, 7, 21","D) 6 doses over 30 days"],
     "B","Zagreb (2-1-1): Day 0 → 2 doses (one each deltoid), Day 7 → 1 dose, Day 21 → 1 dose = 4 total."),

    ("73. Example of a toxoid vaccine:",
     ["A) BCG","B) OPV","C) Tetanus","D) Hepatitis B"],
     "C","Tetanus toxoid = formaldehyde-inactivated tetanus toxin; produces antitoxin immunity."),

    ("74. MR (Measles-Rubella) vaccine is given at:",
     ["A) Birth","B) 6 weeks","C) 9–12 months and 16–24 months","D) 5 years"],
     "C","UIP: MR-1 at 9–12 months; MR-2 at 16–24 months."),

    ("75. Cold box maintains vaccines at temperature for:",
     ["A) 4–6 hours","B) 12 hours","C) 24–72 hours","D) 1 week"],
     "C","Cold box: 24–72 hours; used for transport and district-level storage."),

    ("76. Not included in India's Universal Immunization Programme:",
     ["A) BCG","B) Rotavirus vaccine","C) Typhoid conjugate vaccine","D) PCV"],
     "C","Typhoid conjugate vaccine is not yet universally part of UIP. BCG, Rotavirus, and PCV are."),

    ("77. JE vaccine in UIP is given in:",
     ["A) All districts","B) Only endemic districts","C) Only Northeast India","D) Only urban areas"],
     "B","JE vaccine administered only in Japanese Encephalitis endemic districts."),

    ("78. Vaccine safe in HIV-positive children:",
     ["A) OPV","B) IPV","C) Yellow fever","D) Varicella"],
     "B","IPV (inactivated) is safe in HIV+ children. Live vaccines (OPV, Yellow fever, Varicella) avoided in severe immunocompromise."),

    ("79. One Anganwadi centre per how much population?",
     ["A) 200–400","B) 400–800","C) 1000–1500","D) 2000–3000"],
     "B","One AWC per 400–800 population (urban: 1 per 400; rural/tribal: 1 per 300–800)."),

    ("80. Pre-exposure rabies prophylaxis schedule:",
     ["A) Days 0, 3, 7","B) Days 0, 7, 28","C) Days 0, 14, 28","D) Days 0, 7, 14, 28"],
     "B","PrEP: 3 doses on Days 0, 7, 28 (IM or ID route)."),

    ("81. Dose of Human Rabies Immunoglobulin (HRIG):",
     ["A) 10 IU/kg","B) 20 IU/kg","C) 40 IU/kg","D) 80 IU/kg"],
     "B","HRIG = 20 IU/kg; ERIG (equine) = 40 IU/kg. Infiltrate wound first, rest given IM."),

    ("82. India's indigenous HPV vaccine:",
     ["A) Gardasil","B) Cervarix","C) Cervavac","D) Gardasil 9"],
     "C","Cervavac: quadrivalent (types 6, 11, 16, 18) developed by Serum Institute of India."),

    ("83. Intensive Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 3.0 was launched in:",
     ["A) 2017","B) 2019","C) 2021","D) 2023"],
     "C","IMI 3.0 (2021): focused on COVID pandemic-related immunization catch-up."),

    ("84. Quadrivalent HPV vaccine covers strains:",
     ["A) 16, 18","B) 6, 11, 16, 18","C) 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58","D) 16, 18, 31, 33"],
     "B","Quadrivalent (Gardasil/Cervavac): HPV 6, 11, 16, 18."),

    ("85. Vaccine that requires reconstitution before use:",
     ["A) OPV","B) Hepatitis B","C) BCG","D) DPT"],
     "C","BCG requires reconstitution with provided diluent; must be used within 4 hours."),

    # ── SECTION 4: MCH ─────────────────────────────────────────────────────
    ("86. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is defined as:",
     ["A) Deaths <5 years per 1000 live births","B) Deaths <1 year per 1000 live births","C) Deaths <1 year per 1000 total births","D) Neonatal deaths per 1000 live births"],
     "B","IMR = deaths in first year of life per 1000 live births; best MCH indicator."),

    ("87. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is expressed per:",
     ["A) 1000 live births","B) 10,000 live births","C) 100,000 live births","D) 1000 total births"],
     "C","MMR = maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. India MMR ≈ 97 (SRS 2018–20)."),

    ("88. Best indicator of MCH services:",
     ["A) MMR","B) IMR","C) U5MR","D) NRR"],
     "B","IMR is the single best indicator of MCH services and overall socioeconomic development."),

    ("89. Low Birth Weight (LBW) is defined as:",
     ["A) <3000 g","B) <2500 g","C) <2000 g","D) <1500 g"],
     "B","LBW = birth weight <2500 g regardless of gestational age."),

    ("90. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for:",
     ["A) 3 months","B) 4 months","C) 6 months","D) 12 months"],
     "C","WHO recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months; complementary feeding from 6 months."),

    ("91. MUAC for SAM in children 6–59 months:",
     ["A) <12.5 cm","B) <11.5 cm","C) <13.5 cm","D) <10.0 cm"],
     "B","SAM (Red): MUAC <11.5 cm; MAM (Yellow): 11.5–12.4 cm; Normal (Green): ≥12.5 cm."),

    ("92. ICDS was launched on:",
     ["A) August 15, 1975","B) October 2, 1975","C) January 26, 1976","D) November 14, 1975"],
     "B","ICDS launched October 2, 1975 (Gandhi Jayanti / International Day of Non-Violence)."),

