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Solve all questions 1 to 10 are true and false 11 to 20 mcq in correct and right
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pharmacology MCQ histamine bronchial asthma sumatriptan status epilepticus H2 receptor blockers
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pharmacotherapy systematic review
True / False: Questions 1-10
| Q | a | b | c | d | e |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | F | T | F | T | F |
| 2 | F | F | T | T | T |
| 3 | T | F | F | F | T |
| 4 | F | F | T | T | T |
| 5 | F | T | T | F | T |
| 6 | F | T | T | T | F |
| 7 | T | T | T | T | F |
| 8 | T | F | T | F | T |
| 9 | T | F | F | T | T |
| 10 | T | T | F | T | F |
MCQ: Questions 11-20
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 11 | d. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor |
| 12 | a. Coronary vasospasm |
| 13 | d. Salicylism |
| 14 | c. Corticosteroids |
| 15 | b. Halothane |
| 16 | a. Intravenous diazepam |
| 17 | b. They cause fastest healing of duodenal ulcers |
| 18 | d. Ciprofloxacin |
| 19 | a. To prevent development of resistance to drugs |
| 20 | d. Zidovudine |
Note: For Q18, ciprofloxacin is the expected traditional pharmacology exam answer. In current practice, empirical typhoid treatment should follow local resistance patterns, and third-generation cephalosporins or azithromycin are often used where fluoroquinolone resistance is high.
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H2 receptor blocker duodenal ulcer healing stress ulcer prophylaxis pharmacology
Questions 1-10: True / False
Q1. The following statements regarding histamine are correct:
a. Acts principally as a systemic hormone - False
b. Causes capillaries to dilate - True
c. Causes bronchial muscle to relax - False
d. Causes itching - True
e. Inhibits gastric secretion - False
b. Causes capillaries to dilate - True
c. Causes bronchial muscle to relax - False
d. Causes itching - True
e. Inhibits gastric secretion - False
Q2. Following statements regarding drugs used in PUD are correct:
a. Al(OH)₃ can cause diarrhoea - False
b. CaCO₃ is a non-systemic antacid that causes diarrhoea - False
c. Misoprostol is used in NSAID-induced peptic ulcer - True
d. PPIs can be used in GERD - True
e. NaHCO₃ can cause rebound acidity - True
b. CaCO₃ is a non-systemic antacid that causes diarrhoea - False
c. Misoprostol is used in NSAID-induced peptic ulcer - True
d. PPIs can be used in GERD - True
e. NaHCO₃ can cause rebound acidity - True
Q3. β-lactamase inhibitors are:
a. Clavulanic acid - True
b. Cephalosporin - False
c. Flucloxacillin - False
d. Tetracycline - False
e. Tazobactam - True
b. Cephalosporin - False
c. Flucloxacillin - False
d. Tetracycline - False
e. Tazobactam - True
Q4. Tricyclic antidepressant group of drugs:
a. Do not produce postural hypotension - False
b. Have a rapid onset of action - False
c. Inhibit the neuronal uptake of noradrenaline - True
d. May produce tachycardia - True
e. May cause constipation - True
b. Have a rapid onset of action - False
c. Inhibit the neuronal uptake of noradrenaline - True
d. May produce tachycardia - True
e. May cause constipation - True
Q5. Following statements regarding albendazole are correct:
a. Causes nephrotoxicity - False
b. Is used in hydatid disease - True
c. Impairs glucose uptake by parasites - True
d. Is safe for children below 1 year - False
e. May increase transaminases with prolonged use - True
b. Is used in hydatid disease - True
c. Impairs glucose uptake by parasites - True
d. Is safe for children below 1 year - False
e. May increase transaminases with prolonged use - True
Q6. Anti-inflammatory uses of NSAIDs are:
a. Acute gastritis - False
b. Low back pain - True
c. Rheumatoid arthritis - True
d. SLE - True
e. Unstable angina - False
b. Low back pain - True
c. Rheumatoid arthritis - True
d. SLE - True
e. Unstable angina - False
Q7. Adverse reactions of chlorpromazine are:
a. Akathisia - True
b. Parkinsonism - True
c. Salivation - False
d. Tardive dyskinesia - True
e. Vomiting - False
b. Parkinsonism - True
c. Salivation - False
d. Tardive dyskinesia - True
e. Vomiting - False
Q8. Advantages of essential drugs include:
a. Availability - True
b. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
c. Cost effectiveness - True
d. Limited use - False
e. Safety - True
b. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
c. Cost effectiveness - True
d. Limited use - False
e. Safety - True
Q9. Adverse effects of salbutamol are:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Sedation - False
d. Tachycardia - True
e. Tremor - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Sedation - False
d. Tachycardia - True
e. Tremor - True
Q10. Compared with erythromycin, azithromycin has:
a. Better gastric tolerance - True
b. Extended antimicrobial spectrum - True
c. Less tissue penetration - False
d. Longer duration of action - True
e. More drug interaction - False
b. Extended antimicrobial spectrum - True
c. Less tissue penetration - False
d. Longer duration of action - True
e. More drug interaction - False
Questions 11-20: MCQ
