You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: Two hours after admission to the hospital for rupture of membranes, a 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 40 weeks’ gestation is evaluated for the sudden onset of chills, dyspnea, confusion, and hypotension. The patient successfully underwent combined spinal-epidural anesthesia 1 hour ago. Her pregnancy was uncomplicated with the exception of a positive vaginal swab for group B streptococci 3 weeks ago, for which she received one dose of intravenous penicillin. Her temperature is 37.6°C (99.8°F), pulse is 130/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 70/30 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 82%. Physical examination shows labored breathing and thready pulses. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. The abdomen is nontender. Speculum examination shows pooling of bright red blood in the cervical canal. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 7.6 mg/dL and an undetectable fibrinogen concentration. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s current condition? Options: A) Apical ballooning of the left ventricle B) Amniotic fluid entering the endocervical veins C) Anesthetic agent entering the subarachnoid space D) Systemic bacterial infection Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.