    ("93. Service NOT provided under ICDS:",
     ["A) Supplementary nutrition","B) Pre-school education","C) Curative medical care","D) Immunization"],
     "C","ICDS does NOT provide curative care; it provides 6 services: nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral, pre-school education, NCHE."),

    ("94. Anemia Mukt Bharat was launched under:",
     ["A) NHM","B) POSHAN Abhiyan","C) ICDS","D) JSY"],
     "B","Anemia Mukt Bharat (2018) is a flagship programme under POSHAN Abhiyan (National Nutrition Mission)."),

    ("95. Colostrum is rich in all EXCEPT:",
     ["A) IgA","B) Vitamin A","C) Lactose (relatively less)","D) Leukocytes"],
     "C","Colostrum is rich in IgA, Vit A, protein, and leukocytes. It has LESS fat and lactose than mature milk."),

    ("96. ASHA newborn home visit days:",
     ["A) Days 1, 3, 7","B) Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 28, 42","C) Days 1, 7, 14, 28","D) Days 3, 7, 21, 42"],
     "B","HBNC protocol: ASHA visits on Days 1, 3, 7, 14, 28, 42 — 6 home visits per newborn."),

    ("97. WHO-recommended minimum ANC visits:",
     ["A) 4 visits","B) 6 visits","C) 8 visits","D) 3 visits"],
     "C","WHO 2016 ANC guidelines: minimum 8 contacts (updated from older 4-visit model)."),

    ("98. Mid-Day Meal programme renamed PM POSHAN in:",
     ["A) 2018","B) 2019","C) 2021","D) 2023"],
     "C","PM POSHAN Shakti Nirman launched September 2021, renaming the National MDM scheme."),

    ("99. Neonatal Mortality Rate (NNMR) includes deaths in:",
     ["A) First 7 days","B) First 28 days","C) First 6 weeks","D) First year"],
     "B","NNMR = deaths 0–28 days per 1000 live births. Early neonatal = 0–7 days; late = 8–28 days."),

    ("100. Best indicator of overall child development and social progress:",
     ["A) MMR","B) IMR","C) U5MR","D) NNMR"],
     "C","UNICEF considers U5MR the single most important indicator of child well-being."),

    ("101. Population norm for Sub-Centre in plain areas:",
     ["A) 3000","B) 5000","C) 10,000","D) 30,000"],
     "B","Sub-Centre: 5000 population (plains); 3000 (hilly/tribal)."),

    ("102. Calories provided to a normal child under ICDS (6 months–6 years):",
     ["A) 300 kcal","B) 400 kcal","C) 500 kcal","D) 700 kcal"],
     "C","ICDS: 500 kcal + 12–15 g protein for normal children; 600 kcal for severely malnourished."),

    ("103. Perinatal Mortality Rate includes:",
     ["A) Deaths in first 28 days only","B) Stillbirths (≥28 wks) + deaths in first 7 days","C) Deaths from 7–28 days","D) All deaths under 1 year"],
     "B","Perinatal MR = (stillbirths ≥28 weeks + early neonatal deaths <7 days) / 1000 total births."),

    ("104. JSY incentive is given for:",
     ["A) Home delivery with skilled attendant","B) Institutional delivery","C) Breastfeeding initiation","D) Full immunization completion"],
     "B","JSY: cash incentive for institutional delivery; higher amounts in Low-Performing States."),

    ("105. Early initiation of breastfeeding should occur within:",
     ["A) 1 hour of birth","B) 4 hours","C) 24 hours","D) Any time in first week"],
     "A","WHO: initiate breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth to provide colostrum ('first vaccine')."),

    # ── SECTION 5: FAMILY PLANNING & DEMOGRAPHY ───────────────────────────
    ("106. Pearl Index is expressed as:",
     ["A) Pregnancies per 100 woman-years of exposure","B) Pregnancies per 1000 woman-months","C) Failures per 1000 cycles","D) % women pregnant annually"],
     "A","Pearl Index = (accidental pregnancies × 1200) / total months exposure = pregnancies per 100 woman-years."),

    ("107. Most effective reversible contraceptive (lowest Pearl Index):",
     ["A) Male condom","B) Copper IUCD","C) Combined OCP","D) Depo-Provera"],
     "B","Cu-T 380A PI ~0.6–0.8; among reversible methods, IUCD (and LNG-IUS) are most effective."),

    ("108. Depo-Provera (DMPA) injection frequency:",
     ["A) Monthly","B) 3-monthly","C) Weekly SC","D) Bi-annual"],
     "B","Depo-Provera 150 mg DMPA given IM every 3 months (every 13 weeks)."),

    ("109. No-scalpel vasectomy introduced in India in:",
     ["A) 1985","B) 1988","C) 1992","D) 1995"],
     "C","NSV introduced in India in 1992; technique uses special forceps — no scalpel incision."),

    ("110. TFR represents:",
     ["A) Total births per year","B) Average children born per woman over reproductive lifespan","C) Birth rate per 1000","D) Female births per woman"],
     "B","TFR = average number of children per woman if she lives through age 15–49."),

    ("111. NRR = 1 indicates:",
     ["A) Population declining","B) Rapid growth","C) Replacement level fertility","D) High infant mortality"],
     "C","NRR=1: each woman is replaced by exactly one daughter surviving to reproductive age; population eventually stabilises."),

