You are answering a USMLE-style medical question. Question: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of an acute, painful swelling of the left labia that she first noticed that morning. She also reports some pain while sitting and walking. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and states that she has been having pain during vaginal intercourse lately. She has no history of serious illness. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a left-sided, tender mass surrounded by edema and erythema in the left inner labia. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Options: A) Cryotherapy B) Incision and drainage C) Biopsy D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Reply with ONLY the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C, or D). No explanation.