Make a concise notes from pharmacology katzung GIT chapter 59 and also make Mcqs

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Note: In Katzung's 16th edition, the GIT pharmacology chapter is Chapter 62 ("Drugs Used in the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases"). It was Chapter 59 in the 13th/14th editions - same content. All notes below are directly from the textbook.

KATZUNG - GIT PHARMACOLOGY (Ch 59/62)

Concise Notes


SECTION 1: DRUGS USED IN ACID-PEPTIC DISEASES

Pathophysiology Overview

  • Acid-peptic diseases: GERD, peptic ulcer disease (PUD), stress ulcers
  • Aggressive factors: acid, pepsin, NSAIDs, H. pylori, bile
  • Defensive factors: mucus, bicarbonate, prostaglandins, blood flow
  • 90% of peptic ulcers caused by H. pylori OR NSAIDs

Physiology of Acid Secretion

  • Parietal cell has 3 receptors: Gastrin (CCK-B), Histamine (H2), Acetylcholine (M3)
  • Gastrin and ACh → increase cytosolic Ca2+ → activate protein kinases → stimulate proton pump (H+/K+-ATPase)
  • Histamine → activates adenylyl cyclase → increases cAMP → PKA activation → stimulates proton pump
  • Proton pump is on the canalicular surface of parietal cells

A. PROTON PUMP INHIBITORS (PPIs)

Drugs: Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Dexlansoprazole, Pantoprazole, Rabeprazole, Esomeprazole (S-isomer of omeprazole)
Mechanism:
  • Prodrugs - activated in acid environment to sulfenamide form
  • Irreversibly bind to and inhibit H+/K+-ATPase (proton pump)
  • Require acidic environment for activation → take 30-60 min before meals
  • Inhibit BOTH fasting and meal-stimulated acid secretion (unlike H2 blockers)
  • Inhibit 90-98% of 24-hour acid secretion
Pharmacokinetics:
  • Absorbed in small intestine (enteric coated to protect from acid)
  • Short serum half-life (~1-2 hours) but long duration (18-24 hours) due to irreversible binding
  • Hepatic metabolism (CYP2C19 and CYP3A4); negligible renal clearance
  • No dose reduction needed for renal insufficiency or mild-moderate liver disease
  • Full effect takes 2-5 days to develop (as existing pumps are replaced)
Clinical Uses:
  1. GERD - most effective agent; 85-90% symptom relief with once-daily dosing; >80% relapse within 6 months of stopping
  2. PUD - heals 80-90% of duodenal ulcers in 4 weeks; gastric ulcers in 6-8 weeks
  3. H. pylori eradication - part of triple/quadruple therapy
  4. NSAID-induced ulcers - prevention and treatment
  5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - high doses needed; treat indefinitely
  6. Upper GI bleeding - IV formulation (esomeprazole, pantoprazole)
Adverse Effects:
  • Generally safe; most common: headache, diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain
  • Long-term use concerns:
    • C. difficile infection (increased risk)
    • Hypomagnesemia (with >1 year use)
    • Vitamin B12 deficiency (impaired absorption)
    • Bone fractures (hip, spine, wrist) - especially >50 years, >1 year use
    • Community-acquired pneumonia
    • Drug interactions: reduce absorption of drugs needing acidic pH (ketoconazole, iron, ampicillin, clopidogrel - reduced antiplatelet effect via CYP2C19)
New class - Potassium-Competitive Acid Blockers (P-CABs): Vonoprazan - reversibly blocks K+ binding site of proton pump; faster onset; not dependent on acid for activation

B. H2-RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS

Drugs: Cimetidine, Ranitidine (withdrawn), Famotidine, Nizatidine
Mechanism:
  • Competitively block H2 receptors on parietal cells
  • Reduce acid secretion by 60-70%
  • Primarily inhibit fasting/nocturnal secretion (not as effective against meal-stimulated acid)
Pharmacokinetics:
  • Oral bioavailability 50% (cimetidine, famotidine) to 90% (nizatidine)
  • Half-life 1.1-4 hours
  • Renal excretion - dose reduction needed in renal failure
Clinical Uses:
  • GERD (mild-moderate), PUD, stress ulcer prophylaxis
Adverse Effects:
  • Cimetidine: gynecomastia, decreased libido/impotence (antiandrogenic effects); inhibits CYP450 (major drug interactions - warfarin, phenytoin, theophylline, lidocaine); crosses BBB → confusion in elderly
  • Tolerance develops with continuous use (tachyphylaxis)

