You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 52-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to severe pain of her first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. This pain started acutely, and she describes the pain as sharp. Her medical history is significant for obesity, hypertension, inflammatory bowel disease, and extensive alcohol use. She takes a number of medications but does not remember what they are. On physical exam, her right first MTP joint appears warm, swollen, erythematous, and exquisitely painful to the touch. After resolution of this acute episode, the patient is started on a drug to prevent recurrence of the symptoms. One month later on follow-up, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which of the following describes the mechanism of the drug most likely prescribed in this case? Options: A) Antibody to soluble factor B) Inhibitor of microtubule polymerization C) Inhibitor of proximal tubule reabsorption D) Inhibitor of xanthine oxidase Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.