You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 40-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of increased bilateral pain in his knees. The pain developed over time and now limits his mobility. He states that the pain is worse at the end of the day, though he does have some early-morning stiffness lasting about 20 minutes. He used to have some success with over-the-counter NSAIDs; however, they no longer help. The patient also has been taking metformin for the past 2 years and is severely obese, with a BMI of 41 kg/m2. Additionally, he states that he has felt increasingly tired during the day, often dozes off during work, and no longer feels refreshed when he wakes up in the morning. Upon examination, there is no tenderness on palpation or erythema; however, some crepitus is felt. He has no other complaints but has a family history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) on his mother’s side. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of the patient’s pain, as well as the rest of his complaints? Options: A) Medication side effect B) Excess weight C) Infection D) Occult malignancy Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.