    ("112. India's TFR as per NFHS-5 (2019–21):",
     ["A) 3.4","B) 2.7","C) 2.0","D) 1.6"],
     "C","NFHS-5: India TFR = 2.0 (declined from 2.2 in NFHS-4)."),

    ("113. Stage II of Demographic Transition:",
     ["A) High BR, high DR","B) High BR, falling DR (rapid growth)","C) Falling BR, low DR","D) Low BR, low DR"],
     "B","Stage II: death rate falls (improved sanitation/medicine) while birth rate stays high → rapid population explosion."),

    ("114. Copper IUD primary mechanism:",
     ["A) Prevents ovulation","B) Thickens cervical mucus","C) Copper ions spermicidal + prevents implantation","D) Thins endometrium"],
     "C","Copper ions are toxic to sperm and prevent fertilisation; also creates hostile uterine environment."),

    ("115. Emergency contraception (levonorgestrel) must be taken within:",
     ["A) 24 hours","B) 48 hours","C) 72 hours","D) 120 hours"],
     "C","Levonorgestrel EC (1.5 mg): within 72 hours; most effective within first 24 hours."),

    ("116. Expansive population pyramid (broad base, narrow apex) indicates:",
     ["A) Aging population, low BR","B) High BR, high DR, young population","C) Stable population","D) Declining population"],
     "B","Broad base: high birth rate; rapid tapering: high childhood mortality; developing-country pattern."),

    ("117. General Fertility Rate (GFR) is calculated per:",
     ["A) 1000 total population","B) 1000 women aged 15–44/49","C) 1000 married women","D) 1000 live births"],
     "B","GFR = live births / mid-year women aged 15–44 (or 49) × 1000."),

    ("118. GRR differs from NRR in that GRR:",
     ["A) Includes male births","B) Does not account for female mortality in reproductive age","C) Uses total births","D) Is always less than NRR"],
     "B","GRR ignores mortality; NRR adjusts for probability that daughters survive to reproductive age."),

    ("119. Couple Protection Rate (CPR) target for India:",
     ["A) 50%","B) 65%","C) 75%","D) 80%"],
     "B","CPR target: ≥65% of eligible couples (wife 15–44 years) using contraception."),

    ("120. Primary mechanism of combined OCP:",
     ["A) Thickening cervical mucus","B) Preventing implantation","C) Inhibiting ovulation","D) Killing sperm"],
     "C","Combined OCP: primarily inhibits LH surge → prevents ovulation."),

    ("121. Cu-T 380A duration of effectiveness:",
     ["A) 3 years","B) 5 years","C) 7 years","D) 10 years"],
     "D","Cu-T 380A: 10 years; Cu-T 200B: 3 years; Multiload 375: 5 years."),

    ("122. PPIUCD = insertion within:",
     ["A) 24 hours before delivery","B) 12 minutes of placental expulsion","C) 6 weeks postpartum","D) 3 months postpartum"],
     "B","PPIUCD: inserted within 10–12 minutes of placental delivery (interval IUCD = 6 weeks postpartum)."),

    ("123. Demographic transition theory was described by:",
     ["A) Warren Thompson","B) Thomas Malthus","C) John Snow","D) Frank Notestein"],
     "A","Warren Thompson described the stages in 1929; Frank Notestein coined 'demographic transition' in 1945."),

    ("124. Method with HIGHEST Pearl Index (least effective):",
     ["A) Tubectomy","B) Vasectomy","C) Male condom","D) Cu-T 380A"],
     "C","Male condom PI 2–15 (typical use); tubectomy ~0.5; vasectomy ~0.1; Cu-T 380A ~0.6."),

    ("125. Replacement level TFR:",
     ["A) 1.8","B) 2.0","C) 2.1","D) 2.5"],
     "C","Replacement TFR ≈ 2.1 globally (slightly higher ~2.3 in high-mortality settings)."),

    # ── SECTION 6: ENVIRONMENT & VECTORS ──────────────────────────────────
    ("126. Anopheles mosquito identification:",
     ["A) Parallel resting + raft eggs","B) 45° resting + single eggs with floats","C) Parallel resting + single eggs","D) 45° resting + raft eggs"],
     "B","Anopheles: 45° resting angle; single eggs with lateral floats; breeds in clean water."),

    ("127. Main vector of Kala-azar in India:",
     ["A) Anopheles mosquito","B) Culex mosquito","C) Phlebotomus argentipes (sandfly)","D) Xenopsylla cheopis"],
     "C","Phlebotomus argentipes transmits Leishmania donovani; endemic in Bihar, Jharkhand, UP, West Bengal."),

    ("128. JE vector in rural India:",
     ["A) Aedes aegypti","B) Culex tritaeniorhynchus","C) Anopheles culicifacies","D) Phlebotomus papatasi"],
     "B","Culex tritaeniorhynchus: main rural JE vector; amplification in pigs + wading birds; breeds in paddy fields."),

    ("129. Dengue fever is transmitted by:",
     ["A) Anopheles stephensi","B) Culex quinquefasciatus","C) Aedes aegypti","D) Phlebotomus argentipes"],
     "C","Aedes aegypti: primary dengue vector; day-biting; breeds in domestic clean water collections."),

    ("130. Plague is transmitted by:",
     ["A) Anopheles mosquito","B) Xenopsylla cheopis","C) Ixodes tick","D) Pediculus louse"],
     "B","Xenopsylla cheopis (Oriental rat flea) transmits Yersinia pestis from dead rats to humans."),

