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python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('/tmp/workspace/attachments/918b007f-5b5e-4eb5-bda2-82f85cf25c0d/Safari.pdf') as pdf: print(f'Total pages: {len(pdf.pages)}') for i, page in enumerate(pdf.pages[:5]): print(f'\n--- PAGE {i+1} ---') print(page.extract_text()) "
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python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('/tmp/workspace/attachments/918b007f-5b5e-4eb5-bda2-82f85cf25c0d/Safari.pdf') as pdf: for i, page in enumerate(pdf.pages[5:]): print(f'\n--- PAGE {i+6} ---') print(page.extract_text()) " 2>&1 | head -400
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python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('/tmp/workspace/attachments/918b007f-5b5e-4eb5-bda2-82f85cf25c0d/Safari.pdf') as pdf: for i, page in enumerate(pdf.pages[17:]): print(f'\n--- PAGE {i+18} ---') print(page.extract_text()) " 2>&1
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python3 -c " import pdfplumber with pdfplumber.open('/tmp/workspace/attachments/918b007f-5b5e-4eb5-bda2-82f85cf25c0d/Safari.pdf') as pdf: print('--- PAGE 17 ---') print(pdf.pages[16].extract_text()) print('--- PAGE 18 ---') print(pdf.pages[17].extract_text()) "
All 200 questions extracted. Here are the complete answers with brief explanations:
GPSC Question Paper BKV-2 - Answer Key with Explanations
OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY (Q1-57)
| Q | Ans | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | (C) 55% | ~55% of fetal cardiac output goes to placenta via umbilical arteries |
| 2 | (C) 300 mg | Proteinuria defined as ≥300 mg protein in 24-hour urine |
| 3 | (B) 10-12 weeks | Fetal thyroid starts concentrating iodine at 10-12 weeks of gestation |
| 4 | (C) Type II alveolar cells | Surfactant (phospholipid) is secreted by Type II pneumocytes (alveolar cells) |
| 5 | (A) Post-maturity | Saffron/yellow-green meconium indicates post-maturity (chronic fetal hypoxia) |
| 6 | (D) Phenytoin | Fetal Hydantoin syndrome is caused by Phenytoin (Hydantoin = old name for phenytoin) |
| 7 | (B) Genital tuberculosis | Beaded/pipe-stem appearance of fallopian tubes on HSG is classic for genital TB |
| 8 | (B) 5-6 weeks | Gestational sac visible on TVS at 5-6 weeks of gestation |
| 9 | (C) Constriction of hepatic portal sinus | At birth: foramen ovale closes, ductus arteriosus & umbilical vessels constrict. Hepatic portal sinus is not a perinatal circulatory change |
| 10 | (D) Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome | Well-developed breasts + no axillary/pubic hair + primary amenorrhea = CAIS (46XY, androgen insensitivity) |
| 11 | (C) Early menopause | Late menopause (prolonged estrogen exposure) is a risk factor; early menopause is protective for endometrial carcinoma |
| 12 | (A) FSH | Inhibin B (from granulosa cells) selectively suppresses FSH secretion from pituitary |
| 13 | (C) Chromosome 17 | BRCA1 is located on chromosome 17q21 |
| 14 | (A) Dysgerminoma | Elevated ALP + negative AFP + negative CA-125 in ovarian mass of young female = Dysgerminoma |
| 15 | (B) III B | Endometrial Ca: >50% myometrium = Stage II; + vaginal metastasis = Stage IIIB |
| 16 | (D) MSD > 25 mm without yolk sac | Abnormal IUP: MSD >25 mm without yolk sac (per updated ACOG/RCOG criteria) |
| 17 | (B) Trichloroacetic acid | TCA is safe in pregnancy for genital warts; Podophyllin and Imiquimod are contraindicated in pregnancy |
| 18 | (B) Regression of uterine size | Regression of uterine size is a GOOD sign post-mole evacuation; chemotherapy NOT indicated for it |
| 19 | (D) WPW syndrome | WPW is a relative but NOT absolute contraindication for pregnancy; the rest (PPH, Eisenmenger's, Marfan's) are absolute contraindications |
| 20 | (A) CRL ≥ 7 mm without cardiac activity | Missed abortion: CRL ≥7 mm with no cardiac activity on TVS |
| 21 | (B) Misoprostol | Moebius syndrome (6th & 7th nerve palsy) in fetus is associated with maternal misoprostol use |
| 22 | (D) MRI | MRI is gold standard for congenital uterine anomaly diagnosis |
