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𧬠Clinical Genetics MCQs
Based on Nelsons Textbook of Pediatrics, 21st Ed. β Chapters 95, 96, 97, 128
PART A: THEORETICAL MCQs (Knowledge-Based)
Q1. Which of the following correctly describes the Central Dogma of Molecular Genetics?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. DNA β Protein β RNA
- B. RNA β DNA β Protein
- C. DNA β RNA β Protein β
- D. Protein β RNA β DNA
Answer: C
DNA is transcribed into mRNA by RNA Polymerase in the nucleus. mRNA is transported to the cytoplasm where ribosomes translate it into protein.
Q2. Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. RNA Polymerase
- B. Ribosome
- C. DNA Polymerase β
- D. Reverse Transcriptase
Answer: C
DNA Polymerase catalyzes DNA β DNA (replication). RNA Polymerase does DNA β mRNA (transcription). Ribosomes do mRNA β Protein (translation).
Q3. In DNA base pairing, Adenine pairs with which base?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. Guanine
- B. Cytosine
- C. Thymine β
- D. Uracil
Answer: C
A-T and G-C pairings, linked by hydrogen bonds. Purines (A, G) pair with Pyrimidines (T, C).
Q4. A point mutation results in a codon change from UAU (Tyrosine) to UAA. What type of mutation is this?
(Nelson's Ch. 96 - Table 96.1)
- A. Silent (synonymous)
- B. Missense
- C. Nonsense β
- D. Frameshift
Answer: C
UAA is a STOP codon. A mutation that creates a premature stop codon is a Nonsense mutation, resulting in a truncated non-functional protein and mRNA degradation.
Q5. A mutation changes the codon GCC (Alanine) to GCU (also Alanine). What type of mutation is this?
(Nelson's Ch. 96 - Table 96.1)
- A. Missense
- B. Nonsense
- C. Silent (synonymous) β
- D. Splice site
Answer: C
Due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, multiple codons can encode the same amino acid. A change that does NOT alter the amino acid is a Silent/Synonymous mutation.
Q6. A deletion of 2 base pairs within the coding region of a gene will most likely result in which type of mutation?
(Nelson's Ch. 96 - Table 96.1)
- A. In-frame deletion
- B. Frameshift mutation β
- C. Synonymous mutation
- D. Splice site mutation
Answer: B
Deletions (or insertions) that are NOT multiples of 3 bases shift the reading frame, causing a frameshift mutation that results in premature termination and loss of function.
Q7. Which of the following best describes a trinucleotide repeat expansion?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. Substitution of one purine for another
- B. Loss of an entire chromosome
- C. Short DNA sequences repeated in tandem that expand in number β
- D. Deletion of exonic sequences
Answer: C
Trinucleotide repeat expansions are dynamic mutations where the number of repeats increases, often with disease onset in successive generations (anticipation).
Q8. How many chromosomes does a normal human somatic cell contain?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. 23
- B. 44
- C. 46 β
- D. 48
Answer: C
Somatic cells have 46 chromosomes = 23 pairs. 22 pairs are autosomes and the 23rd pair are sex chromosomes (XX = female; XY = male).
Q9. The centromere divides the chromosome into two arms. Which arm is the SHORT arm?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. q arm
- B. p arm β
- C. r arm
- D. s arm
Answer: B
"p" comes from the French word "petit" meaning small. The q arm is the long arm.
Q10. Which of the following is a feature of AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT inheritance?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Both copies of the gene must be mutated
- B. Horizontal transmission pattern
- C. Males are more commonly affected
- D. 50% recurrence risk with vertical transmission β
Answer: D
AD = one mutant allele is sufficient. Disease appears in every generation (vertical pattern), affects males and females equally, with 50% risk per child.
Q11. Which of the following is NOT an example of an autosomal dominant disorder?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Marfan syndrome
- B. Achondroplasia (FGFR3)
- C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
- D. Sickle cell disease β
Answer: D
Sickle cell disease is autosomal RECESSIVE. Marfan syndrome (FBN1), Achondroplasia (FGFR3), and Osteogenesis imperfecta are all autosomal dominant.