    ("131. Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by:",
     ["A) Sandfly","B) Rat flea","C) Haemaphysalis spinigera tick","D) Culex mosquito"],
     "C","KFD: tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever; vector = Haemaphysalis spinigera; Karnataka forests."),

    ("132. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:",
     ["A) Louse","B) Tick","C) Chigger mite (Leptotrombidium)","D) Rat flea"],
     "C","Scrub typhus (Orientia tsutsugamushi): transmitted by larval Leptotrombidium mites (chiggers)."),

    ("133. Yellow biomedical waste bag treatment:",
     ["A) Autoclave then recycle","B) Incineration or deep burial","C) Authorised recycler","D) Shred and landfill"],
     "B","Yellow: anatomical waste (body parts), soiled items → incineration (or deep burial in remote areas)."),

    ("134. Sharps waste should be in:",
     ["A) Yellow bag","B) Red bag","C) White puncture-proof container","D) Blue cardboard box"],
     "C","White (translucent) puncture-proof container for sharps; autoclaved + shredded/encapsulated."),

    ("135. Residual chlorine at consumer end:",
     ["A) 0.1 mg/L","B) 0.5 mg/L","C) 1.0 mg/L","D) 2.0 mg/L"],
     "B","Free residual chlorine at point of use: 0.5 mg/L (minimum 0.2 mg/L in distribution system)."),

    ("136. 'Schmutzdecke' is associated with:",
     ["A) Rapid sand filtration","B) Slow sand filtration","C) Reverse osmosis","D) Chlorination"],
     "B","Schmutzdecke = biological film on slow sand filter; responsible for superior pathogen removal."),

    ("137. Aedes mosquito breeds in:",
     ["A) Polluted stagnant water","B) Paddy fields and ponds","C) Clean collected water (tyres, pots, coolers)","D) Slow streams"],
     "C","Aedes: peridomestic breeder in small clean-water containers; domestic source reduction is key control."),

    ("138. AQI 'Severe' category in India (NAQI) = ?",
     ["A) 201–300","B) 301–400","C) 401–500","D) >500"],
     "C","India NAQI: Good (0–50), Satisfactory (51–100), Moderate (101–200), Poor (201–300), Very Poor (301–400), Severe (401–500)."),

    ("139. Byssinosis is caused by:",
     ["A) Silica","B) Asbestos","C) Cotton dust","D) Coal dust"],
     "C","Byssinosis: cotton/flax/hemp dust; 'Monday fever'; bronchoconstriction worst after weekend break."),

    ("140. Filariasis vector in India:",
     ["A) Anopheles gambiae","B) Culex quinquefasciatus","C) Aedes albopictus","D) Mansonia mosquito"],
     "B","Culex quinquefasciatus: main vector of Wuchereria bancrofti (lymphatic filariasis) in India."),

    ("141. Horrock's apparatus is used for:",
     ["A) Field blood pressure measurement","B) Determining chlorine demand of water","C) Measuring water turbidity","D) Testing water hardness"],
     "B","Horrock's apparatus: field test for chlorine demand; guides correct chlorine dosing."),

    ("142. Minamata disease is caused by:",
     ["A) Lead","B) Arsenic","C) Methyl mercury","D) Cadmium"],
     "C","Minamata (Japan, 1950s): methyl mercury industrial poisoning → neurological damage."),

    ("143. Itai-itai disease is associated with:",
     ["A) Lead","B) Mercury","C) Cadmium","D) Fluoride"],
     "C","Itai-itai ('ouch-ouch'): cadmium poisoning → osteomalacia, renal tubular dysfunction, fractures."),

    ("144. Most carcinogenic air pollutant component:",
     ["A) SO₂","B) NO₂","C) PM2.5","D) Benzo[a]pyrene (in PM)"],
     "D","Benzo[a]pyrene (PAH adsorbed on PM): potent chemical carcinogen; causes lung cancer."),

    ("145. Epidemic typhus vector:",
     ["A) Rat flea","B) Tick","C) Body louse (Pediculus humanus corporis)","D) Mite"],
     "C","Epidemic typhus (Rickettsia prowazekii): body louse vector; associated with overcrowding and poor hygiene."),

    # ── SECTION 7: NATIONAL PROGRAMMES ────────────────────────────────────
    ("146. NTEP stands for:",
     ["A) National Tuberculosis Eradication Programme","B) National TB Elimination Programme","C) National Treatment and Elimination Programme","D) National TB Epidemiology Programme"],
     "B","NTEP = National TB Elimination Programme; renamed from RNTCP in 2020; target: elimination by 2025."),

    ("147. DOTS stands for:",
     ["A) Direct Observation Treatment Short-course","B) Directly Observed Treatment Short-course","C) Disease Oriented Treatment Strategy","D) Daily Oral Treatment Schedule"],
     "B","DOTS = Directly Observed Treatment Short-course; ensures adherence by watching each dose."),

    ("148. TB treatment for new DS-TB (NTEP):",
     ["A) 2HRZ/4HR","B) 2HRZE/4HR","C) 6HRE","D) 2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE"],
     "B","2-month intensive (HRZE) + 4-month continuation (HR) = 6 months total for new drug-sensitive TB."),

    ("149. Nikshay Poshan Yojana provides:",
     ["A) Rs. 500/month to TB patient during treatment","B) Rs. 1000/month","C) Free medicines only","D) Rs. 2000 one-time"],
     "A","Rs. 500/month DBT to TB patient for nutritional support throughout treatment."),