C. ANTACIDS

Types: Aluminum hydroxide (constipating), Magnesium hydroxide (laxative), Calcium carbonate, Sodium bicarbonate
  • Neutralize gastric acid; provide rapid symptomatic relief
  • Aluminum antacids can cause phosphate depletion (with long-term use)
  • Magnesium antacids: contraindicated in renal failure (Mg accumulation)
  • High sodium antacids (NaHCO3): avoid in hypertension/cardiac failure

D. MUCOSAL PROTECTIVE AGENTS

1. Sucralfate
  • Polymerized sucrose-aluminum salt; activated in acid (pH <4)
  • Forms a viscous paste that coats and protects ulcer base
  • Stimulates prostaglandin and bicarbonate secretion
  • Does NOT reduce acid secretion
  • Requires acidic pH - avoid concurrent PPIs/antacids (or give 2 hours apart)
  • Constipation (most common side effect); can bind and reduce absorption of other drugs
  • Used: PUD treatment, stress ulcer prophylaxis
2. Bismuth Compounds (Bismuth subsalicylate, Colloidal bismuth subcitrate)
  • Coat ulcer base
  • Have direct antimicrobial activity against H. pylori
  • Used in H. pylori eradication regimens (quadruple therapy)
  • May cause black stool, black tongue; neurotoxicity with long-term high-dose use
3. Misoprostol
  • Synthetic PGE1 analog
  • Stimulates mucus and bicarbonate secretion; inhibits acid secretion; increases mucosal blood flow
  • Used for NSAID-induced ulcer prevention
  • Contraindicated in pregnancy (uterotonic - causes abortion; used therapeutically for medical abortion)
  • Adverse effects: diarrhea, abdominal cramping (dose-limiting)

E. H. PYLORI ERADICATION REGIMENS

Triple Therapy (14 days):
  • PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin (or Metronidazole if penicillin allergy)
Quadruple Therapy (10-14 days, for clarithromycin resistance):
  • PPI + Bismuth + Metronidazole + Tetracycline
Sequential Therapy:
  • PPI + Amoxicillin (5 days) → PPI + Clarithromycin + Metronidazole (5 days)

SECTION 2: GI MOTILITY DRUGS

Enteric Nervous System (ENS)

  • Submucosal plexus (Meissner's) and myenteric plexus (Auerbach's)
  • Serotonin (5-HT) from EC cells is key mediator:
    • 5-HT3 receptors on extrinsic afferents → nausea, vomiting, pain
    • 5-HT4 receptors → enhance ACh release → promote motility
  • Dopamine: inhibitory neurotransmitter in GIT

A. PROKINETICS

1. Metoclopramide
  • D2 receptor antagonist; also 5-HT3 antagonist and 5-HT4 agonist
  • Increases esophageal sphincter pressure; accelerates gastric emptying
  • Also has central antiemetic action (blocks CTZ)
  • Uses: GERD, diabetic gastroparesis, chemotherapy nausea
  • Adverse effects: tardive dyskinesia (with long-term use - irreversible), extrapyramidal effects (acute dystonia), drowsiness, restlessness; hyperprolactinemia → galactorrhea, gynecomastia
2. Domperidone
  • D2 antagonist; does NOT cross BBB (fewer CNS side effects)
  • But: prolongs QT interval; risk of cardiac arrhythmias
  • Not approved in USA
3. Erythromycin
  • Motilin receptor agonist
  • Potent gastric prokinetic; useful for gastroparesis
  • Tachyphylaxis develops with continued use
4. Prucalopride
  • Selective 5-HT4 agonist; approved for chronic constipation
  • Fewer cardiovascular effects than older 5-HT4 agonists (cisapride - withdrawn due to QT prolongation)