| 23 | (A) Sono-salpingography | "Sion test" = Sono-salpingography (sonosalpingography) |
| 24 | (D) > 12 mm | Junctional zone thickness >12 mm on MRI is diagnostic of adenomyosis |
| 25 | (C) > 5 cms | Placental thickness >5 cm is suggestive of fetal hydrops |
| 26 | (B) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve | Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (meralgia paresthetica) is most commonly injured during normal vaginal delivery |
| 27 | (A) 1 to 4 mm | Endometrial thickness during menstrual phase: 1-4 mm |
| 28 | (C) More than 10 mm³ | PCO on USG: ovarian volume >10 cm³ (note: the options say mm³ but standard criteria is >10 cm³) |
| 29 | (B) Autosomal recessive | Alpha thalassemia is autosomal recessive (gene deletions on chromosome 16) |
| 30 | (B) Hamartoma | Hamartoma of breast contains fat (hence fat-containing lesion on imaging) |
| 31 | (D) Turner's syndrome | Single umbilical artery is associated with Trisomy 13, Trisomy 18, and amniotic band syndrome - NOT Turner's syndrome |
| 32 | (C) HPV 16 | HPV 16 is the most common type associated with cervical cancer (~50-60% of cases) |
| 33 | (D) Haemorrhage | Most common cause of death in uterine inversion is haemorrhage (not neurogenic shock) |
| 34 | (A) Decreases as pregnancy advances | MCA resistance decreases (vasodilation) as pregnancy progresses; in fetal compromise, resistance decreases further |
| 35 | (C) 2nd trimester | Agenesis of corpus callosum is diagnosed earliest in 2nd trimester on USG (typically 18-20 weeks) |
| 36 | (D) Abnormal FHR pattern during labour | Best correlate of CS scar dehiscence/rupture is abnormal FHR pattern |
| 37 | (B) 0.1 mL | Critical sensitizing volume for Rh isoimmunization is 0.1 mL of fetal blood |
| 38 | (A) Screening test for aneuploidy | NIPT is a prenatal screening test (not diagnostic); confirmatory diagnosis requires amniocentesis/CVS |
| 39 | (C) Placenta | Umbilical artery Doppler reflects placental vascular resistance |
| 40 | (B) Basal Vacuolation | Earliest morphological sign of ovulation in endometrial biopsy = subnuclear (basal) vacuolation (Day 16-17) |
| 41 | (D) Gartner's Duct | Gartner's duct is a derivative of the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct, NOT paramesonephric duct. All others (appendix of testis, Hydatid of Morgagni, uterus) are paramesonephric derivatives |
| 42 | (B) Genital ridge | Ovary develops from the genital (gonadal) ridge (urogenital ridge) |
| 43 | (A) 8 years | Precocious puberty = onset of menstruation before age 8 years |
| 44 | (B) Lactobacillus | Lactobacillus (Doderlein's bacillus) is the dominant protective bacterium in normal vaginal flora; maintains acidic pH |
| 45 | (B) Progesterone | Rise in basal body temperature at ovulation is due to progesterone (thermogenic effect) |
| 46 | (D) Trichomonal vaginitis | Strawberry vagina (strawberry cervix - colpitis macularis) is pathognomonic of Trichomonas vaginalis infection |
| 47 | (A) Hymen | Baden-Walker halfway system uses the hymen as the reference point for grading prolapse |
| 48 | (B) Type B spermatogonia | Type B spermatogonia divide mitotically to form primary spermatocytes |
| 49 | (A) Absence of semen | Aspermia = absence of semen (no ejaculate). Azoospermia = no spermatozoa in semen |
| 50 | (D) Inhibiting ovulation | Combined OCPs primarily act by inhibiting ovulation (suppressing LH surge) |
| 51 | (C) Kallmann syndrome | Kallmann syndrome = primary amenorrhea + anosmia (GnRH neuron migration defect with olfactory bulb agenesis) |
| 52 | (D) Clear cell carcinoma | Clear cell carcinoma (and uterine papillary serous carcinoma) are the most malignant/aggressive endometrial carcinomas |
| 53 | (D) Inhibin | Inhibin B is the tumor marker for granulosa cell tumor |
| 54 | (C) Premature Atrial Contraction | PAC is the most common fetal arrhythmia (usually benign) |
| 55 | (D) 1.2/1000 live births | Neural tube defect incidence at birth is approximately 1.2/1000 live births |
| 56 | (C) 69 XXY | Partial mole karyotype = 69 XXY (triploid) - most common triploid partial mole |