Q12. Two unaffected parents have a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the recurrence risk for each subsequent pregnancy?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. 50%
- B. 25% β
- C. 100%
- D. 0%
Answer: B
Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive. If both parents are carriers (Aa Γ Aa), the probability for each child is 25% affected (aa), 50% carrier (Aa), 25% unaffected (AA).
Q13. Which of the following is the hallmark feature of X-linked recessive inheritance?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Vertical transmission through multiple generations
- B. No male-to-male transmission β
- C. Only females are affected
- D. 25% recurrence risk
Answer: B
In X-linked inheritance, an affected father passes his X chromosome to ALL daughters and his Y chromosome to ALL sons. Therefore there is NO father-to-son (male-to-male) transmission.
Q14. Examples of autosomal recessive disorders include all of the following EXCEPT:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Sickle cell disease
- B. Galactosemia
- C. PKU (Phenylketonuria)
- D. Marfan syndrome β
Answer: D
Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant (FBN1). Sickle cell disease, Galactosemia, MSUD, Thalassemia, and PKU are all autosomal recessive, as stated in the slide.
Q15. The cornerstone of clinical genetics evaluation according to Nelson's Chapter 97 is:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Genetic testing panel
- B. Karyotyping
- C. Systematic and standardized pedigree β
- D. Whole exome sequencing
Answer: C
The lecture specifically states: "The cornerstone is systematic and standardized pedigree." Family history remains the most important screening tool for identifying genetic susceptibility.
Q16. In a pedigree diagram, a filled circle with an arrow pointing to it represents:
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides)
- A. Consultand
- B. Carrier female
- C. Proband β
- D. Deceased affected female
Answer: C
The proband (index case) is the affected individual who first brought the family to medical attention, represented by a filled shape with an arrow. The consultand is the person seeking genetic counseling (open shape with arrow).
Q17. Genetic imprinting refers to:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Expansion of trinucleotide repeats
- B. Differential gene expression depending on which parent the chromosome is inherited from β
- C. Somatic mutations occurring after fertilization
- D. Mitochondrial inheritance exclusively from the mother
Answer: B
Genetic imprinting = different phenotypes based on whether the mutation is inherited from mom or dad, even though the chromosomal location is the same (15q11-12).
Q18. In Angelman Syndrome, the microdeletion is located on chromosome 15q11-12 inherited from:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Paternally derived chromosome 15
- B. Maternally derived chromosome 15 β
- C. Both chromosomes 15
- D. X chromosome
Answer: B
Angelman = Maternal deletion of 15q11-12. Prader-Willi = Paternal deletion of 15q11-12. Same locus, opposite parent, completely different phenotype.
Q19. Uniparental disomy (UPD) refers to:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Having three copies of one chromosome
- B. A child inheriting both copies of a chromosome from the same parent β
- C. Deletion of an entire chromosome arm
- D. Having only one sex chromosome
Answer: B
UPD is a rare occurrence where both copies of a chromosome pair are inherited from only one parent. It can cause imprinting disorders (e.g., maternal UPD15 β Prader-Willi; paternal UPD15 β Angelman).
Q20. Genetic anticipation refers to:
(Nelson's Ch. 97 - Fig 97.19)
- A. Earlier age of onset and more severe disease in successive generations β
- B. Later age of onset with milder disease over generations
- C. Disease skipping alternate generations
- D. Different phenotype depending on sex
Answer: A
Anticipation is demonstrated in myotonic dystrophy pedigrees (CTG repeat). Onset was at 55, then 48-50, then 40-42 years across three generations - getting progressively earlier.
Q21. DiGeorge Syndrome is an example of which category of genetic disorder?
(Nelson's Ch. 95)
- A. Single gene (Mendelian)
- B. Mitochondrial
- C. Genomic disorder β
- D. Chromosomal trisomy
Answer: C
DiGeorge Syndrome results from microdeletion of chromosome 22q11. Genomic disorders are caused by alterations (deletions, duplications, inversions, rearrangements) at the chromosomal level.