SECTION 3: LAXATIVES

ClassExamplesMechanism
Bulk-formingPsyllium, methylcelluloseAbsorb water, increase stool bulk
OsmoticPEG, lactulose, magnesium salts, sorbitolRetain water in lumen osmotically
StimulantBisacodyl, senna, castor oilStimulate mucosal secretion and motility (irritate mucosa, ENS)
Stool softenerDocusateSurfactant; allows water/fat penetration
LubricantMineral oilLubricate stool surface
Key Points:
  • PEG (polyethylene glycol): osmotic; used for whole bowel irrigation pre-colonoscopy and chronic constipation
  • Lactulose: metabolized by colonic bacteria → lactic acid → osmotic effect; also used in hepatic encephalopathy (traps NH3 as NH4+)
  • Chronic stimulant laxative use → cathartic colon, melanosis coli (with anthraquinone laxatives like senna)

SECTION 4: ANTIDIARRHEALS

1. Loperamide
  • Opioid receptor agonist (μ); does NOT cross BBB at normal doses
  • Decreases intestinal motility and increases anal sphincter tone
  • Increases electrolyte and water absorption
  • No CNS/analgesic effects
  • Drug of choice for traveler's diarrhea; IBS-D
2. Diphenoxylate + Atropine (Lomotil)
  • Opioid agonist; atropine added to discourage abuse
  • Crosses BBB slightly; some CNS effects
3. Bismuth Subsalicylate
  • Antimicrobial; antisecretory (salicylate component)
  • Used for traveler's diarrhea prevention
4. Octreotide
  • Somatostatin analog; inhibits secretion of gut hormones and acid
  • Uses: secretory diarrhea (VIPoma, carcinoid), dumping syndrome, short bowel syndrome, GI bleeding
  • Low doses (50 mcg SC) → stimulate motility; high doses (>100 mcg) → inhibit motility
  • Adverse effects: steatorrhea, nausea, gallstones (>50% with long-term use), hyperglycemia, hypothyroidism, bradycardia
5. Bile Acid Sequestrants (Cholestyramine)
  • Used for bile acid-induced diarrhea (after ileal resection)

SECTION 5: ANTIEMETICS

Mechanism-based Classification

DrugReceptor BlockedUse
MetoclopramideD2, 5-HT3 (antagonist), 5-HT4 (agonist)CINV, gastroparesis
Ondansetron, Granisetron5-HT3 antagonistCINV, postop nausea, IBS-D
PromethazineH1, muscarinic, D2Motion sickness, PONV
ProchlorperazineD2 (CTZ)CINV, general emesis
DomperidoneD2 (peripheral)Nausea, gastroparesis
Dronabinol/NabiloneCB1 cannabinoidCINV (refractory)
Aprepitant/FosaprepitantNK1 (substance P)Highly emetogenic chemo
ScopolamineMuscarinic (M1)Motion sickness
Lorazepam/DiazepamGABA-A (benzodiazepine)Anticipatory vomiting
DexamethasoneNot fully definedCINV combination
Key: Ondansetron
  • 5-HT3 antagonist; peripheral (gut) + central (CTZ)
  • No D2 blockade → no EPS
  • Side effect: headache, constipation, QT prolongation
  • Drug of choice for CINV
Key: Aprepitant
  • NK1 receptor antagonist (blocks substance P in CNS)
  • Used for prevention of acute AND delayed CINV
  • Prodrug fosaprepitant given IV

SECTION 6: DRUGS FOR INFLAMMATORY BOWEL DISEASE (IBD)

Types: Ulcerative Colitis (UC) vs Crohn Disease (CD)

A. AMINOSALICYLATES (5-ASA Drugs)

Forms: Sulfasalazine, Mesalamine, Olsalazine, Balsalazide
Mechanism:
  • Act topically on diseased mucosa
  • Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, decrease cytokines
Sulfasalazine:
  • Sulfapyridine (carrier, absorbed) + 5-ASA (active part, stays in colon)
  • Sulfapyridine causes most side effects: nausea, headache, hemolytic anemia, male infertility (reversible), rare agranulocytosis
Mesalamine (5-ASA):
  • Various formulations to deliver 5-ASA to different GI sites
  • Oral (Asacol, Pentasa, Lialda), rectal suppositories/enemas
  • Side effects: nephrotoxicity (rare), pancreatitis (rare)
Use: Mild-moderate UC (first line); mild CD (less effective)