| 57 | (C) WHO Class 3 | Cyanotic heart disease = WHO Class 3 (significantly increased risk; pregnancy generally not recommended) |
SURGERY (Q58-120)
| Q | Ans | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 58 | (C) Benson and Durfee | Trans-abdominal isthmic cerclage was described by Benson and Durfee (1965) |
| 59 | (D) T10-L1 | Pain in early labour (uterine contractions, cervical dilatation) travels via T10-L1 dermatomes |
| 60 | (A) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | CAH (21-hydroxylase deficiency) is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism |
| 61 | (C) 1 hour before surgery | Perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis should ideally be given within 60 minutes (1 hour) before incision |
| 62 | (C) Irregular pulse | Irregular pulse is NOT a feature of brain tumor; features include raised ICP, seizures, and focal deficits |
| 63 | (A) Superficial femoral artery | Superficial femoral artery (in Hunter's canal/adductor canal) is most commonly involved in intermittent claudication |
| 64 | (C) Brachial plexus | Zone 3 of neck (above angle of mandible to base of skull) contains brachial plexus roots, jugular vein, carotid artery |
| 65 | (C) Bladder | Most common content of sliding hernia (on left side: sigmoid colon; on right side: bladder/cecum; overall: bladder is classic "sliding" content) |
| 66 | (A) 10% | Only ~10% of gallstones are radiopaque (calcium-containing) |
| 67 | (C) Testicular torsion | Testicular torsion is a painful emergency; hydrocele, epididymal cysts, and testicular tumors are painless |
| 68 | (D) Lower border of C6 | Adult larynx ends at the lower border of C6 vertebra |
| 69 | (C) Hamartoma | Hamartoma is the most common benign tumor of the lung (also called pulmonary chondroid hamartoma) |
| 70 | (C) Anosmia | Triad of general anaesthesia: Amnesia + Analgesia + Muscle relaxation. Anosmia is NOT part of the triad |
| 71 | (C) Severe colitis | Severe colitis (risk of perforation) is a contraindication for total colonoscopy |
| 72 | (C) Haemostatic phase - Inflammatory phase - Remodelling phase | Correct wound healing order: Hemostasis → Inflammation → Proliferation → Remodelling |
| 73 | (A) Type 3 to Type 1 | During remodelling phase, weak Type III collagen is replaced by stronger Type I collagen |
| 74 | (A) Autologous long saphenous vein | Autologous LSV (long saphenous vein) is the best conduit for SFA bypass grafting |
| 75 | (D) Core needle biopsy | Core needle biopsy (CNB) is the preferred method for definitive diagnosis of palpable and non-palpable breast abnormalities |
| 76 | (B) Milligan Morgan method | Open haemorrhoidectomy = Milligan-Morgan method; Ferguson = closed |
| 77 | (C) Trans jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt | TIPS = Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt |
| 78 | (A) 2 weeks prior | Vaccines (pneumococcal, meningococcal, Hib) should be given at least 2 weeks before elective splenectomy |
| 79 | (A) E. coli | E. coli is the most common cause of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) in cirrhosis |
| 80 | (A) Focused assessment with sonography for trauma | FAST = Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma |
| 81 | (A) Toxoplasma | Toxoplasma gondii causes brain abscess via food contamination (undercooked meat/cat feces) |
| 82 | (B) Epstein-Barr virus | EBV is strongly associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma (undifferentiated type) |
| 83 | (B) Extensor carpi radialis | Tennis elbow (lateral epicondylitis) primarily involves Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis (ECRB) |
| 84 | (B) Lignocaine + Prilocaine | EMLA = Eutectic Mixture of Local Anaesthetics = Lignocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5% |
| 85 | (D) Systolic BP > 90 mmHg | In permissive hypotension for trauma (NOT head injury) - but for head injury, target is SBP >90 mmHg to maintain CPP |
| 86 | (B) Proliferative phase | Hypertrophic scars result from excessive/prolonged proliferative phase |
| 87 | (C) Factor VIII | Cryoprecipitate is rich in Factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, fibrinogen, and Factor XIII |