    ("150. NACP V 95-95-95 targets mean:",
     ["A) 95% diagnosed, 95% on ART, 95% virally suppressed","B) 95% treated, 95% cured, 95% followed up","C) 95% tested, 95% vaccinated, 95% counselled","D) 95% diagnosed, 95% linked, 95% retained"],
     "A","95-95-95: 95% of PLHIV know status; 95% of those on ART; 95% of those virally suppressed."),

    ("151. NVBDCP does NOT cover:",
     ["A) Malaria","B) Dengue","C) Tuberculosis","D) Kala-azar"],
     "C","NVBDCP = National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme; TB is under NTEP separately."),

    ("152. Leprosy eliminated from India in:",
     ["A) 2000","B) 2005","C) 2010","D) 2015"],
     "B","Leprosy elimination (<1/10,000 prevalence) declared in December 2005."),

    ("153. MDT duration for Multibacillary leprosy:",
     ["A) 6 months","B) 9 months","C) 12 months","D) 18 months"],
     "C","MB leprosy: 12 months MDT (Dapsone + Clofazimine daily + Rifampicin + Clofazimine monthly)."),

    ("154. PMJAY (Ayushman Bharat) annual health cover:",
     ["A) Rs. 1 lakh","B) Rs. 2 lakh","C) Rs. 5 lakh","D) Rs. 10 lakh"],
     "C","PM Jan Arogya Yojana: Rs. 5 lakh/year per family for secondary and tertiary care; ~50 crore beneficiaries."),

    ("155. IDSP surveillance forms are:",
     ["A) A, B, C","B) S (Syndromic), P (Presumptive), L (Laboratory)","C) Level 1, 2, 3","D) Primary, secondary, tertiary"],
     "B","IDSP S-P-L reporting: S by community/health worker, P by clinician, L by laboratory."),

    ("156. MDT for Paucibacillary leprosy:",
     ["A) Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine 12 months","B) Rifampicin monthly + Dapsone daily for 6 months","C) Dapsone alone 6 months","D) Rifampicin + Clofazimine 12 months"],
     "B","PB leprosy: Rifampicin 600 mg/month (supervised) + Dapsone 100 mg/day × 6 months."),

    ("157. NHM was formed by merging:",
     ["A) NRHM + NUHM","B) RNTCP + NACP","C) NVBDCP + NLEP","D) NHM + NPCB"],
     "A","NHM (2013) = NRHM (2005, rural) + NUHM (2013, urban)."),

    ("158. JSSK provides:",
     ["A) Cash incentives for delivery","B) Free drugs, diagnostics, diet, transport for pregnant women and sick newborns","C) Insurance only","D) Free medicines only"],
     "B","JSSK: cashless delivery at public facilities; covers drugs, diagnostics, blood, diet, transport, referral."),

    ("159. Mantoux test is read at:",
     ["A) 24 hours","B) 48–72 hours","C) 72–96 hours","D) 1 week"],
     "B","Mantoux (5 TU PPD intradermal): read at 48–72 hours; ≥10 mm induration = positive."),

    ("160. GeneXpert/CBNAAT provides results in:",
     ["A) 24 hours","B) 12 hours","C) 2 hours","D) 4 hours"],
     "C","GeneXpert MTB/RIF: detects TB + rifampicin resistance in approximately 2 hours."),

    ("161. ASHA is deployed at 1 per:",
     ["A) 500 population","B) 1000 population","C) 3000 population","D) 5000 population"],
     "B","1 ASHA per 1000 population in most areas (500 per habitation in difficult terrains)."),

    ("162. DOT in DOTS means:",
     ["A) Family member watching only","B) Trained health worker or community volunteer watching patient swallow each dose","C) Pharmacist-supervised only","D) Doctor-supervised only"],
     "B","Any trained DOT provider (government/private worker, community volunteer, or trained family member)."),

    ("163. HMIS stands for:",
     ["A) Health Management Information System","B) Hospital Monitoring and Inspection System","C) Health Ministry Integration System","D) Health Manpower Information Survey"],
     "A","HMIS: web-based MoHFW data reporting system for tracking NHM indicators."),

    ("164. National programme that introduced community health workers in India:",
     ["A) ICDS","B) RNTCP","C) Srivastava Committee recommendations","D) NHM"],
     "C","Srivastava Committee (1975) recommended CHW scheme → conceptual basis for ASHA under NHM."),

    ("165. Bedaquiline is used in:",
     ["A) Drug-sensitive TB","B) MDR-TB / XDR-TB","C) Leprosy","D) NTM infections"],
     "B","Bedaquiline (diarylquinoline): inhibits mycobacterial ATP synthase; used in MDR/XDR-TB regimens."),

    # ── SECTION 8: HEALTH SYSTEM & COMMITTEES ─────────────────────────────
    ("166. Bhore Committee (1946) recommended:",
     ["A) Multipurpose health workers","B) Community health workers","C) 3-tier health system and PHC concept","D) District mental health programme"],
     "C","Bhore Committee: 'Health Survey & Development Committee'; PHC concept; social physician; 3-tier system."),

    ("167. Kartar Singh Committee (1974) recommended:",
     ["A) Community health workers","B) Multipurpose health workers (MPW) scheme","C) District hospitals as referral centres","D) Integration of ICDS"],
     "B","Kartar Singh: merged male/female health workers into MPW scheme; basis of sub-centre structure."),

    ("168. CHC serves a population of:",
     ["A) 30,000","B) 80,000","C) 1,20,000","D) 3,00,000"],
     "C","CHC: 1,20,000 (plains); 80,000 (hilly/tribal); 30 beds; 4 specialists."),