B. CORTICOSTEROIDS

  • Prednisone, methylprednisolone (systemic)
  • Budesonide (oral controlled ileal release - minimal systemic absorption; fewer side effects)
  • Used for moderate-severe flares; not for maintenance (side effects)
  • Budesonide: first-line for mild-moderate CD of terminal ileum/proximal colon

C. IMMUNOMODULATORS

1. Azathioprine (AZA) / 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP)
  • Purine analogs - inhibit lymphocyte proliferation
  • Slow onset: 3-6 months to full effect
  • Uses: maintenance of remission in IBD, steroid-sparing
  • Metabolized by TPMT (thiopurine methyltransferase) - check TPMT status before use
  • Adverse effects: bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, increased risk of lymphoma and non-melanoma skin cancer
2. Methotrexate
  • Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase → decreased folate → inhibits purine/pyrimidine synthesis
  • Used in CD (not as effective in UC)
  • Given weekly IM; oral less effective
  • Adverse effects: hepatic fibrosis, pulmonary toxicity, teratogenic (Category X)

D. BIOLOGIC AGENTS

1. Anti-TNF-α Agents
DrugTypeRouteUse
InfliximabChimeric IgG1 monoclonal AbIV infusionUC + CD
AdalimumabFully human IgG1 monoclonal AbSC injectionUC + CD
Certolizumab pegolPEGylated Fab' fragmentSC injectionCD
GolimumabFully human IgG1SC injectionUC
Mechanism: Block TNF-α → decrease inflammation
Adverse effects (class):
  • Reactivation of latent TB (screen with TST/IGRA before starting)
  • Serious infections (bacterial, viral, fungal)
  • Hepatitis B reactivation
  • Hepatic reactions
  • Demyelinating disorders
  • Worsening CHF
  • Psoriatic skin rashes
  • Lymphoma risk (increased vs. background)
  • Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma (rare; young patients on combo immunosuppression)
  • Non-melanoma skin cancers
2. Anti-Integrin Therapy
Natalizumab: Anti-α4 integrin monoclonal Ab
  • Risk of PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) due to JC virus reactivation
  • Rarely used now
Vedolizumab: Anti-α4β7 integrin monoclonal Ab (gut-selective)
  • Blocks leukocyte trafficking to gut only
  • No CNS JC virus risk (brain-sparing)
  • IV infusion: 300 mg at 0, 2, 6 weeks → then every 8 weeks
  • Second-line for moderate-severe UC or CD
3. Anti-IL-12/23 Therapy Ustekinumab: Anti-p40 subunit of IL-12 and IL-23
  • Blocks TH1 and TH17 responses
  • IV induction, then SC maintenance every 8 weeks
  • Used for moderate-severe CD (biologic-naive or failed other biologics)
4. Anti-IL-23 (anti-p19 subunit) Risankizumab: Specific for IL-23 only; SC; used for moderate-severe CD
5. JAK Inhibitors Tofacitinib: JAK1/3 inhibitor; oral; approved for UC
  • Risks: serious infections, PE/DVT, cardiovascular events, malignancy

SECTION 7: DRUGS FOR IBS

  • IBS: abdominal pain + altered bowel habits (no structural disease)
IBS-D (diarrhea-predominant):
  • Loperamide (antidiarrheal)
  • Alosetron (5-HT3 antagonist) - women with severe IBS-D only; risk of ischemic colitis
  • Rifaximin (non-absorbable antibiotic) - reduces gut bacterial overgrowth
  • Eluxadoline (μ/κ opioid agonist + δ opioid antagonist) - reduces pain and diarrhea
IBS-C (constipation-predominant):
  • Fiber, osmotic laxatives (PEG, MgOH)
  • Linaclotide and Plecanatide (guanylate cyclase-C agonists) - increase fluid secretion into lumen
  • Lubiprostone (ClC-2 chloride channel activator) - increases intestinal fluid secretion
Chronic abdominal pain in IBS:
  • Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline 10-50 mg/d) - alter visceral afferent processing