Q11. The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug-induced vomiting is:
Answer: d. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
Q12. The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is:
Answer: a. Coronary vasospasm
Q13. In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is:
Answer: b. Gastric mucosal damage
Q14. The most consistent, pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronchial asthma is afforded by:
Answer: c. Corticosteroids
Q15. Select the inhalational general anaesthetic mainly metabolized in the body to a significant extent:
Answer: b. Halothane
Q16. The preferred drug for status epilepticus is:
Answer: a. Intravenous diazepam
Q17. Choose the most appropriate statement about H2-receptor blockers:
Answer: c. They prevent stress ulcers in the stomach
Q18. Currently, the drug of choice for empirical treatment of typhoid fever is:
Answer: c. Cefixime
Q19. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in treatment of tuberculosis is:
Answer: a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
Q20. The virus-directed reverse transcriptase enzyme is inhibited by:
Answer: d. Zidovudine
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asthma salbutamol systematic review
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pharmacology ketorolac COX-1 platelet function levodopa phenytoin adverse effects status epilepticus
Questions 1-10: True / False
Q1. Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors are:
a. Aspirin - True
b. Corticosteroid - False
c. Montelukast - False
d. Misoprostol - False
e. PPI - False
b. Corticosteroid - False
c. Montelukast - False
d. Misoprostol - False
e. PPI - False
Q2. Antibiotics used in UTI with pregnancy:
a. Cephradine - True
b. Amoxicillin - True
c. Pivmecillinam - True
d. Co-trimoxazole - False
e. Azithromycin - False
b. Amoxicillin - True
c. Pivmecillinam - True
d. Co-trimoxazole - False
e. Azithromycin - False
Q3. Phenytoin may cause:
a. Impairment of cognitive functions - True
b. Hirsutism - True
c. Osteomalacia - True
d. Hair loss - False
e. Pancreatitis - False
b. Hirsutism - True
c. Osteomalacia - True
d. Hair loss - False
e. Pancreatitis - False
Q4. Drugs unsafe below five years old children are:
a. Tetracycline - True
b. Erythromycin - False
c. Streptomycin - False
d. Ofloxacin - True
e. Ciprofloxacin - True
b. Erythromycin - False
c. Streptomycin - False
d. Ofloxacin - True
e. Ciprofloxacin - True
Q5. The following statements regarding levodopa are correct:
a. Amino acid precursor of dopamine - True
b. Improves bradykinesia and rigidity more than tremor - True
c. Therapy should be initiated with a loading dose - False
d. Should be taken on an empty stomach - True
e. Involuntary movements and psychiatric complications are common adverse effects - True
b. Improves bradykinesia and rigidity more than tremor - True
c. Therapy should be initiated with a loading dose - False
d. Should be taken on an empty stomach - True
e. Involuntary movements and psychiatric complications are common adverse effects - True
Q6. Advantages of essential drugs include:
a. Safety - True
b. Limited use - False
c. Availability - True
d. Cost effectiveness - True
e. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
b. Limited use - False
c. Availability - True
d. Cost effectiveness - True
e. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
Q7. The following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine:
a. Sumatriptan - False
b. Ergotamine - False
c. Pizotifen - True
d. Propranolol - True
e. Methysergide - True
b. Ergotamine - False
c. Pizotifen - True
d. Propranolol - True
e. Methysergide - True
Q8. The following statements regarding ketorolac are correct:
a. Housekeeping function of GIT is restored - False
b. Inhibits COX-1 enzyme - True
c. No impact on platelet function - False
d. Has cardioprotective function - False
e. GIT disturbance is less - False
b. Inhibits COX-1 enzyme - True
c. No impact on platelet function - False
d. Has cardioprotective function - False
e. GIT disturbance is less - False
Q9. The following statements regarding isoniazid are correct:
a. Only effective against tuberculosis - True
b. Causes optic neuritis - False
c. Metabolized by acetylation - True
d. Bactericidal in effect - True
e. Kills both intra- and extracellular organisms - True
b. Causes optic neuritis - False
c. Metabolized by acetylation - True
d. Bactericidal in effect - True
e. Kills both intra- and extracellular organisms - True
Q10. Adverse effects of salbutamol are:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Tremor - True
d. Sedation - False
e. Tachycardia - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Tremor - True
d. Sedation - False
e. Tachycardia - True
Questions 11-20: MCQ
Q11. General anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is:
a. Halothane
b. Ether
c. Enflurane
d. Nitrous oxide
b. Ether
c. Enflurane
d. Nitrous oxide
Correct answer: a. Halothane
Q12. The preferred drug for status epilepticus is:
a. Intravenous diazepam
b. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
c. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
d. Rectal diazepam
b. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
c. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
d. Rectal diazepam
Correct answer: a. Intravenous diazepam
Q13. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as:
a. Hypnotic
b. Antiepileptic
c. Sedative
d. Preanaesthetic medicant
b. Antiepileptic
c. Sedative
d. Preanaesthetic medicant
Correct answer: b. Antiepileptic
Q14. Currently the drug of choice for empiric treatment of typhoid fever is:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxycillin
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxycillin
Correct answer: b. Ceftriaxone
Q15. The most important reason for restricted use of penicillin G injections is its:
a. Narrow spectrum of activity
b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
c. Short duration of action
d. Neurotoxicity
b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
c. Short duration of action
d. Neurotoxicity
Correct answer: b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
Q16. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in tuberculosis is:
a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
b. To obtain bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
b. To obtain bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
Correct answer: a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
Q17. The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug-induced vomiting is:
a. Histamine H1 receptor
b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
c. Dopamine D2 receptor
d. Opioid μ receptor
b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
c. Dopamine D2 receptor
d. Opioid μ receptor
Correct answer: b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
Q18. Which analgesic is more appropriate in reducing musculoskeletal pain rather than inflammation?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
Correct answer: c. Paracetamol
Q19. Inhaled salbutamol is useful in bronchial asthma for:
a. Aborting/terminating asthma attacks
b. Prophylaxis of asthma
c. Status asthmaticus
d. All of the above
b. Prophylaxis of asthma
c. Status asthmaticus
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Q20. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine:
a. Without aura
b. With aura
c. Than ergotamine
d. When combined with propranolol
b. With aura
c. Than ergotamine
d. When combined with propranolol
Correct answer: a. Without aura
Solve this as in same manner as previous one
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corticosteroids inhibit prostaglandin synthesis phospholipase A2 salbutamol asthma prophylaxis
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asthma inhaled salbutamol systematic review
Questions 1-10: True / False
Q1. Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors are:
a. Aspirin - True
b. Corticosteroid - True
c. Montelukast - False
d. Misoprostol - False
e. PPI - False
b. Corticosteroid - True
c. Montelukast - False
d. Misoprostol - False
e. PPI - False
Q2. Antibiotics used in UTI with pregnancy:
a. Cephradine - True
b. Amoxicillin - True
c. Pivmecillinam - True
d. Co-trimoxazole - False
e. Azithromycin - False
b. Amoxicillin - True
c. Pivmecillinam - True
d. Co-trimoxazole - False
e. Azithromycin - False
Q3. Phenytoin may cause:
a. Impairment of cognitive functions - True
b. Hirsutism - True
c. Osteomalacia - True
d. Hair loss - False
e. Pancreatitis - False
b. Hirsutism - True
c. Osteomalacia - True
d. Hair loss - False
e. Pancreatitis - False
Q4. Drugs unsafe below five years old children are:
a. Tetracycline - True
b. Erythromycin - False
c. Streptomycin - False
d. Ofloxacin - True
e. Ciprofloxacin - True
b. Erythromycin - False
c. Streptomycin - False
d. Ofloxacin - True
e. Ciprofloxacin - True
Q5. The following statements regarding levodopa are correct:
a. Amino acid precursor of dopamine - True
b. Improves bradykinesia and rigidity more than tremor - True
c. Therapy should be initiated with a loading dose - False
d. Should be taken on an empty stomach - True
e. Involuntary movements and psychiatric complications are common adverse effects - True
b. Improves bradykinesia and rigidity more than tremor - True
c. Therapy should be initiated with a loading dose - False
d. Should be taken on an empty stomach - True
e. Involuntary movements and psychiatric complications are common adverse effects - True
Q6. Advantages of essential drugs include:
a. Safety - True
b. Limited use - False
c. Availability - True
d. Cost effectiveness - True
e. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
b. Limited use - False
c. Availability - True
d. Cost effectiveness - True
e. Cannot be used by all health workers - False
Q7. The following drugs are used in prophylaxis of migraine:
a. Sumatriptan - False
b. Ergotamine - False
c. Pizotifen - True
d. Propranolol - True
e. Methysergide - True
b. Ergotamine - False
c. Pizotifen - True
d. Propranolol - True
e. Methysergide - True
Q8. The following statements regarding ketorolac are correct:
a. Housekeeping function of GIT is restored - False
b. Inhibits COX-1 enzyme - True
c. No impact on platelet function - False
d. Has cardioprotective function - False
e. GIT disturbance is less - False
