You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 47-year-old woman seeks evaluation at your office because she has had postcoital vaginal bleeding for the past 8 months with occasional intermenstrual watery, blood-tinged vaginal discharge. Her family history is negative for malignancies and inherited disorders. She is the result of a pregnancy complicated by numerous miscarriages in the 1960s, for which her mother received diethylstilbestrol. During a pelvic examination, you notice a polypoid mass on the anterior wall of the vagina. The bimanual examination is negative for adnexal masses. You suspect the presence of carcinoma and, therefore, send tissue samples to pathology, which confirmed the presence of malignant cells. Which of the following is the most likely malignant tumor in this patient? Options: A) Clear cell adenocarcinoma B) Melanoma C) Botryoid sarcoma D) Verrucous carcinoma Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.