Q22. The CATCH 22 mnemonic for DiGeorge Syndrome stands for:
(slide content)
- A. Cardiac, Anal atresia, Tracheo-esophageal, Cleft palate, Hands
- B. Cardiac abnormality, Abnormal facies, Thymic aplasia, Cleft palate, Hypocalcemia β
- C. Cardiac, Aortic stenosis, Thyroid, Cleft lip, Hypotonia
- D. Chromosomal, Aneuploid, Truncus, Cleft, Hypoplasia
Answer: B
CATCH 22 = Cardiac abnormality + Abnormal facies + Thymic aplasia + Cleft palate + Hypocalcemia/hypoparathyroidism, all due to 22q11 deletion.
Q23. Which of the following best describes a "sequence" in dysmorphology?
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides)
- A. A pattern of anomalies with a common genetic etiology (syndrome)
- B. A cascade of anomalies arising from a single primary defect β
- C. Non-random occurrence of anomalies without known cause (association)
- D. Abnormal tissue organization causing structural change
Answer: B
A sequence = one primary defect that sets off a chain of secondary anomalies. Classic example: Pierre Robin Sequence (mandibular hypoplasia β tongue displacement β cleft palate).
Q24. In dysplasia, the morphologic defect arises from:
(Nelson's Ch. 128)
- A. External mechanical forces altering normal structure
- B. Destruction of normal tissue by an external insult
- C. Abnormal cellular organization within a tissue β
- D. Vascular disruption in fetal development
Answer: C
Dysplasia = abnormal cellular organization resulting in structural changes. It tends to persist or worsen with age. Example: achondroplasia (cartilage dysplasia).
Q25. The six types of genetic testing include all of the following EXCEPT:
(lecture slide)
- A. Screening
- B. Carrier
- C. Predictive
- D. Therapeutic β
Answer: D
The 6 types are: Screening, Carrier, Predictive, Prenatal, Diagnostic, and Forensic. "Therapeutic" is not a type of genetic testing; it describes treatment (e.g., gene therapy).
PART B: CLINICAL VIGNETTE / CASE-BASED MCQs
Q26. π₯ CASE: A 16-year-old tall male is referred for evaluation. He is 193 cm tall with long arms and fingers. Slit lamp exam reveals upward lens dislocation. Echocardiography shows aortic root dilation of 4.8 cm. His father died suddenly at age 38.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what gene is mutated?
(Nelson's Ch. 96, 97)
- A. Homocystinuria β CBS gene
- B. Marfan Syndrome β FBN1 gene β
- C. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome β COL5A1 gene
- D. Loeys-Dietz Syndrome β TGFBR2 gene
Answer: B
Marfan Syndrome = FBN1 (fibrillin-1) gene mutation. Classic triad: skeletal (tall, arachnodactyly), ocular (ectopia lentis - UPWARD dislocation), cardiovascular (aortic root dilation). Most devastating outcome = aortic root dissection β sudden death (father).
Q27. π₯ CASE: A newborn girl has short stature for gestational age. Examination shows a webbed neck, low posterior hairline, widely spaced nipples, and widely spaced nipples. Karyotype shows 45,X.
Which of the following is EXPECTED in this patient?
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides)
- A. Intellectual disability
- B. Coarctation of the aorta β
- C. Polydactyly
- D. Macroglossia
Answer: B
Turner Syndrome (45,X) = short stature, webbed neck, cardiac defects (coarctation of aorta is classic), amenorrhea, failure of breast development, but NORMAL intelligence.
Q28. π₯ CASE: A 35-year-old woman is seen for genetic counseling. Her brother has Duchenne muscular dystrophy. She is planning pregnancy. She is found to be a carrier of the DMD gene mutation.
What is the probability that her SON will be affected?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. 25%
- B. 50% β
- C. 100%
- D. 0%
Answer: B
Duchenne MD is X-linked recessive. A carrier mother (X^d X) Γ normal father (X Y): Sons have 50% chance of receiving the X^d β affected. Daughters have 50% chance of being carriers.