    ("169. Number of PHCs served by one CHC:",
     ["A) 2","B) 4","C) 6","D) 8"],
     "B","1 CHC covers 4 PHCs (4 × 30,000 = 1,20,000 = CHC population norm)."),

    ("170. Mudaliar Committee (1962) focused on:",
     ["A) Introduction of PHC system","B) Health survey and development","C) Strengthening/upgrading existing PHCs","D) Community health workers"],
     "C","Mudaliar: 'Health Survey & Planning Committee'; recommended quality improvement of existing PHCs."),

    ("171. IPHS stands for:",
     ["A) Indian Primary Health System","B) Indian Public Health Standards","C) Integrated Public Health Services","D) Indian Preventive Health Scheme"],
     "B","IPHS: sets minimum norms for infrastructure, staffing, equipment at each health care level."),

    ("172. World Health Day is on:",
     ["A) April 7","B) March 24","C) December 1","D) October 10"],
     "A","April 7 = World Health Day (WHO founded 1948). March 24 = World TB Day; Dec 1 = World AIDS Day."),

    ("173. Population norm for PHC in plain areas:",
     ["A) 5,000","B) 10,000","C) 20,000","D) 30,000"],
     "D","PHC: 30,000 (plains); 20,000 (hilly/tribal); 6 beds; 1 Medical Officer."),

    ("174. 'Social Physician' concept was introduced by:",
     ["A) Mudaliar Committee","B) Bhore Committee","C) Kartar Singh Committee","D) Srivastava Committee"],
     "B","Bhore Committee (1946) coined the 'social physician' — a doctor who addresses social determinants."),

    ("175. Srivastava Committee (1975) was set up for:",
     ["A) Health finance reform","B) Medical education and support manpower","C) Hospital development","D) Tribal health"],
     "B","Srivastava = 'Group on Medical Education & Support Manpower'; introduced CHW concept."),

    # ── SECTION 9: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES ──────────────────────────────────
    ("176. Incubation period of cholera:",
     ["A) 1–7 days","B) 6 hours – 5 days","C) 2–14 days","D) 7–21 days"],
     "B","Cholera: 6 hours – 5 days (usually 2–3 days); caused by Vibrio cholerae O1/O139."),

    ("177. Reduced-osmolarity ORS (WHO 2002) has osmolarity of:",
     ["A) 311 mOsm/L","B) 245 mOsm/L","C) 200 mOsm/L","D) 290 mOsm/L"],
     "B","Reduced-ORS: 245 mOsm/L; NaCl 2.6 g, KCl 1.5 g, Sodium citrate 2.9 g, Glucose 13.5 g per litre."),

    ("178. Hepatitis E is most dangerous in:",
     ["A) Children <5 years","B) Elderly males","C) Pregnant women","D) Immunocompromised"],
     "C","HEV in pregnancy: mortality up to 25% (3rd trimester); fulminant hepatic failure."),

    ("179. Longest incubation period among:",
     ["A) Cholera","B) Measles","C) Leprosy","D) Typhoid"],
     "C","Leprosy: 2–5 years (range 6 months – 20 years); longest among common infectious diseases."),

    ("180. Weil-Felix reaction diagnoses:",
     ["A) Malaria","B) Typhoid","C) Rickettsial diseases","D) Brucellosis"],
     "C","Weil-Felix: Proteus antigens cross-react with Rickettsia antibodies; used for typhus diagnosis."),

    ("181. Main malaria vector in urban India:",
     ["A) Anopheles culicifacies","B) Anopheles stephensi","C) Anopheles fluviatilis","D) Anopheles minimus"],
     "B","Anopheles stephensi: urban/periurban malaria vector; breeds in water tanks and cisterns."),

    ("182. CBNAAT detects TB and:",
     ["A) Isoniazid resistance","B) Rifampicin resistance","C) Pyrazinamide resistance","D) Ethambutol resistance"],
     "B","GeneXpert MTB/RIF: simultaneously detects Mycobacterium tuberculosis AND rifampicin resistance."),

    ("183. Reduced-ORS sodium content:",
     ["A) 90 mEq/L","B) 75 mEq/L","C) 60 mEq/L","D) 50 mEq/L"],
     "B","Reduced-ORS: Na 75 mEq/L (down from 90), K 20 mEq/L, Cl 65, Citrate 10, Glucose 75 mmol/L."),

    ("184. Paucibacillary leprosy has:",
     ["A) >5 skin lesions","B) 1–5 skin lesions","C) >50 lesions","D) Only nerve involvement"],
     "B","PB: 1–5 skin lesions, smear negative; MB: >5 lesions, smear positive."),

    ("185. Main malaria vector in rural India:",
     ["A) Anopheles stephensi","B) Anopheles culicifacies","C) Anopheles fluviatilis","D) Anopheles dirus"],
     "B","Anopheles culicifacies: responsible for ~60–65% of malaria cases in rural India."),

    ("186. Secondary attack rate of chickenpox in household contacts:",
     ["A) 10–20%","B) 30–40%","C) 70–90%","D) 50–60%"],
     "C","Varicella very highly contagious; household SAR ~70–90% in susceptible individuals."),

    ("187. Lepromin test (Mitsuda reaction) is read at:",
     ["A) 48–72 hours","B) 7 days","C) 28 days","D) 14 days"],
     "C","Mitsuda reaction read at 28 days; indicates cell-mediated immunity — NOT diagnostic of leprosy."),