| 88 | (A) Blood Products | Ideal replacement for blood loss is blood products (packed RBCs + FFP + platelets) |
| 89 | (B) Sacrum | Sacrum is the most common site of pressure sores (~30%), followed by heels |
| 90 | (B) Pleomorphic adenoma | Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor) is the most common benign salivary gland tumor (~65-80%) |
| 91 | (A) Direct lymphangiography | Direct lymphangiography is gold standard for structural abnormalities of larger lymphatics/nodes |
| 92 | (A) Popliteal artery aneurysm | Popliteal artery aneurysm is the most common peripheral arterial aneurysm |
| 93 | (D) Deoxycholic acid | Secondary bile salts (formed by gut bacteria) = Deoxycholic acid and Lithocholic acid. Primary bile salts = Cholic + Chenodeoxycholic acid |
| 94 | (B) Neck | Neck of pancreas is most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma (lies over spine) |
| 95 | (C) Acute pancreatitis | Secondary peritonitis = from intra-abdominal source (acute pancreatitis). Others listed are causes of spontaneous/primary peritonitis |
| 96 | (B) Chlamydia | Epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young males is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (and N. gonorrhoeae) |
| 97 | (D) Proximal fragment of scaphoid | Proximal pole/fragment of scaphoid is at highest risk of AVN due to retrograde blood supply |
| 98 | (C) Bier's block | Bier's block = Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia (IVRA) for upper limb surgery |
| 99 | (B) Neck of condyle | Most common site of mandible fracture = condylar neck (subcondylar region) |
| 100 | (D) Pelvic | Pelvic surgery (total hip replacement, pelvic cancer surgery) carries highest risk of DVT |
| 101 | (D) Extensive devitalised tissue | Tetanus-prone wounds: devitalized tissue, soil contamination, puncture wounds, delays >6 hours |
| 102 | (A) Line between gallbladder fossa and middle hepatic vein | Cantlie's line divides right and left liver lobes - runs from gallbladder fossa to middle hepatic vein (IVC) |
| 103 | (B) Acute cholecystitis | Tokyo Guidelines are internationally accepted guidelines for management of acute cholangitis and acute cholecystitis |
| 104 | (C) Tibial shaft fracture | Tibial shaft fracture is the most common fracture associated with acute compartment syndrome |
| 105 | (C) Serum lactate level | Serum lactate is the best measure of organ/tissue perfusion (reflects anaerobic metabolism) |
| 106 | (B) Stemmer sign | Stemmer's sign = inability to pinch skin on dorsum of toes/fingers - positive in lymphoedema |
| 107 | (A) Grey Turner sign | Grey Turner sign = flank ecchymosis = retroperitoneal bleed in acute pancreatitis. Cullen sign = periumbilical |
| 108 | (B) 1.5 L | At least 1.5 L (1500 mL) of ascitic fluid is needed to elicit shifting dullness |
| 109 | (D) Priapism | Priapism (persistent penile erection) is a strong predictor of spinal cord injury in intubated trauma patients |
| 110 | (D) Fat embolism | Sudden breathlessness on Day 2-3 after long bone (femur) fracture = Fat Embolism Syndrome |
| 111 | (D) Nitrofurantoin | Red/orange urine: haematuria, rifampicin, myoglobinuria. Nitrofurantoin causes brown/dark urine, NOT red |
| 112 | (A) Marcus Gunn pupil | Primary open-angle glaucoma can cause RAPD (relative afferent pupillary defect) = Marcus Gunn pupil |
| 113 | (B) Urinary tract infection | UTI is the most common hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infection (~30-40%) |
| 114 | (A) Howell-Jolly bodies | Post-splenectomy: Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants in RBCs) are the classic finding |
| 115 | (A) 20 mL/hr | CSF is produced at ~20 mL/hour (500 mL/day); total CSF volume ~150 mL |
| 116 | (C) 7 g/dL | Transfusion threshold: Hb <7 g/dL in most patients (liberal = <8 g/dL in cardiac patients) |
| 117 | (A) Ruptured aneurysm | Ruptured berry (saccular) aneurysm is the most common cause of spontaneous SAH (~80%) |
| 118 | (A) Genital herpes | Genital herpes (HSV-2) is the most common cause of genital ulcers worldwide |