SECTION 8: DRUGS FOR GI BLEEDING

Variceal Bleeding:
  • Octreotide IV - decreases splanchnic blood flow; reduces portal pressure
  • Beta blockers (propranolol, nadolol) - reduce portal pressure long-term
  • Vasopressin (terlipressin) - vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels; risk of coronary ischemia
Peptic Ulcer Bleeding:
  • IV PPIs (esomeprazole/pantoprazole continuous infusion) - maintain pH >6, stabilize clot
  • Endoscopic hemostasis


MCQs - KATZUNG GIT PHARMACOLOGY


Q1. Which receptor type, when activated, increases cytosolic calcium in parietal cells to stimulate acid secretion?
  • A) H2 receptor
  • B) M3 muscarinic receptor
  • C) CCK-A receptor
  • D) 5-HT4 receptor
Answer: B - M3 muscarinic (and gastrin/CCK-B) increase Ca2+; H2 increases cAMP.

Q2. A patient is started on omeprazole for GERD. Which statement about its mechanism is CORRECT?
  • A) It competitively blocks H2 receptors on parietal cells
  • B) It irreversibly binds H+/K+-ATPase after activation in acidic environment
  • C) It increases prostaglandin synthesis in gastric mucosa
  • D) It requires alkaline pH for activation
Answer: B - PPIs are prodrugs activated in acidic canalicular environment, then irreversibly bind H+/K+-ATPase.

Q3. Why should PPIs be taken 30-60 minutes before meals?
  • A) They irritate gastric mucosa if taken on empty stomach
  • B) They need a meal to activate their prodrug form
  • C) Active proton pumps are needed for drug activation; meals stimulate pump activity
  • D) Food increases their intestinal absorption
Answer: C - PPIs only inactivate actively secreting pumps. Meals stimulate pumps to move to the canalicular surface, maximizing drug activation.

Q4. Which H2 blocker causes gynecomastia, decreased libido, and inhibits CYP450 enzymes?
  • A) Famotidine
  • B) Nizatidine
  • C) Ranitidine
  • D) Cimetidine
Answer: D - Cimetidine has antiandrogenic effects and is the most potent CYP450 inhibitor among H2 blockers.

Q5. A patient with NSAID-induced ulcers needs prophylaxis. Which drug directly mimics prostaglandin E1 to protect the gastric mucosa?
  • A) Sucralfate
  • B) Misoprostol
  • C) Bismuth subsalicylate
  • D) Omeprazole
Answer: B - Misoprostol is a synthetic PGE1 analog.

Q6. Sucralfate requires which environment for activation?
  • A) Alkaline (pH >7)
  • B) Neutral (pH 7)
  • C) Acidic (pH <4)
  • D) pH-independent
Answer: C - Sucralfate polymerizes at pH <4 to form a sticky paste coating the ulcer base.

Q7. A young woman on omeprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome asks about pregnancy. Which GI drug is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy due to uterotonic effects?
  • A) Sucralfate
  • B) Omeprazole
  • C) Misoprostol
  • D) Famotidine
Answer: C - Misoprostol is uterotonic and can cause abortion; contraindicated in pregnancy.

Q8. Which antiemetic works primarily by blocking NK1 (neurokinin-1/substance P) receptors and is used for delayed chemotherapy-induced nausea?
  • A) Ondansetron
  • B) Metoclopramide
  • C) Aprepitant
  • D) Prochlorperazine
Answer: C - Aprepitant is an NK1 receptor antagonist covering both acute and delayed CINV.

Q9. A patient on metoclopramide for 6 months develops involuntary orofacial movements. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • A) Parkinson disease
  • B) Drug-induced tardive dyskinesia
  • C) Huntington chorea
  • D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: B - Long-term D2 blockade by metoclopramide causes tardive dyskinesia (can be irreversible).

Q10. Ondansetron prevents chemotherapy-induced nausea by blocking which receptor?
  • A) D2 dopamine
  • B) H1 histamine
  • C) 5-HT3 serotonin
  • D) NK1 substance P
Answer: C - Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 antagonist acting at peripheral (gut) and central (CTZ) sites.

