You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 27-year-old man with a history of cocaine abuse comes to the physician 2 weeks after undergoing successful arthroscopic repair of a torn medial collateral ligament in his left knee. There were no complications. He was discharged with prescriptions for oxycodone and acetaminophen. He complains of severe pain that prevents him from participating in physical therapy and wakes him from sleep. Physical examination of the left knee shows a healing incision; there is no joint effusion, erythema, or evidence of wound dehiscence, and his gait is normal. When the physician recommends switching to ibuprofen for pain, he becomes visibly angry and demands a refill of oxycodone. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient's request? Options: A) Prescribe a long-acting opioid for better pain relief if he is willing to sign a pain contract B) Request further information about which drugs he has taken recently and in the past C) Request consent for urine test to assess current drug use D) Refer to a substance use counselor for addiction counseling Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.