| 119 | (A) Thymoma | Thymoma is the most common mediastinal tumor in adults (anterior mediastinum) |
| 120 | (A) Benign finding - recommend annual screening | BIRADS 2 = Definitely benign finding; recommend routine annual screening |
COMMUNITY MEDICINE / PSM (Q121-200)
| Q | Ans | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 121 | (A) Hippocrates | Hippocrates introduced concept of environment-disease relationship in "Air, Water, Places" |
| 122 | (A) Social dysfunction | Sickness = social role dysfunction (sociological concept by Parsons). Illness = subjective; Disease = pathological |
| 123 | (A) Objective compound of level of living | PQLI (Physical Quality of Life Index) = objective composite measure using infant mortality, life expectancy at age 1, and literacy |
| 124 | (B) Human Poverty Index | Disability rates measured by: Sullivan's Index, HALE, DALY. Human Poverty Index measures poverty, not disability |
| 125 | (A) Primordial prevention | Primordial prevention = preventing emergence of risk factors in the first place |
| 126 | (A) Chlorination of drinking water | Prevention paradox: an intervention brings large community benefit but little benefit to each individual (e.g., water chlorination protects many but each individual has little personal risk) |
| 127 | (B) Case fatality rate | Case fatality rate (CFR) is the best yardstick for assessing standards/quality of therapy |
| 128 | (B) 66 | 110 - 40 = 70 people ate fruit salad; 55 developed food poisoning; Attack rate = 55/70 × 100 = 78.5% ≈ 78 - actually (C) 78 |
| 129 | (D) Descriptive epidemiology | For unknown/new disease with no hypothesis: Descriptive epidemiology is first step |
| 130 | (B) Height for age | Height-for-age reflects chronic/long-term malnutrition (stunting) |
| 131 | (C) Body weight | Body weight is a continuous/ratio scale, NOT nominal. Race, sex, socioeconomic status are nominal scales |
| 132 | (A) SD is zero | Normal distribution: SD is NOT zero (it is a fixed value). It IS bilaterally symmetrical, bell-shaped, with mean=median=mode |
| 133 | (A) Egg | Egg has the highest biological value (BV = 100, reference protein) |
| 134 | (D) Culture | Culture = learned behavior that is socially acquired and transmitted |
| 135 | (C) Sling psychrometer | Sling psychrometer (wet and dry bulb thermometer) measures relative humidity |
| 136 | (B) Sharp waste | Sharp waste is NOT incinerated (risk of injury); it is autoclaved/chemically treated then landfilled in puncture-proof containers |
| 137 | (C) Number of vaccines for the disease | Herd immunity threshold depends on transmissibility (R0), vaccine efficacy, and contact patterns - NOT the number of vaccines available |
| 138 | (D) Old age | Gerontology = study of aging and the elderly |
| 139 | (C) Inter-personal communication | Interpersonal communication (face-to-face) is the most persuasive and effective method for behavior change |
| 140 | (D) Cross-resistance existed with animal pox | Smallpox eradication succeeded because: no subclinical transmission, effective vaccine, lifelong immunity. Cross-resistance with animal pox is NOT a reason for eradication success |
| 141 | (D) 90% | Secondary attack rate of chickenpox in susceptible household contacts is ~90% |
| 142 | (B) Measles | Measles does NOT have significant subclinical infection (almost all infections are clinically apparent). Others (mumps, rubella, polio) have high rates of subclinical infection |
| 143 | (A) 6-12 weeks | Risk of fetal damage from rubella is maximum in first 8-10 weeks (first trimester); option A (6-12 weeks) is the best answer |
| 144 | (B) BSL-2 | SARS-CoV-2 viral specimens require BSL-2; live virus propagation requires BSL-3 |
| 145 | (D) 80% | Herd immunity threshold for diphtheria is >80% |
| 146 | (B) Healthy young adolescent moving to hostel | Meningococcal vaccine recommended for adolescents moving to dormitories/hostels (crowded settings) |
| 147 | (D) All of the above | TB droplet nuclei spread by coughing, speaking, and singing |
| 148 | (D) Ethionamide | XDR-TB = MDR-TB + resistance to any fluoroquinolone + any injectable (kanamycin/amikacin/capreomycin). Ethionamide is NOT part of the XDR-TB definition |