Q29. π₯ CASE: A 3-year-old boy presents with progressive difficulty walking and calf pseudohypertrophy. His maternal uncle had a similar condition and died in his 20s. Creatine kinase is markedly elevated.
What is the mode of inheritance of this condition?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Autosomal recessive
- C. X-linked recessive β
- D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C
This is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD). The fact that the MATERNAL UNCLE (mother's brother) was affected is the classic clue for X-linked recessive inheritance. No male-to-male transmission; females are usually carriers.
Q30. π₯ CASE: A neonate is born with micrognathia, a posteriorly displaced tongue, and difficulty breathing. The pediatrician notes a U-shaped cleft of the soft palate.
This presentation represents which type of morphologic defect?
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides β Dysmorphology)
- A. Syndrome
- B. Dysplasia
- C. Deformation
- D. Sequence β
Answer: D
This is Pierre Robin Sequence. The primary defect is mandibular hypoplasia (before 9 weeks AOG) β tongue positioned posteriorly β impairs palatal shelf closure β U-shaped cleft soft palate. One primary defect causing a cascade = SEQUENCE.
Q31. π₯ CASE: A 45-year-old man develops choreiform movements, personality changes, and cognitive decline. His father had the same condition and died at age 52. Genetic testing reveals 48 CAG repeats in the HTT gene.
What is MOST accurate regarding his children?
(Nelson's Ch. 96)
- A. None of his children will be affected
- B. All sons will be affected; daughters will be carriers
- C. Each child has a 50% chance of being affected β
- D. Children are only at risk if they inherit the gene from their mother
Answer: C
Huntington's disease is autosomal dominant with CAG trinucleotide repeat. β₯40 repeats = affected. With an AD disorder, each child has 50% recurrence risk regardless of sex.
Q32. π₯ CASE: A 6-month-old baby boy is found to have weak muscle tone, poor feeding, and failure to thrive. At age 2, he starts overeating compulsively and becomes obese. By school age he has mild intellectual disability and behavioral outbursts. Chromosome analysis shows a microdeletion on the paternally inherited chromosome 15q11-12.
What is this diagnosis?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Angelman Syndrome
- B. Prader-Willi Syndrome β
- C. DiGeorge Syndrome
- D. Fragile X Syndrome
Answer: B
Prader-Willi Syndrome = PATERNAL deletion of chromosome 15q11-12. Features: neonatal hypotonia + poor feeding β hyperphagia/obesity + intellectual impairment + behavioral problems. Angelman = MATERNAL deletion of same locus, with happy affect, seizures, and severe intellectual disability.
Q33. π₯ CASE: A newborn boy has clenched fists with the 2nd and 5th fingers overlapping the 3rd and 4th. He has IUGR, rocker-bottom feet, micrognathia, and cardiac defects. Head ultrasound shows a "strawberry-shaped" calvarium.
Which karyotype is expected?
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides)
- A. 47, XX, +21
- B. 47, XY, +18 β
- C. 47, XY, +13
- D. 45, X
Answer: B
This is Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome). The pathognomonic feature is the CLENCHED FIST with finger overlap + rocker bottom feet + strawberry skull + cardiac defects (VSD, ASD, PDA). Trisomy 21 = Down syndrome features; Trisomy 13 = midline defects/polydactyly.
Q34. π₯ CASE: A newborn is brought in with absent thymic shadow on chest X-ray, hypocalcemia with tetany on day 2 of life, and a cardiac defect identified as truncus arteriosus. The mother reports a similar history in a sibling.
What is the chromosomal abnormality in this child?
(slides β DiGeorge)
- A. Trisomy 21
- B. Deletion of chromosome 22q11 β
- C. Deletion of chromosome 15q11
- D. Monosomy X
Answer: B
DiGeorge Syndrome (CATCH 22) = deletion of chromosome 22q11. Key features: cardiac defects (truncus arteriosus, interrupted aortic arch), thymic aplasia β T-cell immunodeficiency, hypocalcemia (hypoparathyroidism), abnormal facies, cleft palate.