Q11. Lactulose is used in hepatic encephalopathy because it:
  • A) Directly reduces ammonia production by liver
  • B) Is converted by gut bacteria to acids that trap NH3 as NH4+ and acidify colon
  • C) Directly absorbs ammonia in the colon
  • D) Inhibits urease-producing bacteria
Answer: B - Lactulose is metabolized to lactic/acetic acid by colonic bacteria → acidifies colon → NH3 + H+ → NH4+ (ionized, not absorbed).

Q12. Which drug used for chronic constipation is a 5-HT4 agonist with a good cardiac safety profile?
  • A) Cisapride
  • B) Tegaserod
  • C) Prucalopride
  • D) Metoclopramide
Answer: C - Prucalopride is a highly selective 5-HT4 agonist with fewer cardiovascular effects. Cisapride was withdrawn due to QT prolongation.

Q13. What is the mechanism of octreotide in treating carcinoid syndrome?
  • A) Blocks 5-HT3 receptors peripherally
  • B) Inhibits hormonal secretion from tumor via somatostatin receptor agonism
  • C) Directly destroys carcinoid tumor cells
  • D) Stimulates intestinal motility to clear serotonin faster
Answer: B - Octreotide is a somatostatin analog that inhibits secretion of GI hormones (serotonin, VIP, etc.) from neuroendocrine tumors.

Q14. Before starting infliximab for Crohn disease, which screening test is MANDATORY?
  • A) Echocardiogram
  • B) Renal function tests
  • C) Tuberculin skin test (TST) or IGRA for latent TB
  • D) Serum ammonia level
Answer: C - All anti-TNF agents can reactivate latent TB; mandatory TB screening before initiation.

Q15. A patient on azathioprine for IBD is found to have very low TPMT enzyme activity. What is the risk?
  • A) Rapid metabolism and drug inefficacy
  • B) Accumulation of toxic thioguanine nucleotides → severe bone marrow suppression
  • C) Hypersensitivity reaction only
  • D) Increased risk of opportunistic infections unrelated to drug levels
Answer: B - Low TPMT → accumulation of active metabolites (6-thioguanine nucleotides) → myelosuppression.

Q16. Vedolizumab differs from natalizumab because it:
  • A) Blocks α4β1 integrins systemically
  • B) Specifically blocks α4β7 integrin, restricting effect to gut and sparing CNS trafficking
  • C) Inhibits IL-23 signaling
  • D) Is an oral small molecule drug
Answer: B - Vedolizumab's gut-selective mechanism avoids the PML risk seen with natalizumab (which also blocks brain lymphocyte trafficking).

Q17. Which laxative works by increasing intraluminal fluid secretion via activation of guanylate cyclase-C receptors on intestinal epithelium?
  • A) Bisacodyl
  • B) Lactulose
  • C) Linaclotide
  • D) Docusate
Answer: C - Linaclotide (and plecanatide) are GC-C agonists approved for IBS-C and chronic constipation.

Q18. A patient with diarrhea-predominant IBS is prescribed alosetron. Which serious adverse effect requires careful patient selection?
  • A) Tardive dyskinesia
  • B) Ischemic colitis
  • C) PML
  • D) Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma
Answer: B - Alosetron (5-HT3 antagonist) is associated with ischemic colitis; available only for women with severe IBS-D.

Q19. Methotrexate used in Crohn disease is contraindicated in pregnancy because it is:
  • A) Category B
  • B) Teratogenic (Category X)
  • C) A Category C drug with acceptable risk
  • D) Only contraindicated in the third trimester
Answer: B - Methotrexate is teratogenic; absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy (Category X).

Q20. Dopamine acts in the GI tract as:
  • A) An excitatory neurotransmitter increasing esophageal contractions
  • B) An inhibitory neurotransmitter decreasing intensity of esophageal and gastric contractions
  • C) A stimulant of parietal cell acid secretion
  • D) A selective agonist at 5-HT3 receptors
Answer: B - Dopamine is inhibitory in the GIT, which is why D2 antagonists (metoclopramide) promote motility.

Source: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 16th Edition - Chapter 62: Drugs Used in the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases (equivalent to Chapter 59 in earlier editions)
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