You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 63-year-old man from the countryside presents with leg swelling and right upper abdominal tenderness. He reports a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, but he has no supporting documentation. At the moment, his only medication is aspirin. He also stated that he used to have ‘high blood sugars’ when checked in the hospital 4 years ago, but he did not follow up regarding this issue. He works as a farmer and noticed that it became much harder for him to work in the last few days because of fatigue and syncope. He has a 24-pack-year history of smoking and consumes alcohol occasionally. The vital signs include: blood pressure 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate 83/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 36.5℃ (97.7℉). On physical examination, the patient is pale and acrocyanotic. There is a visible jugular vein distention and bilateral lower leg pitting edema. The pulmonary auscultation is significant for occasional bilateral wheezes. Cardiac auscultation is significant for a decreased S1, S3 gallop, and grade 3/6 systolic murmur best heard at the left sternal border in the 4th left intercostal space. Abdominal percussion and palpation are suggestive of ascites. The hepatic margin is 3 cm below the right costal margin. Hepatojugular reflux is positive. Which of the following is the most likely clinical finding observed in this patient on an echocardiogram? Options: A) Left ventricular ejection fraction of 41% B) Increased peak tricuspid regurgitation C) Hypokinetic wall of the left ventricle D) Abnormal left ventricular relaxation Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.