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๐ NEONATOLOGY - Exam Question Set
Covering all 10 topics from your image
TOPIC 1: APGAR SCORE
Q1 (MCQ): A newborn at 1 minute has: heart rate 90 bpm, slow irregular cry, some limb flexion, grimace on suction, pink body with blue extremities. What is the APGAR score?
Answer: C - 6
HR <100 = 1, Resp = 1, Tone = 1, Reflex = 1, Color = 1 (acrocyanosis) = 6
Q2 (MCQ): At which APGAR score is immediate resuscitation indicated?
Answer: D - Score 0-3 = severely depressed, immediate resuscitation. Score 4-6 = moderate, stimulation + O2. Score 7-10 = normal.
Q3 (Short answer): What does each letter of APGAR stand for? At what time points is it assessed?
Answer:
- A - Appearance (color)
- P - Pulse (heart rate)
- G - Grimace (reflex irritability)
- A - Activity (muscle tone)
- R - Respiration
Assessed at 1 minute and 5 minutes. If <7 at 5 min โ repeat every 5 min up to 20 minutes. A 10-minute APGAR โค5 is a criterion for therapeutic hypothermia (HIE workup).
Q4 (MCQ): Which component of the APGAR score is the MOST sensitive indicator of acute neonatal distress?
- A) Color
- B) Heart rate
- C) Muscle tone
- D) Respiratory effort
Answer: B - Heart rate is the most important and sensitive indicator. Bradycardia (<100) or absent HR drives immediate CPR decision.
TOPIC 2: NEONATAL RESUSCITATION (NRP)
Q5 (MCQ): A term newborn is delivered through meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The infant is vigorous (strong cry, good tone, HR >100). What is the correct action?
- A) Immediately intubate and suction trachea
- B) Suction mouth then nose with bulb syringe
- C) Routine care; no special airway suctioning
- D) Administer surfactant immediately
Answer: C - Current NRP guidelines (2021): routine intrapartum suctioning and tracheal intubation are NOT recommended for vigorous OR non-vigorous meconium-stained infants.
Q6 (MCQ): What is the correct ETT size for a 32-week premature infant?
- A) 2.0 mm
- B) 2.5 mm
- C) 3.0 mm
- D) 3.5 mm
Answer: C - 3.0 mm (30-34 weeks GA โ 3.0 mm)
Q7 (MCQ): For a 2.8 kg newborn requiring intubation, what is the appropriate ETT insertion depth?
- A) 7 cm
- B) 8 cm
- C) 8.8 cm
- D) 9.5 cm
Answer: C - 8.8 cm
Formula: Weight (kg) + 6 = 2.8 + 6 = 8.8 cm
Q8 (Short answer): What are the steps of NRP in order? What is the C-A-B acronym?
Answer:
- Warm - dry, stimulate
- Airway - position, clear secretions
- Breathing - PPV (positive pressure ventilation) if not breathing or HR <100
- Circulation - chest compressions if HR <60 after 30 sec PPV
- Drugs - epinephrine IV/IO if HR <60 after compressions
C-A-B = Compressions/Circulation โ Airway โ Breathing (to reduce "no blood flow" time in cardiac arrest)
Q9 (MCQ): Delayed cord clamping is recommended for how long in a vigorous term newborn?
- A) 10-20 seconds
- B) 30-60 seconds
- C) 2-3 minutes
- D) Until cord stops pulsating
Answer: B - 30-60 seconds minimum. Benefits: โ iron stores, โ Hb, improved neurodevelopment.
TOPIC 3: RDS vs TTN vs MAS
Q10 (MCQ): A 28-week premature infant develops progressive respiratory distress from birth with CXR showing diffuse bilateral "ground glass" opacification and low lung volumes. Diagnosis?
- A) Meconium aspiration syndrome
- B) Transient tachypnea of the newborn
- C) Respiratory distress syndrome
- D) Pneumothorax
Answer: C - RDS (surfactant deficiency, preterm, ground glass CXR)
Q11 (MCQ): Which of the following BEST distinguishes TTN from RDS?
- A) TTN occurs only in preterm infants
- B) TTN shows ground glass on CXR
- C) TTN resolves within 24-72 hours; RDS worsens over 48-72 hours
- D) TTN requires surfactant therapy
Answer: C - TTN is self-limited (resolves 24-72 hrs). RDS worsens first 48-72 hrs then improves with brisk diuresis.
Q12 (Matching): Match the condition with its key feature:
| Condition | Feature |
|---|
| RDS | A. Post-term infant, thick meconium, barrel chest |
| TTN | B. CXR: fluid in fissures, perihilar streaking |
| MAS | C. Surfactant deficiency, preterm, ground glass CXR |
Answers: RDS = C, TTN = B, MAS = A
Q13 (MCQ): Which maternal condition ACCELERATES fetal lung maturity (reduces RDS risk)?