| 149 | (D) Health planning | PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) and critical path methods are tools for health planning and management |
| 150 | (D) Eliminate | National Strategic Plan for END TB pillars: Prevent, Detect, Treat, Build. "Eliminate" is not a pillar |
| 151 | (C) P1 and P3 | Bivalent OPV (bOPV) contains poliovirus types 1 and 3 (type 2 was removed after eradication of wild type 2) |
| 152 | (A) 6 weeks | Poliovirus is shed in stool for up to 6 weeks after infection |
| 153 | (A) Ogawa | Ogawa is the most common cholera strain in India |
| 154 | (C) Persistence of Vi antibodies | Persistent Vi antibody titres (>1:20) are the strongest evidence of typhoid carrier status |
| 155 | (A) 0-6 hours | Staphylococcal food poisoning incubation period = 1-6 hours (pre-formed toxin, very short) |
| 156 | (C) Diarrhoea | Botulism features: descending paralysis, dysarthria, diplopia, blurred vision, constipation (NOT diarrhoea - constipation is the feature) |
| 157 | (C) Hook worms | Chandler's index = average hookworm burden per person (used in hookworm epidemiology) |
| 158 | (D) Management method | ABC and VED analyses are inventory management methods used for drug/supply management |
| 159 | (D) Stephensi | Anopheles stephensi is the vector of urban malaria in India |
| 160 | (B) 11 pm - 2 am | Microfilariae (Wuchereria bancrofti) show nocturnal periodicity - maximum density in peripheral blood between 10 pm and 2 am |
| 161 | (B) KFD | Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is caused by a Type A arbovirus (Flavivirus) - an Indian epidemic |
| 162 | (D) Average number of fleas per rat | Cheopis index = average number of Xenopsylla cheopis fleas per rat (used in plague surveillance) |
| 163 | (D) Relapsing fever | Soft tick (Ornithodoros) transmits relapsing fever (Borrelia). Hard tick = tick typhus, KFD, tularemia |
| 164 | (B) Framingham study | The Framingham Heart Study is the best-known large cohort study for coronary heart disease |
| 165 | (B) TSH | TSH is the most sensitive indicator of hypothyroidism (elevated even in subclinical hypothyroidism) |
| 166 | (A) Cyclic trend | Accidents on weekends show cyclic/periodic variation (regular, repeating pattern) |
| 167 | (C) Respiratory rate | APGAR score criteria: Appearance (skin color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex), Activity (muscle tone), Respiration (effort). Respiratory rate alone is NOT used - respiratory EFFORT is assessed |
| 168 | (D) All of the above | Confidentiality can be disclosed in court of law, public health threat, and serious drug reactions |
| 169 | (C) X-linked recessive | Haemophilia A & B are X-linked recessive - affects males, carried by females |
| 170 | (D) Discard the vaccine | VVM: if inner square is darker than outer circle = vaccine has been heat-damaged - DISCARD |
| 171 | (A) BCG | Freeze-dried (lyophilized) vaccines: BCG, measles, MMR, yellow fever, varicella. OPV, DPT, Hep B are liquid |
| 172 | (C) 48 hours | Nosocomial/hospital-acquired infection = infection developing >48 hours after hospital admission |
| 173 | (C) Both (A) and (B) | Ayushman Bharat has two components: Health and Wellness Centers (HWC) + PMJAY (PM Jan Arogya Yojana) |
| 174 | (B) Village health sanitation and nutrition committee | VHSNC (Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition Committee) is responsible for village health planning under NHM |
| 175 | (C) MERS | MERS-CoV (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) was first reported from Saudi Arabia in 2012 |
| 176 | (D) 2003 | COTPA (Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act) was passed in 2003 |
| 177 | (A) Bordetella pertussis | Whooping cough / "Hundred-day cough" is caused by Bordetella pertussis |
| 178 | (C) 20,000 and 3,000 respectively | For tribal/hilly areas: PHC covers 20,000 population; Sub-centre covers 3,000 population |
| 179 | (B) 60 mg iron and 500 mcg folic acid weekly | Anemia Mukt Bharat: Adolescent females receive weekly IFA (60 mg iron + 500 mcg FA) under WIFS |