    ("188. Hepatitis viruses transmitted by feco-oral route:",
     ["A) B and C","B) A and E","C) D only","D) B and D"],
     "B","HAV and HEV: enteric (feco-oral) transmission. HBV, HCV, HDV: parenteral/blood-borne."),

    ("189. Category A bioterrorism agent — which is NOT included?",
     ["A) Anthrax","B) Smallpox","C) Brucellosis","D) Plague"],
     "C","Brucellosis = Category B. Category A: Anthrax, Smallpox, Plague, Tularemia, Botulism, VHFs."),

    ("190. DOT provider in NTEP can be:",
     ["A) Government health worker only","B) Trained health worker, community volunteer, or trained family member","C) Pharmacist only","D) Doctor only"],
     "B","Any trained DOT provider; government/private health worker, community volunteer, or trained family member."),

    # ── SECTION 10: MIXED HIGH-YIELD ──────────────────────────────────────
    ("191. SDG Goal directly related to health:",
     ["A) SDG 1","B) SDG 2","C) SDG 3","D) SDG 5"],
     "C","SDG 3 = 'Good Health and Well-being'; includes MMR, U5MR, HIV, TB, NCD, UHC targets."),

    ("192. START triage 'Red tag' means:",
     ["A) Deceased","B) Minor injuries","C) Life-threatening but survivable with immediate intervention","D) Delayed treatment acceptable"],
     "C","Red = Immediate; life-threatening injuries that are survivable with prompt intervention."),

    ("193. Occupational disease caused by vinyl chloride:",
     ["A) Mesothelioma","B) Angiosarcoma of liver","C) Aplastic anaemia","D) Byssinosis"],
     "B","Vinyl chloride monomer (PVC manufacturing) → angiosarcoma of the liver."),

    ("194. Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL) threshold:",
     ["A) >65 dB for 8 hours/day","B) >85 dB for 8 hours/day","C) >75 dB for 8 hours/day","D) >100 dB for any duration"],
     "B","Permissible occupational noise: 85 dB(A) for 8 hours; NIHL occurs above this with sustained exposure."),

    ("195. Durkheim's suicide classification does NOT include:",
     ["A) Egoistic","B) Altruistic","C) Anomic","D) Reactive"],
     "D","Durkheim: Egoistic, Altruistic, Anomic, Fatalistic. 'Reactive' is not in his classification."),

    ("196. WHO was founded on:",
     ["A) January 1, 1945","B) April 7, 1948","C) October 24, 1945","D) March 22, 1946"],
     "B","WHO Constitution came into force April 7, 1948 → celebrated as World Health Day annually."),

    ("197. POSHAN Abhiyan (National Nutrition Mission) launched in:",
     ["A) 2016","B) 2017","C) 2018","D) 2019"],
     "C","POSHAN Abhiyan launched March 8, 2018; target: reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia, LBW."),

    ("198. '6×6×6 strategy' belongs to:",
     ["A) Mission Indradhanush","B) Anemia Mukt Bharat","C) ICDS","D) NTEP"],
     "B","Anemia Mukt Bharat 6×6×6: 6 beneficiary groups × 6 interventions × 6 institutional mechanisms."),

    ("199. Most common method of suicide in India (NCRB):",
     ["A) Poisoning (pesticides)","B) Hanging","C) Drowning","D) Self-immolation"],
     "B","Hanging is the most common suicide method in India (~34%); followed by self-poisoning."),

    ("200. SDG target year:",
     ["A) 2025","B) 2030","C) 2035","D) 2020"],
     "B","17 SDGs adopted September 2015; target year 2030 (replaced MDGs which ended 2015)."),
]

# section headings: (question_number_start, title, colour)
SECTIONS = [
    (1,   "SECTION 1: EPIDEMIOLOGY",             C_DARK),
    (36,  "SECTION 2: BIOSTATISTICS",             HexColor("#1e3a5f")),
    (56,  "SECTION 3: IMMUNIZATION & VACCINES",   HexColor("#14532d")),
    (86,  "SECTION 4: MATERNAL & CHILD HEALTH",   HexColor("#7c2d12")),
    (106, "SECTION 5: FAMILY PLANNING & DEMOGRAPHY", HexColor("#312e81")),
    (126, "SECTION 6: ENVIRONMENT & VECTORS",     HexColor("#064e3b")),
    (146, "SECTION 7: NATIONAL PROGRAMMES",        HexColor("#1c1917")),
    (166, "SECTION 8: HEALTH SYSTEM & COMMITTEES", HexColor("#3b0764")),
    (176, "SECTION 9: COMMUNICABLE DISEASES",      HexColor("#450a0a")),
    (191, "SECTION 10: MIXED HIGH-YIELD",           HexColor("#0f172a")),
]
section_map = {q: (title, col) for (q, title, col) in SECTIONS}

def section_banner(title, colour):
    data = [[Paragraph(title, sSection)]]
    t = Table(data, colWidths=[PAGE_W - 2*MARGIN])
    t.setStyle(TableStyle([
        ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,-1), colour),
        ('TOPPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8),
        ('BOTTOMPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8),
        ('LEFTPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 10),
        ('RIGHTPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 10),
        ('ROUNDEDCORNERS', [5]),
    ]))
    return t