- A) Maternal diabetes
- B) Maternal hypertension
- C) Cesarean section without labor
- D) Second twin
Answer: B - Maternal HTN, sickle cell disease, IUGR, PROM, narcotic addiction, fetal stress = accelerate lung maturity. Maternal diabetes, C-section without labor = INCREASE RDS risk.
Q14 (MCQ): What is the first-line prevention for RDS in threatened preterm delivery at <34 weeks?
- A) Prophylactic surfactant at birth
- B) Antenatal betamethasone given 24 hrs to 7 days before delivery
- C) Indomethacin tocolysis
- D) Prophylactic CPAP from birth
Answer: B - Antenatal steroids (betamethasone/dexamethasone): optimal timing >24 hrs and <7 days before delivery.
TOPIC 4: PHYSIOLOGICAL vs PATHOLOGICAL JAUNDICE
Q15 (MCQ): A term newborn develops jaundice at 18 hours of age. Total serum bilirubin is 9 mg/dL. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
- A) Physiological jaundice
- B) Breast milk jaundice
- C) Pathological jaundice
- D) ABO incompatibility cannot be excluded
Answer: C (and D) - Jaundice within the first 24 hours = ALWAYS pathological. ABO/Rh hemolysis must be excluded urgently.
Q16 (MCQ): At what serum bilirubin level does phototherapy become urgently indicated in a term infant at 24 hours of age?
- A) >5 mg/dL
- B) >8 mg/dL
- C) >12 mg/dL
- D) Any level (jaundice at 24 hrs = immediate evaluation + phototherapy)
Answer: D - Jaundice in first 24 hrs is always pathological and warrants immediate bilirubin measurement and treatment per AAP nomogram. No "safe" level at 24 hours.
Q17 (Short answer): Differentiate physiological vs pathological jaundice in 5 key points.
| Feature | Physiological | Pathological |
|---|
| Onset | Day 2-3 | Day 1 (<24 hrs) |
| Peak (term) | Day 3-4, <12 mg/dL | Higher, faster rise |
| Duration | <2 weeks (term) | >2 weeks (term) |
| Direct bili | Normal | May be elevated |
| Cause | โRBC breakdown + immature liver | Hemolysis, infection, metabolic |
Q18 (MCQ): Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pathological hyperbilirubinemia?
- A) Cephalohematoma
- B) G6PD deficiency
- C) Formula feeding
- D) ABO incompatibility
Answer: C - Formula feeding is protective. Exclusive breastfeeding is a risk factor (breastfeeding jaundice = inadequate intake โ โ enterohepatic circulation).
TOPIC 5: KERNICTERUS
Q19 (MCQ): A 5-day-old term newborn with TSB 28 mg/dL develops opisthotonus, high-pitched cry, and seizures. What is the diagnosis?
- A) Neonatal meningitis
- B) Hypoglycemia
- C) Acute bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus)
- D) Neonatal tetanus
Answer: C - Acute bilirubin encephalopathy. Classic triad: hypotonia โ hypertonia + opisthotonus, high-pitched cry, poor feeding, seizures.
Q20 (MCQ): Kernicterus results from unconjugated bilirubin deposition in which area of the brain?
- A) Cerebral cortex
- B) Basal ganglia, hippocampus, cranial nerve nuclei
- C) Cerebellum
- D) Brainstem only
Answer: B - Unconjugated (lipid-soluble) bilirubin deposits in basal ganglia, subthalamic nuclei, hippocampus, and cranial nerve nuclei.
Q21 (MCQ): What is the treatment for severe hyperbilirubinemia not responding to intensive phototherapy?
- A) IV albumin infusion
- B) Exchange transfusion
- C) Phenobarbital
- D) IVIG
Answer: B - Double-volume exchange transfusion (removes bilirubin + sensitized RBCs). IVIG can be used as adjunct in hemolytic disease (Rh/ABO incompatibility).
TOPIC 6: BREASTFEEDING
Q22 (MCQ): How many times per day should a breastfed newborn feed in the first weeks of life?
- A) 4-6 times
- B) 6-8 times
- C) 8-12 times
- D) 12-16 times
Answer: C - 8-12 times/day (on demand, approximately every 2-3 hours)
Q23 (MCQ): What vitamin supplementation is recommended for ALL breastfed infants from birth?
- A) Vitamin C 100 mg/day
- B) Vitamin D 400 IU/day
- C) Vitamin K 1 mg/day oral
- D) Iron 1 mg/kg/day from birth
Answer: B - Vitamin D 400 IU/day for all infants from birth to 12 months regardless of feeding mode. (Breast milk is deficient in Vitamin D.)