Q35. π₯ CASE: A 32-year-old man is evaluated for infertility. He has small firm testes, gynecomastia, and tall stature. He has completed college (IQ normal). Karyotype shows 47, XXY.
Which of the following best describes this condition?
(related chromosomal content)
- A. Turner Syndrome
- B. Klinefelter Syndrome β
- C. Trisomy 18
- D. Triple X Syndrome
Answer: B
47,XXY = Klinefelter Syndrome. Classic features: male phenotype, small firm testes (primary hypogonadism), gynecomastia, tall stature, infertility. Intelligence is usually normal or mildly reduced.
Q36. π₯ CASE: A 4-year-old girl is brought to clinic. She is happy and laughs frequently, has absent or almost no speech, severe intellectual disability, seizures, and a wide-based gait. Genetic workup shows a microdeletion on the maternally inherited chromosome 15.
What is the diagnosis?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
- B. Angelman Syndrome β
- C. Fragile X Syndrome
- D. Rett Syndrome
Answer: B
Angelman Syndrome = MATERNAL deletion of 15q11-12. Features: happy demeanor/frequent laughter, minimal speech, severe intellectual disability, seizures, ataxic "puppet-like" gait. Prader-Willi = paternal deletion, presents with obesity.
Q37. π₯ CASE: A family is evaluated because of multiple members with a bleeding disorder across 3 generations. The family tree shows: grandfather (unaffected), grandmother (unaffected), their son affected, daughters unaffected but have affected sons. No father-to-son transmission is noted.
What is the most likely inheritance pattern?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Autosomal recessive
- C. X-linked recessive β
- D. X-linked dominant
Answer: C
The clue: daughters are carriers (unaffected), their sons are affected, and there is NO father-to-son transmission. This is the classic pattern of X-linked recessive inheritance (e.g., Hemophilia A or B).
Q38. π₯ CASE: A 12-year-old girl presents with short stature (height 135 cm), primary amenorrhea, and is found to have streak gonads. She has no webbing of the neck. Her intelligence is normal.
Which genetic test is most important to order first?
(Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides β dysmorphic child approach)
- A. FISH for chromosome 22q11
- B. Karyotype β
- C. BRCA1/2 gene panel
- D. FBN1 gene sequencing
Answer: B
The approach to a dysmorphic/genetic condition starts with history, physical exam, then diagnostics/genetic tests. For suspected Turner syndrome (45,X), karyotype is the primary diagnostic test. Short stature + primary amenorrhea + streak gonads = Turner Syndrome.
Q39. π₯ CASE: A child with an autosomal dominant condition is seen in clinic. His father also has the same condition, but very mildly, while the child has severe manifestations. Both carry the same FBN1 variant.
This phenomenon is best explained by:
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. De novo mutation
- B. Incomplete penetrance
- C. Variable expression β
- D. Anticipation
Answer: C
Variable expression = individuals with the same autosomal dominant variant manifest the disorder to different degrees. The same FBN1 mutation can produce mild to severe Marfan phenotype depending on modifier genes and environment.
Q40. π₯ CASE: A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with an autosomal dominant condition. However, review of both parents shows neither is clinically affected, and molecular testing confirms neither parent carries the mutation.
What is the most likely explanation?
(Nelson's Ch. 97 - slide 45)
- A. Genetic imprinting
- B. De novo mutation β
- C. Uniparental disomy
- D. X-linked inheritance
Answer: B
A de novo (new) mutation arises in the DNA of the egg or sperm that formed the individual, not inherited from either parent. This is one of the 4 explanations given in the slide for why an AD patient may have no affected family members.
Q41. π₯ CASE: A newborn is evaluated for multiple anomalies. Workup shows normal chromosome analysis (no chromosomal deletion/trisomy). Gene sequencing identifies two pathogenic variants in the CFTR gene β one inherited from each unaffected parent.
What best describes the inheritance pattern?
