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Give me 10 neet ss mcq without answer

Here are 10 NEET SS (Super Specialty) MCQs across various surgical and medical specialties:
1. A 45-year-old male presents with progressive dysphagia to solids more than liquids, significant weight loss, and a barium swallow showing a "rat-tail" appearance. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Achalasia cardia B) Carcinoma esophagus C) Diffuse esophageal spasm D) Peptic stricture
2. In a patient with obstructive jaundice due to carcinoma head of pancreas, the gallbladder is palpable and non-tender. This sign is known as:
A) Murphy's sign B) Courvoisier's sign C) Grey Turner's sign D) Cullen's sign
3. A 30-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe headache, palpitations, and hypertension. 24-hour urinary VMA is elevated. The most appropriate initial investigation to localize the lesion is:
A) CT scan abdomen B) MRI abdomen C) MIBG scintigraphy D) Selective venous sampling
4. Which of the following is the most common site of gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)?
A) Esophagus B) Stomach C) Small intestine D) Colorectum
5. A patient undergoes Whipple's procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy). Which of the following structures is NOT removed during this procedure?
A) Head of pancreas B) Duodenum C) Distal stomach D) Spleen
6. The "double bubble" sign on plain X-ray of the abdomen in a neonate is characteristic of:
A) Jejunal atresia B) Duodenal atresia C) Hirschsprung disease D) Malrotation of the gut
7. A 60-year-old male with cirrhosis presents with a 3 cm solitary hepatocellular carcinoma. According to the Milan criteria, which of the following management options is most appropriate?
A) Chemotherapy alone B) Liver transplantation C) TACE (Transarterial chemoembolization) alone D) Sorafenib therapy
8. In Hartmann's procedure, which of the following best describes what is done?
A) Sigmoid colectomy with primary anastomosis B) Anterior resection with protective loop ileostomy C) Resection of sigmoid colon with end colostomy and closure of rectal stump D) Total colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis
9. A patient presents with a neck swelling that moves on swallowing but not on tongue protrusion. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Thyroglossal cyst B) Thyroid nodule C) Branchial cyst D) Dermoid cyst
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
A) Parathyroid adenoma B) Chronic kidney disease C) Vitamin D toxicity D) Thiazide diuretic use
These questions cover hepatobiliary surgery, endocrine surgery, GI surgery, and pediatric surgery - all high-yield areas for NEET SS. Want answers with explanations, or more MCQs from a specific specialty (e.g., urology, cardiothoracic, neurosurgery)?

Anaestheisa neet ss

Here are 10 NEET SS Anaesthesia MCQs:
1. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of a volatile anaesthetic agent is defined as the alveolar concentration that prevents movement in response to surgical incision in:
A) 50% of patients B) 75% of patients C) 95% of patients D) 99% of patients
2. A patient develops masseter muscle rigidity and a rapid rise in end-tidal CO₂ following induction with succinylcholine and sevoflurane. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B) Malignant hyperthermia C) Thyroid storm D) Serotonin syndrome
3. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents is CONTRAINDICATED in patients with renal insufficiency due to production of inorganic fluoride ions?
A) Isoflurane B) Desflurane C) Sevoflurane D) Halothane
4. In a patient with a full stomach requiring emergency surgery, the preferred technique to prevent pulmonary aspiration during intubation is:
A) Awake fibreoptic intubation B) Rapid sequence induction (RSI) with cricoid pressure C) Inhalational induction with halothane D) Ketamine induction without muscle relaxant
5. The "train of four" (TOF) monitoring is used to assess:
A) Depth of anaesthesia B) Degree of neuromuscular blockade C) Adequacy of analgesia D) Level of neuraxial block
6. A 35-year-old patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia develops sudden hypotension, bradycardia, and nausea after injection of bupivacaine at L3-L4. The most appropriate immediate management is:
A) IV atropine alone B) Head-down tilt, IV fluids, vasopressors (ephedrine/phenylephrine) C) Intralipid infusion D) Immediate general anaesthesia
7. Which of the following opioids is associated with chest wall rigidity ("wooden chest syndrome") when given rapidly in large doses?
A) Morphine B) Pethidine C) Fentanyl D) Tramadol
8. The Guedel's classification describes the stages of anaesthesia. In which stage does the patient exhibit irregular breathing, breath-holding, and vomiting reflexes - making it the most DANGEROUS stage?
A) Stage I (Analgesia) B) Stage II (Excitement/Delirium) C) Stage III (Surgical anaesthesia) D) Stage IV (Medullary depression)
9. A patient weighing 70 kg is to receive succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation. What is the correct dose?
A) 0.1 mg/kg (7 mg) B) 0.5 mg/kg (35 mg) C) 1-1.5 mg/kg (70-105 mg) D) 3 mg/kg (210 mg)
10. Which of the following is the reversal agent for non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade caused by rocuronium or vecuronium, that works by encapsulation rather than anticholinesterase inhibition?
A) Neostigmine B) Edrophonium C) Sugammadex D) Pyridostigmine
Bonus Q:
11. Bispectral Index (BIS) monitoring measures:
A) Neuromuscular junction activity B) Processed EEG to assess depth of anaesthesia C) Cardiac output during anaesthesia D) Cerebral perfusion pressure
Want answers + explanations for all of these? Or more MCQs on specific Anaesthesia subtopics like - regional anaesthesia, airway management, pharmacology, ICU/critical care, or paediatric anaesthesia?
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