Q24 (MCQ): Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to breastfeeding?
- A) Maternal hepatitis B infection
- B) Maternal HIV infection (in high-income country with safe water)
- C) Maternal CMV infection
- D) Maternal fever
Answer: B - HIV is a contraindication in settings with safe formula access (high-income countries). Hepatitis B: breastfeeding is safe after infant receives HBV vaccine + HBIG within 12 hrs.
Q25 (Short answer): List 5 advantages of breastfeeding for the infant.
- Reduces NEC risk (~50% reduction in premature infants)
- Reduces neonatal sepsis
- IgA provides passive immunity
- Reduces SIDS risk
- Better neurodevelopmental outcomes
- Reduces risk of childhood obesity, diabetes, allergies
- Optimal nutrition (easily digestible, bioavailable)
TOPIC 7: NEONATAL HYPOGLYCEMIA
Q26 (MCQ): Below what blood glucose level is neonatal hypoglycemia defined in the first 48 hours of life?
- A) <40 mg/dL
- B) <45 mg/dL
- C) <50 mg/dL
- D) <60 mg/dL
Answer: A - <40 mg/dL (first 48 hrs). After 48 hrs: <50 mg/dL.
Q27 (MCQ): Which newborn is at the HIGHEST risk for hypoglycemia?
- A) Term AGA infant, vaginal delivery
- B) Infant of diabetic mother (IDM), LGA
- C) Preterm infant on formula
- D) Post-term infant, AGA
Answer: B - IDM has fetal hyperinsulinism (from maternal hyperglycemia) โ after cord clamping, insulin continues โ rapid hypoglycemia. Also at risk: SGA, preterm, LGA.
Q28 (MCQ): An asymptomatic LGA newborn has blood glucose of 32 mg/dL at 1 hour of life. First step?
- A) IV dextrose bolus immediately
- B) Feed (breastfeed or formula) and recheck in 30 minutes
- C) Transfer to NICU
- D) Glucagon IM
Answer: B - Asymptomatic hypoglycemia in at-risk newborn: feed first (enteral glucose), then recheck. IV dextrose for symptomatic or failed enteral treatment.
Q29 (Short answer): List the causes of neonatal hypoglycemia using categories.
| Category | Examples |
|---|
| โ Insulin | IDM, Beckwith-Wiedemann, nesidioblastosis |
| โ Substrate | Preterm, SGA/IUGR, starvation |
| โ Glucose utilization | Sepsis, hypothermia, respiratory distress, polycythemia |
| Endocrine | Hypopituitarism, adrenal insufficiency, hypothyroidism |
| Metabolic | IEM (GSD, fatty acid oxidation defects) |
TOPIC 8: NEONATAL SEPSIS - Early vs Late Onset
Q30 (MCQ): Which organism is the most common cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis (EOS)?
- A) Staphylococcus aureus
- B) Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
- C) E. coli
- D) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: B - GBS (Streptococcus agalactiae) - most common EOS pathogen. E. coli is second most common. Together they account for >70% of EOS.
Q31 (MCQ): A 3-week-old neonate develops fever, poor feeding, and bulging fontanelle. Blood culture grows Streptococcus agalactiae. This is classified as:
- A) Early-onset sepsis
- B) Late-onset sepsis
- C) Nosocomial sepsis
- D) Meningitis only
Answer: B - Late-onset sepsis = >72 hours to 3 months of age. GBS can cause both EOS and LOS.
Q32 (Table question): Complete the comparison:
| Feature | Early-Onset Sepsis | Late-Onset Sepsis |
|---|
| Age | | |
| Source | | |
| Main organisms | | |
| Presentation | | |
| Feature | EOS | LOS |
|---|
| Age | <72 hours | >72 hrs to 3 months |
| Source | Vertical (maternal) | Nosocomial or community |
| Main organisms | GBS, E. coli, Listeria | GBS, CoNS, Staph aureus, Gram-neg enteric |
| Presentation | Respiratory distress, shock | Meningitis, bacteremia, focal infection |
Q33 (MCQ): Which is the MOST common sign of neonatal sepsis?
- A) Fever >38ยฐC
- B) Temperature instability (hypo- or hyperthermia)
- C) Seizures
- D) Petechiae
Answer: B - Temperature instability (often hypothermia in neonates, not fever). Neonates cannot mount a reliable fever response. Other signs: lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, grunting, jaundice.
TOPIC 9: NEC (NECROTIZING ENTEROCOLITIS)
Q34 (MCQ): What is the pathognomonic radiologic finding of NEC?