(Nelson's Ch. 97)
- A. Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
- B. X-linked recessive
- C. Autosomal recessive β
- D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C
Having TWO copies of a pathogenic variant (one from each carrier parent) in a non-sex chromosome gene = autosomal recessive (CFTR = cystic fibrosis). Both parents are unaffected carriers.
Q42. π₯ CASE: In a pedigree, an affected male (I-1) and an unaffected female (I-2) have the following children: 2 affected daughters, 1 unaffected son, 1 affected daughter. There is NO father-to-son transmission anywhere in the pedigree. Which is most consistent?
(Nelson's Ch. 97 - FIG 97.11)
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Autosomal recessive
- C. X-linked dominant β
- D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C
X-linked dominant: an affected father passes his X to ALL daughters (all affected) and Y to all sons (unaffected). The absence of father-to-son transmission and pattern of ALL daughters being affected from an affected father is consistent with X-linked dominant (e.g., Incontinentia Pigmenti if lethal in males, or Fragile X syndrome).
Q43. π₯ CASE: Parents bring their 2-year-old for short-limbed short stature, a large head (frontal bossing), midface hypoplasia, and trident-shaped hands. Father has similar features. X-ray shows rhizomelic shortening.
What is the gene and inheritance of this condition?
(Nelson's Ch. 97 - Fig 97.5)
- A. FBN1 gene β autosomal dominant
- B. FGFR3 gene β autosomal dominant β
- C. FGFR3 gene β autosomal recessive
- D. COL1A1 gene β autosomal dominant
Answer: B
Achondroplasia = FGFR3 gain-of-function mutation, autosomal dominant (as shown in Fig 97.5 pedigree). Features: rhizomelic dwarfism, frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia, trident hands.
Q44. π₯ CASE: A 25-year-old woman presents with a skin condition showing linear blistering lesions that follow Blaschko's lines (lines of fetal cell migration). Multiple male relatives who were supposed to be born had spontaneous abortions in the family. She has a brother who is unaffected.
What is the inheritance pattern?
(Nelson's Ch. 97 - Fig 97.12)
- A. Autosomal recessive
- B. X-linked dominant with male lethality β
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. Mitochondrial
Answer: B
This describes Incontinentia Pigmenti (X-linked dominant, IKBKG/NEMO gene). The condition is lethal in hemizygous males (β spontaneous abortions/stillbirths in males). Only females survive to manifest the disease. The pedigree (Fig 97.12) shows filled triangles = terminated male pregnancies.
Q45. π₯ CASE: A 50-year-old woman with a strong family history of breast and ovarian cancer requests genetic testing to determine her personal risk BEFORE developing any symptoms.
What type of genetic testing is she requesting?
(lecture slide - Types of Genetic Testing)
- A. Carrier testing
- B. Diagnostic testing
- C. Screening testing
- D. Predictive testing β
Answer: D
Predictive genetic testing is done to identify disease risk BEFORE symptoms develop. This is the Angelina Jolie example from the slide β she tested for BRCA1 gene and chose prophylactic mastectomy. Diagnostic testing is done AFTER symptoms appear.
π ANSWER KEY QUICK REFERENCE
| Q | A | Q | A | Q | A |
|---|
| 1 | C | 16 | C | 31 | C |
| 2 | C | 17 | B | 32 | B |
| 3 | C | 18 | B | 33 | B |
| 4 | C | 19 | B | 34 | B |
| 5 | C | 20 | A | 35 | B |
| 6 | B | 21 | C | 36 | B |
| 7 | C | 22 | B | 37 | C |
| 8 | C | 23 | B | 38 | B |
| 9 | B | 24 | C | 39 | C |
| 10 | D | 25 | D | 40 | B |
| 11 | D | 26 | B | 41 | C |
| 12 | B | 27 | B | 42 | C |
| 13 | B | 28 | B | 43 | B |
| 14 | D | 29 | C | 44 | B |
| 15 | C | 30 | D | 45 | D |
Total: 45 MCQs β 25 theoretical + 20 clinical vignettes
All questions are directly sourced from Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics 21st Edition, Chapters 95, 96, 97, 128 and Dr. Conchita Abarquez slides as cited in the lecture file. π―