def header_footer(canvas, doc):
    canvas.saveState()
    # header line
    canvas.setStrokeColor(C_MID)
    canvas.setLineWidth(1.5)
    canvas.line(MARGIN, PAGE_H - 1.4*cm, PAGE_W - MARGIN, PAGE_H - 1.4*cm)
    canvas.setFont('Helvetica-Bold', 9)
    canvas.setFillColor(C_MID)
    canvas.drawString(MARGIN, PAGE_H - 1.2*cm, "PSM / Community Medicine — 200 FMGE-Style MCQs")
    canvas.setFont('Helvetica', 8)
    canvas.setFillColor(HexColor("#64748b"))
    canvas.drawRightString(PAGE_W - MARGIN, PAGE_H - 1.2*cm, "Based on Park's Textbook of PSM")
    # footer
    canvas.setFont('Helvetica', 8)
    canvas.setFillColor(HexColor("#64748b"))
    canvas.drawCentredString(PAGE_W/2, 1.2*cm, f"Page {doc.page}")
    canvas.setStrokeColor(C_BORDER)
    canvas.setLineWidth(0.5)
    canvas.line(MARGIN, 1.5*cm, PAGE_W - MARGIN, 1.5*cm)
    canvas.restoreState()

# ── build story ───────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
story = []

# ── cover page ────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
cover_data = [[Paragraph("PSM / Community Medicine", sTitle)],
              [Paragraph("200 FMGE-Style MCQs", sSub)],
              [Paragraph("with Answers &amp; Explanations", sSub)],
              [Spacer(1, 0.3*cm)],
              [Paragraph("All 10 Topics  •  Based on Park's PSM", make_style('cInfo', fontSize=10,
                          textColor=C_LIGHT, alignment=TA_CENTER, fontName='Helvetica'))]]
cover_tbl = Table([[Paragraph(r[0].text if hasattr(r[0],'text') else '', sTitle)
                    if hasattr(r[0],'text') else r[0]] for r in cover_data],
                  colWidths=[PAGE_W - 2*MARGIN])

# simpler approach: single table cell for the whole cover block
cover_inner = [
    Paragraph("PSM / Community Medicine", sTitle),
    Spacer(1, 0.2*cm),
    Paragraph("200 FMGE-Style MCQs", sSub),
    Paragraph("with Answers &amp; Explanations", sSub),
    Spacer(1, 0.4*cm),
    Paragraph("Epidemiology  •  Biostatistics  •  Immunization  •  MCH  •  Family Planning", sSub),
    Paragraph("Environment &amp; Vectors  •  National Programmes  •  Health System  •  Communicable Diseases", sSub),
    Spacer(1, 0.3*cm),
    Paragraph("Based on Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine", sSub),
]

cover_block = [[item] for item in cover_inner]
ct = Table([[item] for item in cover_inner], colWidths=[PAGE_W - 2*MARGIN])
ct.setStyle(TableStyle([
    ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,-1), C_DARK),
    ('TOPPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 12),
    ('BOTTOMPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8),
    ('LEFTPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 20),
    ('RIGHTPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 20),
]))
story.append(Spacer(1, 4*cm))
story.append(ct)
story.append(Spacer(1, 2*cm))

# stats box
stats = [
    ["Total Questions", "200"],
    ["Sections", "10"],
    ["Style", "FMGE (Single Best Answer)"],
    ["Reference", "Park's PSM (23rd Ed.)"],
]
st = Table(stats, colWidths=[6*cm, PAGE_W - 2*MARGIN - 6*cm])
st.setStyle(TableStyle([
    ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (-1,-1), C_LIGHT),
    ('BACKGROUND', (0,0), (0,-1), C_MID),
    ('TEXTCOLOR', (0,0), (0,-1), white),
    ('TEXTCOLOR', (1,0), (1,-1), C_DARK),
    ('FONTNAME', (0,0), (-1,-1), 'Helvetica-Bold'),
    ('FONTSIZE', (0,0), (-1,-1), 10),
    ('TOPPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8),
    ('BOTTOMPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 8),
    ('LEFTPADDING', (0,0), (-1,-1), 12),
    ('GRID', (0,0), (-1,-1), 0.5, C_BORDER),
]))
story.append(st)
story.append(PageBreak())

# ── MCQ pages ─────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
current_sec = None
for i, (q_text, options, answer, explanation) in enumerate(MCQ_DATA):
    q_num = i + 1

    # check section
    if q_num in section_map:
        if q_num > 1:
            story.append(Spacer(1, 0.3*cm))
        title, col = section_map[q_num]
        story.append(section_banner(title, col))
        story.append(Spacer(1, 0.2*cm))

    # MCQ block
    bg = C_GRAY if q_num % 2 == 0 else white
    block = []
    block.append(Paragraph(q_text, sQ))
    for opt in options:
        # highlight the correct option
        letter = opt[0]
        if letter == answer:
            opt_style = make_style(f'sOptC{q_num}', parent='Normal',
                                    fontSize=9.5, textColor=C_GREEN,
                                    spaceBefore=1, spaceAfter=1,
                                    fontName='Helvetica-Bold', leading=13, leftIndent=12)
        else:
            opt_style = sOpt
        block.append(Paragraph(opt, opt_style))

    block.append(Paragraph(f"✓ Answer: {answer}", sAns))
    block.append(Paragraph(explanation, sExp))
    block.append(HRFlowable(width="100%", thickness=0.3, color=C_BORDER,
                             spaceAfter=3, spaceBefore=2))

    story.append(KeepTogether(block))

# ── build ─────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
doc.build(story, onFirstPage=header_footer, onLaterPages=header_footer)
print("PDF generated successfully!")
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