You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 45-year-old man presents to your office with a 2-year history of moderate-to-severe pelvic pain, irritative voiding urinary symptoms (frequency and dysuria), and occasional frank blood in his semen with painful ejaculation. He has been evaluated by several practitioners, who have all prescribed antimicrobial therapy, including ciprofloxacin, with no improvement and leading to emotional distress and sleep disturbances. The physical examination is unremarkable, except for a mildly tender prostate, without masses or nodules. There are no testicular masses, hernias, or hemorrhoids. Additionally to this health issue, you have also been following him for recurrent abdominal pain, periods of constipation and diarrhea, and fatigability, with all test results within the normal range thus far. A summary of recent tests is shown in the following table: Urine test Sample White cells Culture Mid-stream urine Negative Negative Expressed prostatic secretion Positive Negative What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? Options: A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia B) Chronic, non-bacterial prostatitis C) Chronic prostatitis by resistant Escherichia coli D) Interstitial cystitis Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.