- A) "Double bubble" sign
- B) Pneumatosis intestinalis (air in bowel wall)
- C) Pneumoperitoneum
- D) Portal venous gas
Answer: B - Pneumatosis intestinalis - hallmark of NEC on AXR. Pneumoperitoneum = perforated bowel (Bell Stage IIIB) = surgical emergency.
Q35 (MCQ): A 900g premature infant at day 10 of life develops abdominal distension, bloody stools, apnea, and AXR shows portal venous gas. Bell's stage?
- A) Stage IIA
- B) Stage IIB
- C) Stage IIIA
- D) Stage IIIB
Answer: B - Stage IIB: Portal venous gas + metabolic acidosis + thrombocytopenia + moderate illness.
Q36 (MCQ): Which of the following MOST effectively prevents NEC in premature infants?
- A) Prophylactic fluconazole
- B) Prophylactic antibiotics for 5 days
- C) Breast milk feeding
- D) Slow-drip continuous feeds
Answer: C - Breast milk - reduces NEC incidence by ~50% due to secretory IgA, lactoferrin, lysozyme, and immunologic factors.
Q37 (MCQ): Surgical intervention for NEC is indicated when:
- A) Bell Stage IIB is confirmed
- B) There is pneumatosis intestinalis on AXR
- C) There is pneumoperitoneum (perforation) or clinical deterioration despite medical management
- D) WBC >20,000
Answer: C - Surgery (peritoneal drain or laparotomy) for perforation (pneumoperitoneum) or necrotic bowel that doesn't respond to medical management.
TOPIC 10: MECONIUM ASPIRATION SYNDROME (MAS)
Q38 (MCQ): Which of the following is the MOST common predisposing factor for MAS?
- A) Prematurity <32 weeks
- B) Post-term pregnancy (>42 weeks) with fetal distress
- C) Maternal diabetes
- D) Prolonged PROM
Answer: B - MAS occurs in post-term or term infants with fetal distress/hypoxia. Meconium passage in utero = sign of fetal distress. Rare before 34 weeks (meconium not present in immature bowel).
Q39 (MCQ): A post-term infant is born through thick meconium-stained fluid, is limp, HR 60, no respiratory effort. What is the correct initial management?
- A) Immediate intubation + tracheal suction
- B) Stimulate and give O2 only
- C) Start PPV immediately (NRP algorithm)
- D) Chest compressions first
Answer: C - Current NRP (2021): Start resuscitation (PPV) immediately regardless of meconium. Tracheal intubation for meconium suctioning is no longer recommended even for non-vigorous infants. PPV takes priority.
Q40 (MCQ): MAS causes respiratory distress by which mechanism?
- A) Surfactant deficiency only
- B) Ball-valve obstruction โ air trapping + chemical pneumonitis + surfactant inactivation + PPHN
- C) Retained fetal lung fluid
- D) Pulmonary hypoplasia
Answer: B - MAS is multifactorial:
- Ball-valve obstruction โ air trapping โ hyperinflation (barrel chest on CXR)
- Chemical pneumonitis (meconium is caustic)
- Surfactant inactivation
- PPHN (pulmonary vasoconstriction)
Q41 (MCQ): Which CXR finding is classic for MAS?
- A) Diffuse symmetric ground glass, low lung volumes
- B) Fluid in horizontal fissure, perihilar streaking
- C) Coarse irregular infiltrates, hyperinflation, "rope-like" opacities
- D) Unilateral hyperlucency
Answer: C - MAS: patchy coarse infiltrates + hyperinflation (air trapping). Compare: RDS = ground glass + low volumes; TTN = perihilar streaking + fluid in fissures.
RAPID-FIRE SUMMARY TABLE
| Topic | Must-Know Fact |
|---|
| APGAR 0-3 | Immediate resuscitation |
| APGAR at day 10 min โค5 | Criterion for cooling (HIE) |
| NRP meconium 2021 | No routine tracheal suction - give PPV |
| RDS | Preterm, surfactant deficiency, ground glass CXR |
| TTN | C-section, retained lung fluid, resolves 24-72 hrs |
| MAS | Post-term, fetal distress, hyperinflation CXR |
| Jaundice day 1 | Always PATHOLOGICAL |
| Kernicterus | Indirect bili โ basal ganglia โ treat with exchange transfusion |
| Breastfeeding | 8-12 feeds/day; Vit D 400 IU/day |
| Hypoglycemia | <40 mg/dL (<48 hrs); IDM highest risk |
| EOS | <72 hrs; GBS #1 cause |
| LOS | >72 hrs; Staph CoNS, GBS |
| NEC pathognomonic | Pneumatosis intestinalis on AXR |
| NEC prevention | Breast milk |
| MAS mechanism | Ball-valve + chemical pneumonitis + PPHN |
Source: Harriet Lane Handbook, 23rd Edition - Chapter 18: Neonatology