| 180 | (A) Start ATT and ART simultaneously | HIV-TB co-infection: Start ATT first, then ART within 2-8 weeks. In severely immunocompromised (CD4 <50), start simultaneously. The BEST answer here is (A) per current guidelines |
| 181 | (D) Doxycycline | Cholera treatment in adults: single dose Doxycycline 300 mg is the antibiotic of choice |
| 182 | (C) Merozoite | Blood transfusion malaria is caused by merozoites (the erythrocytic stage, present in donor blood) |
| 183 | (A) My Health, My Right | World Health Day 2024 theme was "My Health, My Right." (2025 theme = "Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures") |
| 184 | (A) 32 | BMI = Weight(kg)/Height(m)² = 98 / (1.75)² = 98 / 3.0625 = 32 kg/m² |
| 185 | (C) Tetanus | Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani (soil organism); it is NOT a zoonotic disease. Brucellosis, leptospirosis, anthrax are all zoonoses |
| 186 | (D) 1st December | World AIDS Day = 1st December every year |
| 187 | (A) Health of travelers | Emporiatrics (travel medicine) = science dealing with health of travelers |
| 188 | (A) Learning the way of society | Socialization = the process of learning norms, values, and behaviors of a society |
| 189 | (A) Hand hygiene | WHO's "Clean Care is Safer Care" initiative focuses on hand hygiene in healthcare settings |
| 190 | (B) Chronic AR | Pansystolic murmur: Chronic MR ✓, Small restrictive VSD ✓, Large non-restrictive VSD (may have pansystolic). Aortic Regurgitation produces an early DIASTOLIC murmur, NOT pansystolic |
| 191 | (B) Severe AR and AS | Pulsus bisferiens (two systolic peaks) is seen in combined severe AR + AS, and in HOCM |
| 192 | (D) APACHE II | APACHE II scores using age, type of ICU admission, chronic health conditions, and 12 physiological variables - ideal for this scenario |
| 193 | (B) Absence seizures | Classic absence seizures: brief staring + eye blinking + 3 Hz spike-wave on EEG + provoked by hyperventilation + no postictal confusion |
| 194 | (A) Systemic antibiotics are not indicated unless condition deteriorates | In sterile pancreatic necrosis, prophylactic antibiotics are NOT routinely indicated (per current guidelines) |
| 195 | (B) A3, B1, C2 | Edward Jenner - Smallpox vaccine (3); Walter Reed - Yellow fever (1); James Lind - Scurvy (2) |
| 196 | (B) Vibrio cholera | Category A bioterrorism agents: anthrax, smallpox, plague (Yersinia pestis), botulism, tularemia, viral hemorrhagic fevers. Vibrio cholera is Category B, NOT Category A |
| 197 | (C) Union Minister of Labour | The Chairman of ESI Corporation is the Union Minister of Labour and Employment |
| 198 | (B) 33 | MMR of Gujarat as per NHA 2018-22 = 33 per 100,000 live births |
| 199 | (C) 70 | Life expectancy at birth in India as per SRS 2016-20 = 70 years (69.7 years) |
| 200 | (C) Maternal and child care | ANMOL (ANM Online) is a tablet-based app for ANMs for maternal and child health service delivery |
Note on Q128: Attack rate = 55/70 × 100 = 78.6%, so the answer is (C) 78, not 66. Note on Q183: World Health Day 2025 theme is "Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures." If the question refers to 2024, answer is **(A) My Health, My Right.**All 200 answers are provided above. Here's a quick summary:
Paper Summary
GPSC BKV-2 - 200 MCQs covering 3 subjects:
| Subject | Questions | Key Topics |
|---|---|---|
| Obstetrics & Gynaecology | Q1-57 | Fetal physiology, anomalies, cancer staging, contraception, infertility, USG parameters |
| Surgery | Q58-120 | Trauma, anaesthesia, wound healing, oncology, vascular surgery, GI surgery |
| Community Medicine (PSM) | Q121-200 | Epidemiology, vaccines, national programs, biostatistics, communicable diseases |
Key corrections to note:
- Q128: Attack rate = 55/70 × 100 = 78% → Answer (C)
- Q183: If referring to 2025 WHD theme → "Healthy Beginnings, Hopeful Futures"; if 2024 → (A) My Health, My Right
- Q180: Current WHO/RNTCP guidelines recommend starting ATT first, then ART within 2-8 weeks in most; simultaneously if CD4 <50
Feel free to ask about any specific question for a deeper explanation!