b. Inhibits COX-1 enzyme - True
c. No impact on platelet function - False
d. Has cardioprotective function - False
e. GIT disturbance is less - False
Q9. The following statements regarding isoniazid are correct:
a. Only effective against tuberculosis - True
b. Causes optic neuritis - False
c. Metabolized by acetylation - True
d. Bactericidal in effect - True
e. Kills both intra- and extracellular organisms - True
b. Causes optic neuritis - False
c. Metabolized by acetylation - True
d. Bactericidal in effect - True
e. Kills both intra- and extracellular organisms - True
Q10. Adverse effects of salbutamol are:
a. Cardiac arrhythmias - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Tremor - True
d. Sedation - False
e. Tachycardia - True
b. Convulsion - False
c. Tremor - True
d. Sedation - False
e. Tachycardia - True
Questions 11-20: MCQ
Q11. General anaesthetic having significant cardiodepressant property is:
a. Halothane
b. Ether
c. Enflurane
d. Nitrous oxide
b. Ether
c. Enflurane
d. Nitrous oxide
Correct answer: a. Halothane
Q12. The preferred drug for status epilepticus is:
a. Intravenous diazepam
b. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
c. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
d. Rectal diazepam
b. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
c. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
d. Rectal diazepam
Correct answer: a. Intravenous diazepam
Q13. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as:
a. Hypnotic
b. Antiepileptic
c. Sedative
d. Preanesthetic medicant
b. Antiepileptic
c. Sedative
d. Preanesthetic medicant
Correct answer: b. Antiepileptic
Q14. Currently the drug of choice for empiric treatment of typhoid fever is:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxycillin
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxycillin
Correct answer: b. Ceftriaxone
Q15. The most important reason for restricted use of penicillin G injections is its:
a. Narrow spectrum of activity
b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
c. Short duration of action
d. Neurotoxicity
b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
c. Short duration of action
d. Neurotoxicity
Correct answer: b. Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
Q16. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in tuberculosis is:
a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
b. To obtain bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
b. To obtain bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
Correct answer: a. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
Q17. The most important receptor involved in cytotoxic drug-induced vomiting is:
a. Histamine H1 receptor
b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
c. Dopamine D2 receptor
d. Opioid μ receptor
b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
c. Dopamine D2 receptor
d. Opioid μ receptor
Correct answer: b. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor
Q18. Which analgesic is more appropriate in reducing musculoskeletal pain rather than inflammation?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
Correct answer: c. Paracetamol
Q19. Inhaled salbutamol is useful in bronchial asthma for:
a. Aborting or terminating asthma attacks
b. Prophylaxis of asthma
c. Status asthmaticus
d. All of the above
b. Prophylaxis of asthma
c. Status asthmaticus
d. All of the above
Correct answer: d. All of the above
Q20. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine:
a. Without aura
b. With aura
c. Than ergotamine
d. When combined with propranolol
b. With aura
c. Than ergotamine
d. When combined with propranolol
Correct answer: a. Without aura
Explain Q 18
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paracetamol musculoskeletal pain systematic review
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paracetamol analgesic weak anti-inflammatory action musculoskeletal pain pharmacology
Q18. Which analgesic is more appropriate in reducing musculoskeletal pain rather than inflammation?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Nimesulide
Correct answer: c. Paracetamol
Why?
Paracetamol is mainly an analgesic and antipyretic. It relieves mild to moderate pain but has very little anti-inflammatory action. Therefore, when the main problem is pain rather than swelling or inflammation, paracetamol is the appropriate option.
Paracetamol is mainly an analgesic and antipyretic. It relieves mild to moderate pain but has very little anti-inflammatory action. Therefore, when the main problem is pain rather than swelling or inflammation, paracetamol is the appropriate option.
- Ibuprofen, indomethacin, and nimesulide are NSAIDs. They reduce both pain and inflammation.
- Paracetamol is preferred for simple musculoskeletal pain when inflammation is not prominent, and it has less gastric irritation and less effect on platelets than NSAIDs.
Katzung describes acetaminophen/paracetamol as useful for mild to moderate pain when an anti-inflammatory effect is not necessary. It does not have the anti-inflammatory activity typical of NSAIDs. Pharmacology review
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