Give me 5 MCQ on the lesson congestive heart failure

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I now have rich material from Braunwald's Heart Disease and Goldman-Cecil Medicine to craft well-grounded MCQs. Here are 5 MCQs on Congestive Heart Failure:

5 MCQs: Congestive Heart Failure


Question 1 — Pathophysiology
A 65-year-old man with a history of anterior MI presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and bilateral leg swelling. His LVEF is 32%. Which of the following best describes his heart failure classification?
  • A) Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
  • B) Heart failure with mildly reduced ejection fraction (HFmrEF)
  • C) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
  • D) Isolated right heart failure
Answer: C - HFrEF is defined by LVEF ≤ 40%. This patient's LVEF of 32% falls squarely in this category. HFpEF requires LVEF ≥ 50%, and HFmrEF spans 41-49%. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 479)

Question 2 — Pharmacological Treatment
According to current guidelines, which of the following represents the four foundational, life-saving drug classes that should ALL be initiated (in any order) in patients with HFrEF?
  • A) Diuretic, digoxin, nitrate, calcium channel blocker
  • B) ARNI, beta-blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, SGLT2 inhibitor
  • C) ACE inhibitor, diuretic, digoxin, ivabradine
  • D) ARB, beta-blocker, hydralazine, diuretic
Answer: B - Guidelines specify four foundational therapies for HFrEF: an angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor (ARNI), a β-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA), and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Diuretics are also required for congestion control but are not among the four mortality-reducing pillars. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 480; Braunwald's Heart Disease)

Question 3 — Clinical Signs & NYHA Classification
A patient with heart failure can climb one flight of stairs but becomes breathless doing ordinary household activities. There are no symptoms at rest. Which NYHA functional class does this patient belong to?
  • A) Class I
  • B) Class II
  • C) Class III
  • D) Class IV
Answer: C - NYHA Class III is defined by marked limitation of physical activity - the patient is comfortable at rest but symptoms arise with less-than-ordinary exertion. Class II = symptoms only with ordinary exertion; Class IV = symptoms at rest. (Braunwald's Heart Disease; Goldman-Cecil Medicine)

Question 4 — Diuretic Use
A 70-year-old woman with stage C HFrEF is on furosemide 40 mg daily. She develops increasing leg edema and orthopnea. Her BMP shows Na 138, K 3.1, Cr 1.2. What is the most appropriate next step in diuretic management?
  • A) Stop the diuretic to prevent further electrolyte imbalance
  • B) Switch to a thiazide diuretic only
  • C) Temporarily increase the diuretic dose to achieve dry weight, with electrolyte monitoring
  • D) Add a calcium channel blocker to reduce afterload
Answer: C - The key principle of diuretic therapy in CHF is to prescribe the minimum dose needed to maintain an edema-free "dry weight," with temporary dose increases for fluid retention. Stopping the diuretic would worsen congestion. NSAIDs should be avoided as they worsen renal function in this setting. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 480)

Question 5 — Atrial Fibrillation & Heart Failure
A patient with known systolic heart failure (LVEF 30%) develops atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate. Which of the following is the most appropriate rate-control strategy?
  • A) Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., verapamil)
  • B) Beta-blockers and/or digoxin
  • C) Amiodarone as the first-line rhythm-control agent
  • D) Flecainide for rhythm control
Answer: B - In patients with systolic heart failure, beta-blockers and digoxin are the preferred rate-control agents. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem) are contraindicated in systolic HF as they further depress myocardial function. For rhythm control, only amiodarone and dofetilide are safe in HF (flecainide is pro-arrhythmic in structural heart disease). (Braunwald's Heart Disease, p. 533)

Sources: Goldman-Cecil Medicine (2-Volume Set) | Braunwald's Heart Disease (2 Vol Set, Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine)

Give me another 5 MCQ

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Excellent material. Here are 5 new, non-overlapping MCQs covering BNP diagnostics, echocardiography, ACE inhibitor contraindications, MRA use, and SGLT2 inhibitors:

5 More MCQs: Congestive Heart Failure


Question 6 — Biomarkers / Diagnosis
A 72-year-old obese woman presents to the ED with dyspnea. BNP is measured and comes back at 180 pg/mL (elevated). The physician states the result may be falsely low. Which patient characteristic most likely accounts for a lower-than-expected BNP level despite true heart failure?
  • A) Advanced age
  • B) Renal dysfunction
  • C) Obesity
  • D) Female sex
Answer: C - Obesity reduces circulating BNP levels, which can lead to a falsely low result even when heart failure is present. In contrast, advancing age and renal dysfunction are associated with higher BNP levels. BNP is sensitive (95-99%) but less specific (50-60%) for heart failure diagnosis. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 472)

Question 7 — Investigations / Echocardiography
A patient is newly diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following is the single most important initial investigation to assess ventricular and valvular function?
  • A) Chest X-ray
  • B) 12-lead ECG
  • C) Cardiac MRI
  • D) Echocardiogram
Answer: D - An echocardiogram should be obtained during the initial evaluation of all heart failure patients. It assesses systolic and diastolic function, wall thickness, chamber size, regional wall motion abnormalities, and valvular dysfunction. Repeated echocardiograms are indicated for significant clinical changes, but routine repeat measurements without clinical change are not recommended. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 472)

Question 8 — Pharmacology / ACE Inhibitor Contraindications
A 68-year-old man with HFrEF is being considered for an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to its use?
  • A) Serum potassium of 4.8 mmol/L
  • B) Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
  • C) History of angioedema with a previous ACE inhibitor
  • D) Systolic blood pressure of 95 mmHg
Answer: C - A history of angioedema with an ACE inhibitor is an absolute contraindication to their use. Known bilateral renal artery stenosis is another absolute contraindication. Potassium >5.0 mmol/L, creatinine ≥2.5 mg/dL, and systolic BP <90 mmHg are cautions requiring specialist advice, but are not absolute contraindications at the thresholds listed in options A, B, and D. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 480)

Question 9 — Pharmacology / MRA Adverse Effects
A 58-year-old man with HFrEF (LVEF 28%) is started on spironolactone. At his 4-week follow-up, he complains of painful breast enlargement. His renal function and electrolytes are normal. What is the best next step?
  • A) Stop the MRA entirely, as it is no longer safe
  • B) Switch to eplerenone, which has less antiandrogenic activity
  • C) Reduce the dose to the lowest possible and monitor
  • D) Add testosterone supplementation to counteract the effect
Answer: B - Spironolactone can cause painful gynecomastia in men due to its antiandrogenic effects. Eplerenone, also a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA), has less action on the androgen receptor and is the appropriate substitute in this situation. The clinical benefit of MRA therapy (reduced mortality and morbidity) means it should be continued in a suitable form rather than stopped. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 480)

Question 10 — Pharmacology / SGLT2 Inhibitors
A 60-year-old man with HFrEF and type 2 diabetes is being started on an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin). His eGFR is 18 mL/min/1.73 m². Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
  • A) Initiate the SGLT2 inhibitor - diabetes makes it especially indicated
  • B) Withhold the SGLT2 inhibitor due to severe renal dysfunction (eGFR <20)
  • C) Use at half the standard dose given the reduced eGFR
  • D) The drug is only beneficial in patients with diabetes, so it must be used here
Answer: B - The only contraindications to SGLT2 inhibitors in HFrEF are type 1 diabetes, history of diabetic ketoacidosis, and severe renal dysfunction defined as eGFR <20 mL/min/1.73 m². This patient's eGFR of 18 falls below that threshold, making it a contraindication. Importantly, SGLT2 inhibitors benefit HFrEF patients regardless of diabetes status. (Goldman-Cecil Medicine, p. 480)

Sources: Goldman-Cecil Medicine International Edition (2-Volume Set) | Swanson's Family Medicine Review | Braunwald's Heart Disease
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