I have strong textbook support for all 4 answers. Here is a full breakdown:
NEET-PG 2026 Mock - Section C: All 4 Questions Answered
Q1. Child with barking cough, inspiratory stridor, fever. Most likely diagnosis?
✅ Correct Answer: D - Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
Your selected answer is correct.
Explanation:
The triad of barking (brassy) cough + inspiratory stridor + fever in a child is the classic presentation of acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). It is the most common cause of infectious upper airway obstruction in children (accounts for ~90% of cases). It is caused predominantly by parainfluenza virus. Symptoms are often worse at night and worsen with agitation.
- Epiglottitis presents more acutely with high fever, drooling, dysphagia, and the child sits in a "tripod/sniffing" position - no barking cough.
- Bronchiolitis affects the lower airways (expiratory wheeze, not stridor).
- Asthma causes expiratory wheeze, not inspiratory stridor.
Source: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine; Murray & Nadel's Respiratory Medicine; Swanson's Family Medicine Review
Q2. CKD patient with K⁺ = 7.2 mmol/L + ECG peaked T waves. Immediate treatment?
✅ Correct Answer: C - IV Calcium Gluconate
Your selected answer is correct.
Explanation:
This is severe hyperkalemia with cardiac membrane instability (evidenced by peaked T waves on ECG). The immediate first step is IV calcium gluconate (or calcium chloride if central access), which acts within minutes to stabilize the cardiac membrane and prevent fatal arrhythmias. It does NOT lower potassium levels - it just protects the heart.
Treatment sequence for hyperkalemia:
- IV Calcium gluconate - cardiac membrane stabilization (immediate, ~1-3 min)
- Insulin + Dextrose - shifts K⁺ into cells
- Sodium bicarbonate (if acidotic)
- Furosemide / dialysis - actual K⁺ removal
Furosemide alone (option B) is too slow and would not address cardiac danger. Oral potassium supplements (option D) would worsen the situation.
Source: Fischer's Mastery of Surgery; Rosen's Emergency Medicine - Hyperkalemia Management Table
Q3. 65-year-old smoker with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, elevated D-dimer. Most appropriate diagnostic test?
✅ Correct Answer: B - CT Pulmonary Angiography
Your selected answer is correct.
Explanation:
This clinical picture - sudden dyspnea + pleuritic chest pain + elevated D-dimer in a smoker (a risk factor for PE) - is classic for pulmonary embolism (PE). The gold-standard and most appropriate diagnostic test is CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA), which directly visualizes the pulmonary vasculature and clots.
- An elevated D-dimer rules in the need for imaging (it's sensitive but not specific).
- Bronchoscopy is for airway/parenchymal evaluation, not vascular.
- HRCT chest is for parenchymal lung disease (e.g. ILD, bronchiectasis).
- Spirometry assesses airflow obstruction.
Source: Rosen's Emergency Medicine; Goldman-Cecil Medicine - "PE is diagnosed using history, serum D-dimer measurement, and imaging, usually CT angiography"
Q4. 72-year-old with sudden right-sided weakness + aphasia (45 min ago). First-line imaging before thrombolysis?
✅ Correct Answer: B - Non-contrast CT brain
Your selected answer is correct.
Explanation:
In acute stroke with potential thrombolysis candidacy, the first-line mandatory imaging is non-contrast CT (NCCT) of the brain. It is fast (<5 minutes), widely available, and - most importantly - it must be done to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before giving IV tPA (alteplase), as thrombolytics are absolutely contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke.
- MRI (DWI) is more sensitive for early ischemic stroke but takes longer and may not be immediately available.
- PET scan has no role in acute stroke.
- EEG is for seizure evaluation.
The time window here is only 45 minutes into the event (well within the 4.5-hour tPA window), making speed essential - NCCT is the right call.
Source: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine - "Obtain emergency non-contrast-enhanced CT for suspected acute stroke upon arrival"
Summary Table
| Q | Topic | Correct Answer | Your Answer |
|---|
| 1 | Barking cough + stridor in child | Croup (LTB) | ✅ Correct |
| 2 | Hyperkalemia with ECG changes | IV Calcium Gluconate | ✅ Correct |
| 3 | Sudden dyspnea + elevated D-dimer | CT Pulmonary Angiography | ✅ Correct |
| 4 | Acute stroke before thrombolysis | Non-contrast CT brain | ✅ Correct |
All 4 answers are correct! Well done on this set.These are the same 4 questions from your previous set. All 4 of your selected answers are correct. Here's a quick recap:
✅ Q1 - Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
Barking cough + inspiratory stridor + fever in a child = classic croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis). Caused by parainfluenza virus. Epiglottitis lacks the barking cough and presents with drooling/tripod posture.
✅ Q2 - IV Calcium Gluconate
CKD + K⁺ = 7.2 mmol/L + peaked T waves on ECG = severe hyperkalemia with cardiac risk. IV Calcium gluconate is the immediate first step - it stabilizes the cardiac membrane within 1-3 minutes. It does not lower potassium but prevents fatal arrhythmias while other measures (insulin/dextrose, dialysis) are arranged.
✅ Q3 - CT Pulmonary Angiography
Sudden dyspnea + pleuritic chest pain + elevated D-dimer = pulmonary embolism until proven otherwise. CTPA is the investigation of choice - it directly visualizes thrombus in the pulmonary vasculature. HRCT is for parenchymal disease; spirometry is for airflow obstruction.
✅ Q4 - Non-contrast CT Brain
Acute stroke presentation (right-sided weakness + aphasia, 45 min onset) before thrombolysis = NCCT brain is mandatory first. It rules out hemorrhage (an absolute contraindication to tPA) rapidly. MRI/DWI is more sensitive but too slow in an emergency thrombolysis window.
4/4 correct - great performance on this set!