Ans
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GPSC Gujarat Public Service Commission exam pattern 2025 2026 updates
Here is a complete and up-to-date overview of the GPSC Exam Pattern 2025-26:
GPSC Exam Pattern - Latest Updates (2025-26)
Overview
The Gujarat Public Service Commission conducts different exams depending on the post. There is no single universal pattern - each recruitment has its own structure. Here is what's current:
1. GPSC CCE (Class 1 & 2 Combined Competitive Exam) - Most Competitive
Prelims
| Component | Details |
|---|---|
| Papers | 2 (General Studies Paper 1 + Paper 2) |
| Questions | 200 per paper (400 total) |
| Duration | 3 hours per paper (6 hours total) |
| Type | Objective / MCQ |
| Medium | English + Gujarati |
| Negative marking | Yes |
GS Paper 1 Topics: History (Indian + Gujarati), Cultural Heritage, Constitution & Polity, Mental Ability & Quantitative Aptitude
GS Paper 2 Topics: Indian Economy & Planning, Geography, Science & Technology, Current Affairs
Mains
| Component | Details |
|---|---|
| Papers | 6 descriptive papers |
| Marks | 150 marks each = 900 marks total |
| Duration | 3 hours per paper |
Final Stage
- Personality Test / Interview for shortlisted candidates
2. Technical/Specialist Posts (e.g., Assistant Engineer, Medical Officer, etc.)
This is the pattern relevant to the question paper you uploaded (BKV-2 = Medical Officer exam):
| Component | Details |
|---|---|
| Type | Single-stage Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Questions | 300 MCQs total |
| General Studies | 100 questions (100 marks) |
| Subject-Specific | 200 questions (200 marks) |
| Duration | 3 hours |
| Medium | English |
| Marks per correct answer | 1 mark |
| Followed by | Interview / Document Verification |
3. GPSC Exam Calendar 2026 - Key Dates
The updated calendar was released on 6 July 2026 covering 1,052+ vacancies:
| Month | Exams Scheduled |
|---|---|
| July 2026 | AE Civil/Mechanical, Geologist, Gujarati Reporter, Research Officer |
| August 2026 | Various Class 1 & 2 posts |
| October 2026 | Multiple recruitments |
| December 2026 | More recruitments |
4. Recent Notable Updates (2025-26)
- GPSC Exam Calendar 2026 released on 6 July 2026 - official website
- 1,052 total vacancies announced for 2026
- 279 posts (AE, Town Planner, Medical Officer, etc.) were notified in January 2026 with prelims on 26 April 2026
- Special drives for PwD candidates added to the 2026 calendar
- Application fee remains ₹100 for General/OBC/EWS; nil for SC/ST/Female
5. Selection Process by Post Type
| Post | Stage 1 | Stage 2 | Stage 3 |
|---|---|---|---|
| Class 1 & 2 (CCE) | Prelims (MCQ) | Mains (Descriptive) | Interview |
| AE / Technical | Prelims (CBT) | Interview | - |
| Medical Officer | Prelims (CBT) | Interview | - |
| Station Officer | Prelims | Mains | - |
For the most current notifications, check the official GPSC website directly, as new advertisements are released month-wise throughout the year.
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